CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1101)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1101 (Core 1)
- 220-1102 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1101
The CompTIA A+ 220-1101 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1101 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
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Free CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A company has an essential internally developed application that was created for an operating system that is no longer supported. The IT department needs to ensure continued use of the application without compromising system security with an outdated OS. What is the MOST effective solution?
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Run the application in compatibility mode on the new operating system.
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Update the application code to make it compatible with the new operating system, eliminating the need for virtualization.
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Continue running the application on physical machines dedicated to the old operating system.
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Deploy the legacy application within a virtual machine that emulates the older operating system environment.
Answer Description
Using application virtualization to run the legacy software allows the company to continue using the outdated application on modern operating systems without the risk of running an unsupported OS on their hardware. This ensures the application is isolated from the host OS, thus mitigating any potential security risks associated with the old software.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is application virtualization?
What are the security risks of running an outdated operating system?
How does emulating an old OS in a virtual machine work?
You have been tasked with implementing a new server in your company's network which will be responsible for assigning IP addresses to client machines dynamically. Which role should you configure the server for?
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Syslog server
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Fileshare server
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Domain Name System
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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer Description
The correct answer is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), since it is the role a server takes to dynamically distribute network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses, for interfaces and services. With DHCP, client machines can “lease” an IP address for a certain period of time. DNS (Domain Name System) serves as the phonebook for the internet, translating domain names to IP addresses, not dynamically assigning them. Syslog is used for logging and monitoring network devices, not for assigning IP addresses. A fileshare server is used for storing and sharing files, not assigning IP addresses.
Ask Bash
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What is DHCP and how does it work?
What is the difference between a static IP and a dynamic IP?
Why is DHCP important in a network?
Pairing a device using Bluetooth requires both devices to be discoverable to establish a connection.
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False
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True
Answer Description
When pairing two devices over Bluetooth, typically only one of the devices needs to be set to discoverable mode. The other device, which initiates the connection, scans for available devices and does not need to be discoverable itself. This question might trip up individuals who associate 'discoverability' as a requirement on both sides, which is not the case in most Bluetooth pairing scenarios.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean for a device to be discoverable in Bluetooth?
How does the Bluetooth pairing process work?
What are the potential security risks when pairing Bluetooth devices?
An employee is attempting to access company resources kept on a centralized server. The user has the right permissions but cannot seem to access the share via the network. As the IT technician, you confirm that the workstation is on the same network as the server and that both devices are operational. Which of the following protocols is MOST likely used for sharing files over a network between Windows-based systems, and its corresponding port should be checked for proper configuration on both the client's firewall and the server's firewall?
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HTTPS - 443
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FTP - 20/21
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SMTP - 25
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CIFS - 445
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HTTP - 80
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RDP - 3389
Answer Description
Server Message Block (SMB)/Common Internet File System (CIFS) is the protocol commonly used for file sharing over a network between Windows-based systems. The default port used for SMB/CIFS is port 445. Ensuring that this port is open on both client and server firewalls is essential for file sharing to work properly. Other ports mentioned might be plausible in different scenarios, for example, FTP uses ports 20 and 21 for file transfer but is not typically the default protocol for Windows file sharing. Additionally, HTTP and HTTPS (ports 80 and 443, respectively) are related to web services and not typically used for Windows network file sharing directly. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) operates on port 3389 and is utilized for remote desktop connections, not file sharing.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is SMB/CIFS and how does it work?
What is the significance of port 445?
How do firewalls affect file sharing protocols like CIFS?
When configuring a high-performance workstation, what is the main advantage of applying a setup that utilizes four separate pathways for the memory modules compared to configurations that use fewer pathways?
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Increased multichannel bandwidth providing higher throughput.
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Capability to use mismatched memory module sizes across the channels.
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More memory modules resulting in higher individual module frequencies.
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Larger total memory capacity available to the system.
Answer Description
The primary advantage of a setup using four separate pathways, known as a quad-channel configuration, is the increased bandwidth for data to move concurrently across all four channels. This arrangement offers better performance because it can handle more data transactions at once than what is achievable with fewer channels, thus providing significantly higher throughput rates.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is multichannel memory architecture?
How does quad-channel memory improve performance?
What factors should be considered when setting up a quad-channel memory configuration?
A customer brings in a mobile device complaining that their screen displays deep blacks and high contrast ratios, but they are concerned about the screen's vulnerability to burn-in with prolonged use of static images. Which type of screen technology is most likely used in this device?
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Organic light-emitting diode (OLED)
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In-plane switching (IPS)
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Twisted nematic (TN)
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Vertical alignment (VA)
Answer Description
OLED screens are known for their ability to produce deep blacks and high contrast ratios because they do not require a backlight — each pixel emits its own light. However, they are also susceptible to burn-in if static images are displayed for long periods. LCD and IPS screens use backlights and do not produce the same level of deep blacks as OLED screens, and while LCDs can suffer from burn-in, it's far less common than with OLED screens. TN and VA screens are types of LCD screens that also don't match the characteristics described for deep blacks and are not as prone to burn-in as OLED.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is burn-in and why is it a concern for OLED screens?
What advantages do OLED screens have over other types of displays?
How do IPS and TN LCD screens differ from OLED in terms of display quality?
A customer has brought in a laptop with a touch screen that is no longer accurately responding to touch input. You've verified that the touch screen functionality is enabled in the system settings, and the device has the latest drivers. What is the NEXT best step to take in troubleshooting the touch screen issue?
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Adjust the screen resolution to ensure it matches the touch input.
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Reinstall the touch screen drivers.
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Calibrate the touch screen.
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Replace the touch screen with a new one from an approved vendor.
Answer Description
Calibrating the touch screen can resolve issues where the touch input does not align with the display's visual output or are not working. This step is necessary to ensure that the touch input accurately corresponds to the correct location on the screen. Given drivers are up to date and the device is enabled in system settings, this is the logical next step in troubleshooting before trying more drastic methods like replacing hardware.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does calibrating a touch screen involve?
How do I know if a touch screen needs recalibration?
What are other troubleshooting steps if calibration doesn't work?
A technician needs to upgrade a laptop that currently has 4GB of memory installed in one of its two available memory slots. The user has requested enhanced performance for better multitasking. Given that the laptop supports a memory configuration that allows for increased throughput when both memory slots are populated with matching modules, what should the technician do next?
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Add an 8GB module to the free slot to maximize the system memory to 12GB, despite any differences in module size.
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Insert two new modules with different capacities, splitting the total memory across slots for perceived multitasking improvements.
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Replace the present module with a single 8GB module to avoid any potential compatibility issues while upgrading the overall memory capacity.
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Install another module with the same specifications as the existing one, making sure both have equal capacity and speed to activate dual-channel operation.
Answer Description
The technician should add another 4GB module that matches the specifications of the current memory. This action takes advantage of the laptop's support for a dual-channel configuration, which effectively doubles the available memory bandwidth when two identical modules are used in paired slots.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is dual-channel memory configuration?
Why is it important for memory modules to match in dual-channel configuration?
What are the potential benefits of adding memory to a laptop?
You are on the procurement team in the IT department of a large corporation. Your responsibility is to fact-check any IT related purchase requests to ensure the request's requirements are met. While reviewing an order of 6500 new tablet devices you notice one of the requirements is for a multi-color screen. Based on the type of tablets to be purchased you think this order will not meet this requirement. The tablets most likely have which type of screen?
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LCD
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E Ink
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LED
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OLED
Answer Description
LCD, LED & OLED are common screen types that support multiple colors. E Ink screens are used for eReaders and support only black & white.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the characteristics of E Ink screens?
How do LCD, LED, and OLED screens differ from E Ink?
Why are color screens important for tablets and how do they affect user experience?
When connecting a multifunction printer in an office environment, securing all communication using a user authentication system to access print, scan, and fax capabilities is considered best practice.
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True
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False
Answer Description
Securing communication using a user authentication system is indeed considered best practice. It prevents unauthorized usage and allows for tracking of printer activity, crucial in office environments where sensitive documents are handled. This ensures that only authenticated users can access the multifunction device and helps in maintaining print security, auditing, and accounting for all the jobs processed by the device.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are user authentication systems, and how do they work?
Why is print security important in an office environment?
What are the potential consequences of not securing a multifunction printer?
Which type of network is typically used to connect multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) within a city to a larger network that may span up to several miles?
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Metropolitan area network
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Wide area network
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Personal area network
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Local area network
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Wireless local area network
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Storage area network
Answer Description
A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is designed to extend over an entire city or metropolitan area, allowing multiple Local Area Networks to communicate across a larger geographic area than a LAN could cover, but not as extensive as a Wide Area Network (WAN). A MAN is often used by local governments, city utilities, or large organizations to connect offices that are spread throughout a city.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the primary purpose of a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?
How does a MAN compare to other types of networks like LAN and WAN?
What types of organizations typically use a MAN?
What is the primary function of a virtual environment when it is utilized as a sandbox?
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To provide additional storage space for the host system by creating virtual drives.
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To serve as the main operating environment for day-to-day use by the end-user.
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To increase the computing power available to an application by sharing resources with the host system.
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To test software in a secure, isolated environment without affecting the host system.
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To allow multiple users to share a single hardware platform simultaneously.
Answer Description
A sandbox is used for safe testing of software or code in an isolated environment that mimics the end operating environment without affecting the host system. This is a security measure that prevents potentially harmful software from having an impact on the host system or other networks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a sandbox in a virtual environment?
What does 'isolated environment' mean in the context of a virtual sandbox?
How does using a virtual environment as a sandbox enhance security?
A technician is tasked with installing a new high-performance storage device in a gaming PC that supports the latest technologies. The motherboard has multiple expansion slots and supports various storage interfaces. The gaming PC is used to run graphics-intensive games which require quick load times. Which of the following storage interfaces should the technician choose to meet the performance and technology requirements?
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Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)
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Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe)
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Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe) with a standard SSD
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Mini-SATA (mSATA)
Answer Description
Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe) leverages the high speeds of PCIe lanes to provide faster data transfer rates compared to SATA and other interfaces. This makes it the ideal choice for a gaming PC requiring quick load times for graphics-intensive games. Though SATA and PCIe also interface with the motherboard, they do not offer the same level of performance for an SSD as NVMe. mSATA was designed for small form factor devices and is not optimal for high performance, hence not suitable for this scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is NVMe and how does it improve performance?
What are the differences between SATA and NVMe?
What does PCIe stand for and how does it relate to storage devices?
A system administrator must configure a newly acquired enterprise-grade multifunction printer in a law firm, where the confidentiality of print jobs is paramount. Considering the high importance of document security due to sensitive information, and the need for robust performance during high workloads, which interface should the administrator use to integrate the printer into the company's existing infrastructure?
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Wi-Fi with WPA3 encryption
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Ethernet with 802.1X authentication
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USB with limited access user workstation
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Wi-Fi Direct with device access control
Answer Description
Given the firm's priority for confidentiality and the need for robust performance, using an Ethernet-based configuration is the best means to connect the multifunction printer to the network. Ethernet connections provide a stable and high-speed interface, which can handle large volumes of data traffic without significant packet loss – crucial during extensive print and scan tasks. Furthermore, Ethernet allows for network segmentation and advanced security protocols that can help safeguard sensitive documents. USB would not serve multiple network users efficiently. While Wi-Fi with WPA3 could offer reasonable security and serve multiple users, it may be less reliable than Ethernet in terms of stability and consistent speed. Wi-Fi Direct creates a point-to-point network but generally lacks the scalability and the advanced security features required for a law firm's environment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is 802.1X authentication and why is it important?
What are the advantages of using Ethernet for connecting printers in a high-security environment?
Why is USB not suitable for integrating multifunction printers in a networked office?
An employee at a law firm reports that the multi-function printer is not stapling documents as part of the finishing process, although it is still printing correctly. Upon inspection, you do not find any staple jams in the mechanism. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
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The staple cartridge is empty or improperly installed.
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The printer requires power cycling to reset the stapler mechanism.
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There is a fault in the printer's firmware requiring an update.
Answer Description
If there are no staple jams, then it's possible that the staple cartridge is either empty or improperly installed. This could prevent the stapler from functioning even if there are no obvious jams. Checking and replacing the staple cartridge or ensuring it is correctly installed should be the first troubleshooting step. A fault in the printer's firmware is less likely if other functions are performing correctly, and checking for software updates could be a preventative measure but not an immediate solution to the problem. While power cycling the device may resolve some issues, it's unlikely to solve a problem specific to the stapler function if everything else is working properly.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the signs that a staple cartridge is empty or improperly installed?
How do you check or replace a staple cartridge in a multi-function printer?
What other maintenance steps can be taken for a multi-function printer?
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