CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?
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Preventive control
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Detective control
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Directive control
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Corrective control
Answer Description
Policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors are examples of directive controls. Directive controls are designed to guide or instruct individuals or systems to ensure compliance with security requirements. They establish guidelines and expectations to influence behavior. Detective controls are intended to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents after they occur. Corrective controls focus on minimizing the impact of a security incident after it has occurred. Preventive controls aim to stop unwanted events from happening in the first place.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of directive controls?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Can you provide an example of a detective control?
Which form of access control is specifically designed to adapt in real-time to the perceived threat level, improving the security stance by continuously evaluating the risk and context associated with user access requests?
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Role-based access control (RBAC)
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Mandatory access control (MAC)
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Discretionary access control (DAC)
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Adaptive Policy-driven access control
Answer Description
Adaptive Policy-driven access control, also known as risk-adaptive access control, is correct because it incorporates real-time risk assessments based on context, such as user behavior, device security status, and data sensitivity, to adapt access permissions dynamically, thereby limiting the scope of threats by granting access based on policies that respond to perceived risk levels. While Role-based access control (RBAC) is statically designed based on predefined roles and Discretionary access control (DAC) is based on the resource owner's discretion, neither adapts dynamically to changing threat landscapes. Mandatory access control (MAC) is policy-based but not adaptive to real-time risks.
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What factors are considered in Adaptive Policy-driven access control?
How does Adaptive Policy-driven access control differ from Role-based access control (RBAC)?
Can Adaptive Policy-driven access control be implemented in existing systems?
An IT staff member is tasked with the day-to-day management of information assets, including implementing backup and recovery procedures and maintaining security controls, but does not have authority to make policy decisions regarding the data. What role does this staff member hold in the organization?
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Data Owner
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Data Controller
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Data Processor
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Data Custodian
Answer Description
The IT staff member in this scenario is fulfilling the role of a Data Custodian. Data Custodians are responsible for the technical management and operations of data assets, ensuring that data is properly backed up, secured, and maintained. They implement the policies and controls specified by Data Owners but do not set or decide on those policies themselves.
A Data Owner is typically a senior individual who has authority over and accountability for a specific set of data, making decisions about data classification, access permissions, and policy decisions.
A Data Controller is an entity or individual that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data, often in the context of privacy laws, which is not directly relevant to the described duties.
A Data Processor is an entity that processes data on behalf of a Data Controller, but again, this role is more about processing activities rather than managing and maintaining data assets.
Ask Bash
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What are the specific responsibilities of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from that of a Data Custodian?
What are the implications of not having a defined Data Custodian role in an organization?
During a risk assessment a company determines their acceptable level of risk. To achieve a desired objective, it is decided that the company can deviate a certain amount from the determined level of risk. This deviation is called what?
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Risk tolerance
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Risk appetite
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Risk register
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Risk identification
Answer Description
Once a company determines their acceptable risk level, any deviation from that is called the company’s risk tolerance.
Ask Bash
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What is risk tolerance and how is it different from risk appetite?
What role does risk assessment play in determining risk tolerance?
Can risk tolerance change over time, and if so, what factors influence that change?
In a scenario where a regional healthcare provider is implementing a strategy to segregate its administrative, clinical, and guest networks to both minimize its attack surface and comply with health information privacy regulations, which technology should be utilized to not only separate the segments but also enforce distinct security policies and control inter-segment traffic?
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Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for routing control
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Transport Layer Security (TLS) for secure communications
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Quality of Service (QoS) configuration for traffic prioritization
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Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Answer Description
A next-generation firewall (NGFW) provides the advanced functionality needed for logical network segmentation, augmenting classic firewall capabilities with features such as application awareness and intrusion prevention. NGFWs ensure that strict security policies can be enforced and managed between segmented zones, which is perfect for an environment handling sensitive health records. This technology provides the required granularity for compliance with healthcare regulations, making it the optimal choice over other options that either lack the sophistication in policy management or are not primarily designed for inter-segment traffic control within the same network.
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What features make a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) stand out compared to a traditional firewall?
How does inter-segment traffic control work within an NGFW?
Why is it essential for healthcare providers to comply with health information privacy regulations?
Personnel is considered the weakest part of security. To combat this, you developed a security awareness training program for your company. Employee training is considered what type of security control?
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Technical
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Preventive
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Physical
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Detective
Answer Description
Preventative controls are security controls who’s purpose is to prevent an incident from occurring. One of the main goals of security awareness training is to train your employees to prevent them from commenting security incidents
Ask Bash
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What are preventive security controls?
Why is employee training considered a preventive control?
What other types of security controls exist?
A playbook includes a collection of pre-defined rules, actions, and recommendations to automate response and remediation activities for common security incidents.
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True
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False
Answer Description
A playbook is indeed a set of predefined rules, actions, and recommendations designed to standardize the approach to handling security incidents. It often includes automated responses to streamline the remediation process and ensure a consistent and efficient reaction to common incidents across the organization.
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What types of incidents can be addressed by a playbook?
How does automation in playbooks improve incident response?
What components are typically included in a security incident playbook?
During a post-incident review meeting, a security analyst is tasked with improving the incident response process based on recent events. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure a positive impact on future incident response capabilities?
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Updating the Incident Response Plan with specific improvements identified from the incident.
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Revising all security training materials without assessing their relevance to the incident.
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Conducting a review of historical incident trends without making changes to existing procedures.
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Deciding that the existing Incident Response Plan is sufficient since the incident was eventually contained.
Answer Description
The correct answer involves updating the Incident Response Plan with improvements identified during the review of a recent incident. This is the best choice because it directly applies feedback from actual incidents to enhance procedures and readiness for future events. Simply reviewing historical trends or concluding that the existing plan is sufficient does not provide the iterative improvement needed for effective incident response. Updating training materials without specific reference to the improvements identified may not address the issues encountered during the incident.
Ask Bash
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What is an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
What are some specific improvements that can be made to an Incident Response Plan?
Why is iterative improvement important in incident response?
During an incident response, a security analyst has identified a server that may have been compromised. The analyst decides to take an image of the server's hard drive for further analysis. Which of the following is the MOST critical step to ensure the integrity of the investigation?
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Physically secure the server to prevent further access.
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Document the process and the individuals involved in handling the server.
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Limit access to the server by updating access control lists.
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Generate a digital hash of the server's hard drive image.
Answer Description
Creating a digital hash of the hard drive image is critical to maintain the integrity of the investigation. Hashing the image ensures that an investigator can verify that the evidence has not been altered from the time of acquisition. This process establishes a unique digital fingerprint for the data at the moment of capture, which can be compared against the data at any point afterward to confirm that it remains unaltered. Physically securing the server and limiting access to the server are important, but they do not address the integrity of the digital evidence after its acquisition. Documenting the process is also essential but secondary to securing the image's integrity through hashing.
Ask Bash
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What is a digital hash and how does it work?
Why is it important to ensure the integrity of digital evidence during an investigation?
What steps should be taken to properly document the incident response process?
The software section of the security team has been asked to review the source code for a program being developed. They are being asked to look for any coding errors or possible security vulnerabilities. This is what type of application security review?
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Secure coding
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Fuzzing
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Static code analysis
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Dynamic code analysis
Answer Description
Static code analysis is the analysis of software code without executing the software. Reviewing the lines of a program’s/software’s source code is a type of static code analysis. Dynamic code analysis is performed while it is being executed.
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What is the difference between static and dynamic code analysis?
What are some common tools used for static code analysis?
Can static code analysis find all security vulnerabilities?
An organization discovers that its trade secrets are being sold to competing businesses. What type of threat actor is MOST likely behind this activity, aiming to gain a competitive edge through underhanded tactics?
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Hacktivist
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Nation-state
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Organized crime
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Unskilled attacker
Answer Description
A nation-state actor is typically motivated by political, military, or economic advantage on a national scale and may engage in espionage, but selling corporate secrets for a direct competitive advantage is less common. An unskilled attacker generally does not have the capability to carry out sophisticated breaches involving trade secrets. A hacktivist is generally motivated by political or social beliefs rather than financial gain. Organized crime, however, is primarily motivated by financial gain and is well-equipped to carry out such sophisticated attacks with the intent of selling stolen information for profit, making them the most likely threat actor in this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What motivates organized crime groups to engage in cyber threats?
How do organized crime groups gather trade secrets?
What distinguishes a hacktivist from an organized crime group?
Which role best describes the function of the protocol dedicated to automating the checking of security configurations, vulnerabilities, and policy compliance?
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Logging and analyzing network traffic for potential security threats
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Enabling secure communications between different network entities
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Automated assessment, monitoring, and policy compliance evaluation
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Coordination and negotiation of network protocols for data transfer
Answer Description
The protocol central to automating the assessment, monitoring, and evaluation of system vulnerabilities and security configurations is designed to provide standardized methods for security assessment, vulnerability management, and policy compliance checks across various systems. Its function is not primarily to enable secure communications, coordinate network protocols, or log and analyze network traffic, but rather to streamline and enforce security standards in an automated fashion.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of protocols that automate security assessments and monitoring?
How does automated assessment improve security compared to manual methods?
What is policy compliance evaluation and why is it important in security protocols?
A company has implemented a new policy requiring IT management to conduct security reviews of all vendors before onboarding them. The reviews need to ensure that the vendors are adhering to the same security standards as the company. Which of the following actions is MOST effective for assessing the vendors' adherence to these standards?
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Reviewing the vendors' privacy policies.
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Conducting third-party security audits of the vendors.
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Comparing the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) to the company's standards.
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Examining product data sheets for security features.
Answer Description
Conducting third-party security audits is the most effective way to assess vendors' adherence to security standards. These audits often include an in-depth analysis of the vendors' security policies, practices, and controls. This can provide an objective and comprehensive overview of the vendors' security posture and compliance with relevant standards. Reviewing the vendors' privacy policies is important but may not offer a complete picture of their security practices. Examining product data sheets only provides information about the products and not the vendors' security standards. Comparing SLAs can showcase the guaranteed performance and availability, but it does not directly address security compliance.
Ask Bash
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What are third-party security audits?
Why are privacy policies not enough to ensure security compliance?
What role do Service Level Agreements (SLAs) play in security assessments?
Your organization operates in the healthcare industry in the United States, and is planning to deploy a new patient management system. Which of the following is the MOST APPLICABLE approach to ensure compliance with industry-specific security requirements?
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Implement security controls in accordance with HIPAA regulations
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Use the NIST cybersecurity framework as a guideline
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Adhere strictly to the GDPR for all data processing activities
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Follow the SOX requirements for security compliance
Answer Description
HIPAA is the correct answer because it is a specific regulatory requirement in the healthcare industry in the United States that provides guidelines on protecting the privacy and security of health information. GDPR is focused on data protection for EU citizens, although it can apply to organizations outside the EU that handle such data, it is not specific to the healthcare industry. Sarbanes-Oxley Act relates to financial reporting and is not healthcare-specific. The NIST framework provides excellent guidance on cybersecurity practices but is not a healthcare industry-specific regulation.
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What does HIPAA stand for and what are its main objectives?
What are the penalties for non-compliance with HIPAA regulations?
How does HIPAA differ from other security regulations like GDPR and SOX?
Which hardware-based security solution is specifically designed to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys for a wide variety of applications?
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Key Management System
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HSM
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Secure Enclave
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TPM
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys, performs encryption and decryption functions for digital signatures, and provides strong authentication. HSMs are specifically designed for the secure generation, storage, and management of cryptographic keys, offering a higher level of security compared to software-based key management solutions. They are widely used in applications requiring high-level security, such as banking, government, and healthcare.
Ask Bash
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What are the main functions of an HSM?
How does an HSM differ from software-based key management solutions?
In which industries are HSMs commonly used?
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