AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.
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Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
A 45-year-old female patient comes to the office complaining of an intermittent shadow in her peripheral vision that comes and goes over the past few weeks. As a medical assistant, you are instructed to assess her field of vision before the ophthalmologist reviews her symptoms. Which technique should you employ to evaluate the integrity of the patient's peripheral vision?
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Conduct a confrontation visual field test
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Perform automated perimetry
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Assess visual acuity using a Snellen chart
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Use the Amsler grid test
Answer Description
The correct technique for assessing a patient's visual fields in a clinical setting is the confrontation visual field test. This is a quick and efficient way to screen for major defects in the visual field. The medical assistant can perform this by having the patient cover one eye, fixate on a central point, and respond when they see moving objects or fingers coming into their peripheral vision. Automated perimetry and Amsler grid can only be performed using specialized equipment or tools that are not typically administered by medical assistants in an immediate pre-examination context. Visual acuity tests measure the sharpness of vision and are unrelated to peripheral vision testing.
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What is the confrontation visual field test?
What does it mean to assess peripheral vision?
Why can't a medical assistant perform automated perimetry?
A patient presents with a laceration that was sutured three days ago. Upon inspection, you note slight redness and swelling around the wound, but no purulent discharge. What is the best course of action to take next?
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Inform the patient that redness and swelling are normal and to remove the sutures if it bothers them.
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Advise the patient to clean the wound at home with hydrogen peroxide.
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Cleanse the wound with a mild antiseptic solution and apply a fresh, sterile dressing.
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Apply an antibiotic ointment, assuming no allergy, without cleaning the wound.
Answer Description
For a sutured wound with signs of slight redness and swelling but no purulent discharge, the appropriate step would be to cleanse the wound with a mild antiseptic solution and apply a fresh, sterile dressing. This approach will help minimize the risk of infection and promote healing. Cleaning it with hydrogen peroxide or applying an antibiotic ointment without evaluating for an allergy could potentially harm the tissue or cause an allergic reaction. Ignoring these mild signs and advising the patient to remove the sutures themselves could lead to infection or poor wound healing.
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Why is it important to cleanse a wound with a mild antiseptic?
What does purulent discharge indicate in a healing wound?
What could be potential consequences of not properly caring for a sutured wound?
During the inspection phase of a physical examination, you note that a patient's skin appears yellowish in color. What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?
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Continue with the physical examination without noting the finding in the patient's record.
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Reassure the patient that it is a common finding and proceed with the examination.
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Report the observation promptly to the healthcare provider for further assessment.
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Offer the patient a glass of water, as this might be due to dehydration.
Answer Description
Jaundice, or yellowing of the skin, often indicates a liver problem or bile duct obstruction and requires further clinical assessment. It is important for a medical assistant to recognize this sign and report it immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation. It would not be appropriate to proceed with patient reassurance without provider assessment, offer the patient water, or ignore the finding as these actions do not address the potential underlying health concern.
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What causes jaundice in patients?
What are the signs of liver problems I should look for?
Why is it important to report jaundice to a healthcare provider?
When performing a subcutaneous immunotherapy procedure on a patient with documented seasonal allergies, what is the immediate action a medical assistant should take if the patient starts to exhibit symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing and widespread hives?
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Administer epinephrine and call for emergency medical services
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Ask the patient to drink water and rest in a comfortable position
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Provide an antihistamine and wait for improvement
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Have the patient lie down and elevate their feet
Answer Description
In cases of anaphylaxis, it is vital to provide emergency treatment right away. Administering epinephrine is the most effective method for counteracting the severe allergic reaction and maintaining airway patency until emergency services arrive.
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What is anaphylaxis and what causes it?
What is epinephrine and why is it used in anaphylaxis?
What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis I should look for?
A medical assistant is asked to refill a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance for a patient. What is the correct protocol to follow?
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The prescription can be refilled up to five times within six months before a new prescription is needed.
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The patient must see the doctor for a new prescription.
Answer Description
Schedule II controlled substances have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Prescriptions for these medications cannot be refilled without a new prescription from the prescribing provider. Therefore, the correct answer is that the patient must see the doctor for a new prescription. It's important to note that refilling such prescriptions without proper authorization is illegal and against medical regulations, highlighting the gravity of managing controlled substances responsibly.
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What are Schedule II controlled substances?
What is the Controlled Substances Act?
What happens if a prescription for a Schedule II drug is refilled incorrectly?
As a medical assistant, which of the following approaches to documenting a patient's family history would provide the MOST valuable information for assessing hereditary risk factors?
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Focusing on the personal lifestyle choices of distant relatives, both maternal and paternal
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Reviewing extensive relatives' historical residence locations and related environmental exposures
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Discussing major medical conditions, age of onset, and cause of death of first-degree relatives
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Gathering detailed medical histories of any known half-siblings and stepsiblings
Answer Description
A detailed health history of first-degree relatives including any major medical conditions, age of onset, and cause of death if deceased, yields the most significant insight into potential hereditary risks. This detailed information can reveal patterns or risks of inheritable diseases that may be pertinent to the patient's care. Talking about extensive relatives, investigating distant relatives' environmental factors, or detailing half-siblings' and stepsiblings' histories are less direct indicators of the patient’s own genetic risk and therefore less valuable in the immediate assessment of hereditary conditions.
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What are first-degree relatives and why are they important in assessing family history?
What types of hereditary risk factors should be documented from first-degree relatives?
Why is focusing on distant relatives or lifestyle factors less valuable in assessing hereditary risks?
A physician decides to terminate the care of a noncompliant patient. Which of the following is the BEST way for the medical assistant to ensure compliance with legal and ethical standards?
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Sending a certified letter to the patient with a return receipt requested
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Notifying the patient via a text message to their registered mobile number
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Sending an email notification to the patient's last known email address
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Informing the patient during a routine phone call about the decision to terminate care
Answer Description
Sending a certified letter with a return receipt is the correct method for documenting patient notification when terminating care. This method provides proof that the patient was adequately informed about the termination of medical care, in case of future legal disputes. The use of certified mail with a return receipt ensures that there is a recorded delivery and acknowledgment from the patient. The text message and phone call options do not provide adequate documentation, and while an email may offer some record, it does not guarantee the patient will acknowledge or even receive the termination notice.
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What are the legal implications of terminating patient care?
Why is certified mail preferred over other forms of communication in this context?
What constitutes a noncompliant patient in a medical context?
What is the purpose of an incident report in a healthcare setting?
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To record patient complaints about care quality for customer service improvement
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To provide a disciplinary record for the staff involved in the incident
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To assess employee performance and determine eligibility for promotions
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To document any event out of the ordinary that could potentially lead to harm, allowing for analysis and preventive action
Answer Description
An incident report in a healthcare setting is used to document any occurrence out of the normal range of expected healthcare processes that could potentially result in harm to patients, staff, or visitors. It is not a disciplinary record for the staff but serves as a means to identify potential risks and prevent future incidents by allowing for analysis and quality improvement strategies. This is important for maintaining a safe healthcare environment and for legal documentation purposes.
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What specific types of events are typically documented in an incident report?
How do incident reports contribute to quality improvement in healthcare?
What are the legal implications of incident reports in healthcare?
A patient is seen for a sore throat, and a throat culture is performed to rule out streptococcal pharyngitis. The results are negative, and the patient is diagnosed with acute viral pharyngitis. When billing for this visit, which diagnostic code should be linked to the procedure of the throat culture to align with medical necessity guidelines?
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Gastroesophageal reflux disease
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Acute viral pharyngitis
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Chronic tonsillitis
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Streptococcal pharyngitis
Answer Description
The diagnostic code for acute viral pharyngitis should be linked to the throat culture procedure because it represents the diagnosis established after evaluating the patient and the test performed. Linking the procedure to the final diagnosis supports the clinical reason for conducting the test and demonstrates medical necessity since the procedure was used to differentiate between a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics and a viral infection which does not. Linking a throat culture to a diagnosis code for conditions unrelated to the throat, such as gastroesophageal reflux disease or chronic tonsillitis, would be incorrect, as these conditions would not justify the need for a throat culture based on medical necessity guidelines.
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What are diagnostic codes and why are they used?
What does medical necessity mean?
What is the difference between acute viral pharyngitis and streptococcal pharyngitis?
A patient who sustained an injury while on the job reports to the medical office for a follow-up visit. To process this patient's medical service claim correctly, which type of insurance should the medical assistant verify for coverage of the visit?
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Private health insurance
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Workers’ compensation insurance
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Commercial insurance plan
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Medicare
Answer Description
The correct answer is workers' compensation insurance because it specifically covers treatment for injuries and illnesses that occur as a result of employment or workplace activities. Commercial plans typically cover general health services not related to work injuries. Medicare and Medicaid are government programs for specific populations and not related to workplace injuries. Private insurance may provide coverage for personal medical care but does not typically handle work-related injuries, which is the domain of workers' compensation.
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What exactly is workers' compensation insurance?
What types of claims are typically covered by workers' compensation?
How does workers' compensation differ from other types of health insurance?
Which method is most effective in reducing the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted infections while discussing preventive measures with a patient?
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Suggest relying on natural immunity as the primary preventive measure against STIs.
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Encourage the use of barrier methods during each sexual encounter.
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Identify strategies to boost overall immune system health as the main counseling topic.
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Promote abstinence as the only necessary discussion point for STI prevention.
Answer Description
Using barrier methods, such as condoms, is recognized as the most effective way to reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections during sexual activity. While abstinence completely eliminates the risk of STIs, it may not be a practical or acceptable option for all patients, and discussing it may not align with the preventive measures that are part of patient education. Immunizations and antiviral medications are important in the context of specific infections but do not provide broad prevention against all STIs like barrier methods do.
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What are barrier methods and how do they work?
Why is relying on natural immunity not an effective preventive measure for STIs?
Why is abstinence considered an effective STI prevention method, yet not practical for all patients?
Patient portals are designed to grant patients access to select portions of their electronic health records, including scheduling appointments, viewing laboratory results, and messaging healthcare providers.
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The statement is false
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The statement is true
Answer Description
Patient portals play a key role in modern healthcare by empowering patients with direct access to certain aspects of their health information and communication with their care providers. They enhance patient engagement, improve satisfaction, and can lead to better health outcomes by facilitating easier access to medical information and services.
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What features are commonly available on patient portals?
How do patient portals improve patient engagement?
What measures are taken to ensure patient privacy on portals?
The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes is solely determined by the total number of red blood cells in the blood sample.
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False
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True
Answer Description
The correct answer is false. While the total number of red blood cells can have an impact on the sedimentation rate, ESR is primarily influenced by the composition of plasma proteins, particularly fibrinogen. The presence of inflammation leads to an increase in fibrinogen, which causes red blood cells to form stacks, known as rouleaux, that settle more quickly in the test tube. Other factors, such as the size, shape, and density of the red blood cells, as well as the viscosity of the plasma, can also affect ESR results. Consequently, ESR is not solely determined by the red blood cell count.
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What is the sedimentation rate of erythrocytes (ESR)?
What role do plasma proteins, particularly fibrinogen, play in ESR?
How do factors like the size, shape, and density of red blood cells impact ESR?
A 45-year-old patient arrives for a routine check-up and reports no previous issues with vision. While updating the patient's medical records, you notice it has been three years since their last recorded visual acuity test. The clinic's standard procedure employs a Snellen chart for vision screenings. How should you proceed to assess the patient's distance vision according to best practices?
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Position the patient 20 feet from the Snellen chart and ask them to cover one eye at a time to read the smallest line of letters they can see clearly.
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Ask the patient to remain seated at the desk and bring the Snellen chart within 5 feet for convenience as the patient previously reported no vision issues.
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Using a pocket vision card, have the patient hold the card at arm's length and read the smallest line of print available.
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Place the patient 10 feet from the Snellen chart and instruct them to read the chart with both eyes open simultaneously.
Answer Description
The correct procedure involves placing the patient at a distance of 20 feet from the Snellen chart, as this is the standard testing distance for assessing visual acuity. Placing the patient at a different distance, using an inappropriate chart, or neglecting to record both eyes would offer inaccurate results and deviates from standard testing protocols.
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Why is the Snellen chart used for vision testing?
What does the term 'visual acuity' mean?
Why is it important to test each eye separately?
What is the primary function of a modifier in procedural coding?
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To provide additional details about the service performed
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To identify the diagnosis for the procedure
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To alter the definition of the code
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To indicate the patient's insurance details
Answer Description
Modifiers in procedural coding provide additional information about a procedure or service without changing the definition of the code. They help to describe circumstances that alter or define the service performed, ensuring accurate billing and documentation.
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What are some examples of procedural coding modifiers?
How do modifiers affect billing and reimbursement?
Are there guidelines for when to use modifiers?
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