CompTIA CySA+ Practice Test (CS0-003)
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CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Information
CompTIA CySA+, short for CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst, is a globally recognized certification designed for IT professionals seeking to specialize in cybersecurity analytics and threat detection. This certification is aimed at individuals who want to enhance their skills in identifying and mitigating security threats within an organization's network. CySA+ certification covers various aspects of cybersecurity, including threat analysis, vulnerability assessment, and incident response. It validates the ability to analyze data and behavior patterns to detect and respond to security incidents effectively. By earning the CompTIA CySA+ certification, professionals demonstrate their proficiency in protecting organizations against evolving cyber threats, making them valuable assets in the field of cybersecurity.
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Free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Security OperationsVulnerability ManagementIncident Response and ManagementReporting and Communication
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What is the primary purpose of the hierarchical database found in all modern versions of Windows?
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To manage user profiles and document individual user settings
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To track installed hardware devices and their drivers
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To serve as a repository for temporary internet files and cookies
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To monitor real-time system performance and resource usage
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To control the network protocols and ports used by the system
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To store configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed programs
Answer Description
The Windows Registry is designed to store configuration settings and options on Microsoft Windows operating systems. It contains settings for both the operating system itself and the programs that run on Windows. Each option and setting is stored as a registry key, which can be edited to modify system behavior. Understanding the registry's role is essential for diagnosing system issues, implementing security measures, and managing system configurations.
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What is the Windows Registry and how does it work?
What are some common tasks performed on the Windows Registry?
What are the risks of editing the Windows Registry?
A web application security auditor notices that a company’s web application displays search results directly in the web page without sanitizing or encoding the user's input. The auditor suspects that this behavior could allow an attacker to execute a type of vulnerability related to injecting malicious scripts. What type of vulnerability is likely to be present in this scenario?
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Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
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SQL injection
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Reflected cross-site scripting
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Persistent cross-site scripting
Answer Description
Reflected cross-site scripting is the correct answer because it occurs when an application receives data in a request and includes that data in the immediate response in an unsafe way. In the scenario described, the web application reflects user input directly in the response, which is a classic example of a reflected cross-site scripting vulnerability. Persistent cross-site scripting requires the injected script to be stored on the server and then displayed in subsequent responses to any user visiting the affected page. Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) involves tricking a user into making a request to perform an action that they are authorized to perform, typically without their knowledge, which is not indicated in this scenario. Lastly, SQL injection occurs when an attacker is able to manipulate a SQL query through user input, which is unrelated to script injection reflected in web responses.
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What is reflected cross-site scripting (XSS)?
How can web applications prevent reflected XSS vulnerabilities?
What is the difference between reflected and persistent XSS?
When performing log analysis after detecting a potential security incident, what is the primary purpose of correlating time stamps across diverse systems and devices?
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To determine when to re-image affected systems
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To enforce legal hold across the enterprise
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To streamline the process of recovery and remediation
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To construct an accurate timeline of events
Answer Description
Correlating time stamps across multiple systems and devices enables an analyst to construct a timeline of events, which is essential for understanding the sequence in which the incident occurred. This timeline can be compared against the known behavior of security threats to identify patterns and potential points of entry or areas of impact. This question tests knowledge of log analysis techniques. Other options, while potentially useful in other contexts, do not focus on the primary purpose of time stamp correlation in incident investigation.
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Why is constructing an accurate timeline of events important in log analysis?
What are some common tools used for log analysis in security incidents?
How do security analysts determine patterns and potential points of entry based on log analysis?
What is commonly used by security professionals to signify potential evidence that a cyber security breach has occurred?
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Malware Tracking Metrics (MTM)
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Anti-Virus Alerts
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IoCs
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Heightened data usage
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Unusual outbound traffic
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Patch levels
Answer Description
Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are artifacts observed on a network or in an operating system that with high confidence indicate a computer intrusion. Understanding IoCs is vital for cybersecurity analysts as they allow for early detection of breaches and initiate a response. False positives, such as Anti-Virus Alerts, are sometimes mistaken for IoCs but they often require further investigation as they could also be indicative of a false alarm or benign activity. Unusual outbound traffic could be an IoC, but it is not a definitive indication on its own; it needs corroboration with other signs of compromise. Heightened data usage may raise suspicions but does not necessarily provide evidence of a breach.
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What exactly are Indicators of Compromise (IoCs)?
Why are false positives a concern when identifying IoCs?
How can unusual outbound traffic be an IoC?
Which of the following scenarios is MOST indicative of a server-side request forgery (SSRF) vulnerability being exploited?
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A user's web browser is compromised by malicious script that executes when visiting a compromised website.
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A user input is directly inserted into a database query without sanitization, leading to unauthorized data exposure.
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A server application crashes due to a buffer overflow caused by unexpected user input.
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An attacker induces the server to make a request to an internal resource, which should not be accessible.
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'An attacker induces the server to make a request to an internal resource, which should not be accessible.' This depicts a classic SSRF attack, where the attacker is able to cause the server to perform an action on their behalf, often accessing internal resources that the attacker normally couldn't reach. SSRF exploits the trust that a server has in itself to erroneously execute internal interactions. The incorrect options do not describe SSRF vulnerabilities; a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack involves executing scripts in a victim's web browser rather than internal server requests. Buffer overflows are related to memory safety vulnerabilities, not SSRF. A SQL injection attack involves inserting malicious SQL queries via input fields, not manipulating server requests.
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What are some common examples of SSRF attacks?
How can SSRF vulnerabilities be mitigated?
What is the difference between SSRF and XSS vulnerabilities?
As a cybersecurity analyst for an international e-commerce platform that has recently started operations in the European Union, you receive various threat intelligence reports. Considering the company's strategic business changes, which piece of threat intelligence should be deemed MOST relevant to analyze and act upon first?
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Detailed reports about mobile malware trends in Asia-Pacific regions
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Notifications about emerging regulatory requirements for online data handling specific to the European market
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Algorithms for detecting anomalies in virtual private network (VPN) traffic
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Broad threat landscape summaries for the retail sector in Q1
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Notifications about emerging regulatory requirements for online data handling specific to the European market.' This answer is the most relevant because the e-commerce platform is now operating within the European Union, which means it is subject to EU data handling and privacy laws, such as the GDPR. Non-compliance could lead to significant fines and legal issues, along with reputational damage. As such, threats or changes regarding these laws are integral to the business operation and must be a priority. The other options, while potentially important, are less immediately relevant to the company's European operations: 'Detailed reports about mobile malware trends in Asia-Pacific regions' are geographically irrelevant; 'Algorithms for detecting anomalies in virtual private network (VPN) traffic' offer a security measure that could be globally relevant but doesn't have specific implications for the new EU operations; 'Broad threat landscape summaries for the retail sector in Q1' offer useful contextual information, but lack the immediacy and specificity required for prioritizing actions related to the business's geographic expansion.
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What is GDPR and why is it important for e-commerce companies operating in the EU?
What kinds of regulatory requirements related to online data handling should we monitor in the EU?
What are potential consequences of failing to comply with EU data handling regulations?
Your organization has recently conducted a security audit and identified the need to improve the cybersecurity training for employees to substantially reduce human error-related security breaches. Which type of control should you primarily focus on implementing to address the identified need?
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Operational controls, such as security guards and incident response teams
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Technical controls, such as automated intrusion detection systems
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Managerial controls, such as policies for mandatory cybersecurity training programs
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Preventative controls, such as implementing two-factor authentication across the organization
Answer Description
Managerial controls relate to the policies and procedures that establish the organization's security management structure and the guiding principles for security practices. In this scenario, focusing on providing cybersecurity training to employees to reduce human error through improved understanding of security protocols is best aligned with implementing a managerial control. Technical controls are more related to hardware or software mechanisms that enforce security policies (e.g., firewalls, intrusion detection systems). Operational controls involve the day-to-day execution and implementation of security procedures (e.g., incident response processes), whereas preventative controls aim to avoid security incidents from occurring altogether (e.g., use of strong authentication mechanisms).
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What are managerial controls in cybersecurity?
How does cybersecurity training reduce human error-related breaches?
What is the difference between technical, operational, and managerial controls?
As a security analyst at a financial institution, you noticed an unexpected surge in outbound network traffic during off-hours when the office is typically empty. While investigating, you uncover numerous connections to foreign IP addresses known to be outside of your organization's normal communications. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this traffic?
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Network performance testing
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Routine backup processes
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Data exfiltration attempts
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Authorized remote employee access
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Data exfiltration attempts'. This scenario is indicative of potential unauthorized data transfer to external entities, often a sign of a compromised system where an attacker is extracting sensitive information. A significant increase in outbound traffic, particularly to foreign or unusual IP addresses during off-hours, is a common indicator of compromised systems involved in data exfiltration.
The incorrect options—'Routine backup processes', 'Authorized remote employee access', and 'Network performance testing'—although they may also cause traffic spikes, are less likely in this scenario given the unusual time and the connection to foreign IPs known to be outside normal communications. These activities would typically be planned, documented, and occur within known operational parameters.
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What are data exfiltration attempts?
How can I identify data exfiltration attempts?
What are the typical signs of a compromised system?
Your company has recently updated its incident response plan and added several new members to the incident response team. As part of the preparation phase, you want to assess the team's understanding of their roles and the execution of the updated response plan. Which type of training exercise would be most effective for this purpose?
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Live fire exercise
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Technical skills workshop
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Tabletop exercise
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Automated simulation
Answer Description
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet to discuss their roles during an incident and walk through a realistic scenario in a non-threatening environment. This type of exercise is ideal for validating understanding of the updated incident response plan and the roles of new team members without the stress of an actual security incident.
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What exactly happens during a tabletop exercise?
How does a tabletop exercise differ from a live fire exercise?
What are the benefits of conducting a tabletop exercise for an incident response team?
A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with improving the threat intelligence capabilities of their organization. One approach involves enhancing the current threat intelligence platform to allow for better actionable insights derived from various data sources. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?
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Conducting more frequent security awareness training sessions to reduce the risk of social engineering attacks.
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Increasing the frequency of vulnerability scanning to identify potential security weaknesses more rapidly.
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Implementing data enrichment capabilities to combine and contextualize feeds from multiple threat intelligence sources.
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Deploying additional firewalls to segment the organizational network further and reduce the attack surface.
Answer Description
Data enrichment is the process of enhancing, refining, or improving raw data. In the context of threat intelligence, this often means adding context or correlating threat data from multiple sources to provide more meaningful insights. By enriching data, a cybersecurity analyst can have a clearer understanding of the threats, leading to more effective decision-making and response actions. The incorrect options are tangential to the direct enhancement of the threat intelligence platform; while they may contribute to the overall security posture, they do not focus on the orchestration of threat intelligence data.
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What are threat intelligence platforms?
What does data enrichment entail in the context of cybersecurity?
How does correlating threat intelligence sources improve security?
What is an essential document that outlines the processes and procedures an organization must follow in the event of a security incident?
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Playbook
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Business Continuity Plan
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Incident Response Plan
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Security Policy
Answer Description
An Incident Response Plan is crucial as it provides a pre-defined set of guidelines and procedures for managing and mitigating security incidents. It ensures that the response to an incident is conducted systematically and effectively, minimizing damage and reducing recovery time and costs. Other options are elements or tools that could be mentioned in the plan but are not plans themselves.
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What should be included in an Incident Response Plan?
How often should an Incident Response Plan be reviewed or updated?
What is the difference between an Incident Response Plan and a Business Continuity Plan?
While conducting a security review of a Linux-based server, you are tasked with verifying the integrity of the configuration files for the SSH service. Where is the BEST location to check for the primary SSH configuration file?
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/var/ssh/sshd_config
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/etc/ssh/ssh_config
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/usr/local/ssh/sshd_config
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/etc/ssh/sshd_config
Answer Description
The /etc/ssh/sshd_config
file is the correct answer because it is the default location for the OpenSSH server configuration file on most Linux distributions. This file contains settings that dictate how the SSH server behaves, including security-relevant parameters such as allowed authentication methods and permitted users. Other directories mentioned may contain configuration files for different purposes or services, but not for the SSH server.
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What is the purpose of the sshd_config file?
What are some common settings found in sshd_config?
How does ssh_config differ from sshd_config?
Utilizing a SIEM system to automatically correlate and analyze event logs from multiple sources aids in the detection of complex threats that may not be identifiable through manual analysis alone.
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Correct
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Incorrect
Answer Description
This statement is correct because SIEM systems are designed to aggregate, correlate, and analyze event logs from a variety of sources. They use complex algorithms and rules to detect patterns and anomalies that are indicative of security incidents, something that is difficult and time-consuming to achieve with manual analysis. SIEM systems provide a holistic view of an organization's information security, making threat detection more efficient and effective.
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What does SIEM stand for and what are its main components?
How does a SIEM system correlate event logs to detect threats?
What are some benefits of using a SIEM system over manual log analysis?
A security analyst is tasked with the vulnerability management process in an organization that follows strict regulatory compliance. After the latest vulnerability scan, several issues have been identified, but due to resource constraints not all can be immediately addressed. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in prioritizing which vulnerabilities to mitigate?
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List the vulnerabilities in descending order of asset criticality.
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Rank the vulnerabilities based on the potential scope of impact alone.
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Prioritize based on which vulnerabilities require a patch available from the software vendor.
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Apply risk management principles to determine the level of threat each vulnerability poses to the organization.
Answer Description
Prioritization and escalation are fundamental steps in vulnerability response and management. Using the risk management principles to assess the level of threat posed by each vulnerability is the best way to prioritize them, as it takes into account their potential impact on the organization and regulatory requirements. Patch requirement is an important consideration, but it should be assessed after determining the risk level. Scope of impact is part of the risk assessment rather than the first step. Asset criticality is only one aspect of the risk and does not provide a complete prioritization on its own.
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What are risk management principles?
What factors should be considered when assessing the impact of vulnerabilities?
How does regulatory compliance influence vulnerability prioritization?
Which of the following actions is MOST crucial when beginning threat hunting efforts, focusing on the protection of assets vital to the company's core functionality?
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Continuously review access logs for all systems to immediately identify unauthorized access to business-critical assets.
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Ensure that all systems are regularly updated to the latest security patches regardless of their business criticality.
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Keep regular backups of all systems to quickly restore any compromised business-critical assets.
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Create a comprehensive inventory of all business-critical assets to ensure they are prioritized in hunting activities.
Answer Description
Creating a comprehensive inventory of business-critical assets is essential to effectively prioritize threat hunting efforts. Without a clear understanding of which assets are critical, it is difficult to allocate resources properly and may lead to inadequate protection of crucial systems. Keeping backups of crucial assets certainly helps in recovery, but it is not directly related to the initial step of threat hunting. Regularly updating all systems is a good security practice, but it does not directly influence the prioritization in threat hunting. Reviewing access logs continuously is important for detecting anomalies but again falls short in terms of prioritizing efforts on business-critical assets.
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Why is creating an inventory of business-critical assets important for threat hunting?
What types of assets should be included in a comprehensive inventory?
How does threat hunting differ from traditional security measures like backups and updates?
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