AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.

Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
A medical assistant must perform a capillary blood collection on a 6-month-old infant. Considering both safety and effectiveness, which of the following indicates the most appropriate site for puncture?
The most medial aspect of the heel below the arch of the foot
The lateral plantar surface of the heel, slightly posterior from the arch of the foot
The lateral aspect of the great toe
The posterior curvature of the heel
Answer Description
The lateral plantar surface of the heel is the ideal site for a capillary blood collection in infants to avoid bone injury and ensure adequate blood flow. The lateral aspect is preferred over the medial to prevent possible damage to the bone due to thinner tissue coverage. The great toe is not a commonly used site for a puncture due to its small size and difficulty in obtaining a reliable sample. The posterior curvature of the heel poses a higher risk of penetrating the calcaneus (heel bone) and is therefore not recommended.
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Why is the lateral plantar surface of the heel preferred for infant capillary blood collection?
What are the risks of using the posterior curvature of the heel for a blood collection in infants?
Why isn’t the great toe commonly used for infant capillary blood collection?
During a well-child visit, a mother expresses concern that her 9-month-old infant has not begun babbling yet. Based on your knowledge of developmental milestones, how would you best address her concern?
Inform the mother that babbling is typically expected by the first birthday, and there is likely no need for concern until this milestone deadline has passed.
Advise the mother that it is perfectly normal for a 9-month-old infant not to babble, as some children skip this stage completely while having an otherwise healthy development.
Recommend immediate audiological testing to rule out hearing loss, as not babbling at 9 months is always indicative of a hearing disability.
Reassure the mother that children develop at their own pace, but recommend monitoring the infant's communication development and considering further assessment if no progress is made in the coming months.
Answer Description
Babbling is a developmental milestone usually achieved by the age of 6 to 9 months. It represents a stage where infants experiment with making sounds, which is an important precursor to speech development. If an infant has not started babbling by the age of 9 months, further evaluation may be warranted to rule out any underlying developmental issues. While some variation in achieving milestones can be normal, a lack of babbling could be a sign of a communication disorder or hearing impairment, and professionals should monitor and possibly assess further depending on other developmental observations.
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Why is babbling considered an important developmental milestone?
What are some signs that further evaluation for developmental delays is necessary?
What role does hearing ability play in speech development?
A medical assistant is explaining a new medication regimen to an 82-year-old patient who appears confused by the information. Which action would best help the assistant improve the patient's understanding during the visit?
Speak more loudly and repeat the same medical terminology until the patient indicates agreement.
Use plain language supported by pictures or printed diagrams that illustrate the key points.
Provide written instructions in technical language and small font so the patient can review them later.
Suggest that the patient bring a relative to the next appointment so the information can be explained to them instead.
Answer Description
Older adults often have slower information-processing speed and may have sensory or cognitive changes. Using plain, non-technical language together with charts, pictures, or large-print handouts breaks complex instructions into concrete, memorable elements and has been shown to improve comprehension and adherence. Simply speaking louder, rushing, or delegating the explanation to someone else does not address the patient's immediate need to understand the material.
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Why is plain language important when explaining instructions to older adults?
What types of visual aids work best in explaining medical instructions?
How can medical assistants check if an elderly patient has understood the instructions?
During your routine quality control checks in a clinic laboratory, you notice that the control value for a glucose test is repeatedly falling outside the acceptable range. According to CLIA regulations and good practice, what is the most appropriate next step to take?
Continue to test patient specimens and mark the control values as exceptions in the records.
Troubleshoot the test system to identify and correct the problem, run new controls, and document all actions taken.
Adjust the acceptable range parameters for the glucose test to include the outlier control values.
Run additional controls to see if the results fall within the acceptable range before taking any further action.
Answer Description
When control values for a laboratory test fall outside the acceptable range, it suggests a potential issue with the test system, which must be addressed before patient specimens can be reliably tested. Validating the accuracy and reliability of the test through troubleshooting, correcting any problems, and documenting the actions taken are key steps to maintaining compliance with CLIA regulations and ensuring the confidence in patient test results. Running additional controls would be appropriate after addressing the potential issue and would not be the immediate next step. Continuing to test patient specimens without addressing the outlier control value risks reporting inaccurate results, and changing the acceptable range parameters would not resolve the underlying problem.
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What does CLIA stand for and why is it important in laboratory testing?
What are control values in laboratory testing, and why are they significant?
What steps are involved in troubleshooting a test system in the lab?
A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's encounter form before processing it and notices a charge for a service that was not actually performed. What is the MOST appropriate initial action for the assistant to take to prevent a fraudulent claim from being submitted?
Ask a fellow medical assistant what they think should be done about the error.
Submit the claim and wait to see if the insurance payer flags the unperformed service.
Alter the patient's progress note to include documentation that supports the service charge.
Bring the discrepancy to the attention of the provider or the office manager for correction.
Answer Description
The correct action is to bring the error to the attention of the person responsible for the entry, such as the provider or the billing manager, so it can be corrected before a claim is created. Submitting a claim for a service not rendered is illegal and constitutes fraud. Altering the medical record to justify an incorrect charge is also fraudulent. Simply submitting the incorrect claim or asking a coworker for an opinion instead of reporting the error to a supervisor are both incorrect and unethical actions.
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Why is it considered fraud to submit a claim with services that weren't performed?
What is an encounter form, and why is its accuracy important?
What steps should a medical office assistant follow if they notice a billing discrepancy?
Which type of carbohydrate is primarily responsible for quickly increasing blood glucose levels after ingestion?
Complex carbohydrates
Glycogen
Simple carbohydrates
Dietary fiber
Answer Description
Simple carbohydrates, also known as simple sugars, are quickly digested and absorbed into the bloodstream, leading to a rapid increase in blood glucose levels. Complex carbohydrates, which consist of long chains of sugar molecules, generally take longer to digest and thus raise blood glucose levels more slowly. Fiber, a type of complex carbohydrate, is mostly indigestible and does not directly raise blood sugar levels. Glycogen is a stored form of glucose mainly found in the liver and muscles and is not a dietary carbohydrate.
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What are examples of simple carbohydrates?
How do simple carbohydrates affect blood sugar compared to complex carbohydrates?
Why doesn't dietary fiber raise blood glucose levels?
A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's complete blood count (CBC) results. Which of the following platelet counts falls within the normal range for an adult?
600,000/mcL
500,000/mcL
100,000/mcL
250,000/mcL
Answer Description
The correct answer is 250,000/mcL. A normal platelet count in an adult typically ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter (mcL) of blood. A count of 100,000/mcL is considered low (thrombocytopenia), and a count of 500,000/mcL is considered high (thrombocytosis). Platelets are essential for blood clotting.
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What is the function of platelets in the body?
What happens if the platelet count is too low or too high?
How is a Complete Blood Count (CBC) test used in medical diagnostics?
A patient presents with a red, swollen eye and is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic eye drop to be instilled in the affected eye. As a medical assistant, you are instructed to administer the first dose and educate the patient on proper instillation technique. What steps will you include in your demonstration to ensure proper administration of the eye drops?
Have the patient lie down, ask them to close their eyes tightly, and then place the drop on the inner canthus so it will seep into the eye upon opening, ensuring minimal discomfort.
Instruct the patient to look directly at the dropper and instill the drop directly onto the cornea for immediate absorption.
Apply pressure to the upper eyelid and quickly insert multiple drops to ensure an adequate dose is received in case the patient blinks.
Wash hands before the procedure, avoid touching the dropper tip to any surface, tilt the patient's head back, pull down the lower eyelid to form a pocket, instill the drop into the pocket without touching the eye, and then press gently on the nasolacrimal duct for a minute to prevent systemic absorption.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains the correct sequence and precautions for instilling eye drops, which includes hand hygiene, avoiding touching the dropper to the eye or other surfaces to prevent contamination, tilting the head back, pulling down the lower lid to create a pouch, and applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct after administration to minimize systemic absorption. The incorrect answers include misconceptions or errors in the instillation technique which could lead to contamination, ineffective treatment, or increased risk of side effects.
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Why is it important to avoid touching the eye dropper tip to any surface during administration?
What is the purpose of applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct after administering eye drops?
What are some key tips to ensure patients properly administer eye drops at home?
During a routine physical, the provider plans to inspect, auscultate, palpate, and percuss the patient's abdomen. Which body position should the medical assistant place the patient in to facilitate a thorough abdominal examination and ensure the abdominal muscles are relaxed?
Prone
Supine
Lithotomy
Dorsal recumbent
Answer Description
The supine position-lying flat on the back with legs extended and arms at the sides-gives the examiner unrestricted access to all four abdominal quadrants for inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This flat posture also relaxes the abdominal musculature, making deep palpation easier. In the dorsal recumbent position the knees are flexed; while this can help relax muscles, it slightly limits exposure compared with a fully supine posture. Prone positions the patient on the abdomen, preventing abdominal assessment, and lithotomy is primarily for pelvic or gynecologic procedures, not general abdominal exams.
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Why is the supine position preferred for an abdominal examination?
What techniques are used during an abdominal examination?
How does the dorsal recumbent position differ from the supine position in an examination?
As a medical assistant in a family practice clinic, you encounter a patient who has been diagnosed with an intellectual disability. The patient has difficulty understanding complex medical terminology and becomes visibly frustrated during the explanation of their care plan. Which approach is most appropriate to ensure effective communication and understanding of the treatment details?
Explain all the potential complications and side effects in detail to ensure the patient is fully informed, regardless of their ability to comprehend.
Utilize simple language with short sentences and visual aids to convey the treatment plan, checking for understanding periodically.
Provide all the information about the treatment plan at once to minimize the time spent on the explanation.
Continue to explain the care plan using medical terminology, expecting the patient to ask for clarification if they do not understand.
Answer Description
Using simple language and visual aids are effective strategies when communicating with patients who have intellectual disabilities. This approach helps ensure they understand their care plan by presenting information in a clear and accessible manner. Providing too much information at once can be overwhelming, and expecting the patient to ask for clarification may not be realistic given the potential communication challenges they face.
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Why are visual aids effective for patients with intellectual disabilities?
What are some examples of simple language in a medical setting?
How can medical assistants check for understanding during patient interactions?
During a minor surgical procedure, the provider has just completed the incision and requests a retractor. Prior to handing the provider the instrument, which of the following is the most critical action the medical assistant should perform?
Check that the instrument's packaging has a color change indicating it has been appropriately sterilized.
Confirm that the retractor is the correct size requested by the provider.
Ensure the instrument is handed to the provider with the tip pointed downwards.
Wipe the instrument with an antiseptic solution to ensure it is clean.
Answer Description
Ensuring proper sterilization of surgical instruments is crucial in preventing postoperative infections and maintaining a sterile field. Therefore, the medical assistant must verify that the instrument is indeed sterile before passing it to the provider. This is routinely confirmed by checking that the sterile indicator on the packaging has changed color, indicating that the instrument has been properly sterilized. Other options, although they may be important parts of surgical assisting, are not directly related to the critical step of confirming instrument sterility before the instrument is handed to the provider.
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Why does the sterile indicator change color during sterilization?
What happens if a non-sterile instrument is used during a surgical procedure?
What are the common methods of sterilization for surgical instruments?
During an annual well-patient visit, the medical assistant counts the radial pulse of a 35-year-old patient who is seated and relaxed for one full minute. Which pulse rate range would be considered normal for a healthy adult at rest?
101-120 beats per minute
30-45 beats per minute
60-100 beats per minute
40-60 beats per minute
Answer Description
A normal resting heart rate for adults is commonly defined as 60-100 beats per minute according to the American Heart Association and other clinical references. Values below this range represent bradycardia unless the individual is a well-conditioned athlete or taking rate-slowing medications; values above it represent tachycardia and may occur with fever, anxiety, or many pathological conditions. Therefore, the 60-100 bpm range is the only option that represents the accepted normal resting heart rate for the average healthy adult, whereas the other ranges are generally considered outside the normal limits.
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Why do well-trained athletes typically have lower resting heart rates?
How do fever or illness affect resting heart rate?
What happens if a resting heart rate is consistently above 100 beats per minute?
A 58-year-old female patient with a history of chronic constipation is advised to increase her dietary fiber intake. As part of her nutrition counseling, you provide examples of foods she should consider incorporating into her diet. Which of the following would you recommend as a good source of dietary fiber?
1 cup of raspberries
1/2 cup of steamed broccoli
1 medium-sized orange
8 ounces of roast chicken breast
Answer Description
Raspberries are an excellent source of dietary fiber, with one cup providing approximately 8 grams of fiber. This makes them a suitable recommendation for the patient looking to increase their fiber intake to aid in the management of chronic constipation. The other options listed either contain significantly less fiber or none at all, making them less effective in this context. Oranges provide fiber but less than raspberries, steamed broccoli has fiber but it's also less than raspberries, and roast chicken breast contains no dietary fiber.
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Why is dietary fiber important for managing chronic constipation?
How does the fiber content of raspberries compare to other fruits?
What are other high-fiber foods to recommend apart from raspberries?
During a busy afternoon at the clinic, a medical assistant notices a patient who appears upset after a longer than expected wait time to see their provider. The medical assistant acknowledges the inconvenience and would like to perform service recovery. What is the most appropriate initial action to take?
The medical assistant should provide an empathetic response, acknowledging the patient's inconvenience and expressing understanding of the situation.
The medical assistant should explain the clinic's busy schedule and staffing issues as reasons for the delay.
The medical assistant should immediately offer a superficial apology without further discussion of the situation.
The medical assistant should avoid addressing the patient's distress and wait for them to bring up any complaints directly.
Answer Description
Acknowledging the patient's feelings and providing an empathetic response helps establish connection and trust, which are essential first steps in service recovery. This approach demonstrates that the clinic respects the patient's time and concerns, and is committed to addressing the issue. Offering a superficial apology without acknowledging the specific inconvenience, providing excuses for the clinic, or ignoring the patient's distress do not facilitate constructive service recovery and can further decrease patient satisfaction.
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Why is empathy important in service recovery?
What are some examples of empathetic responses a medical assistant can use in this situation?
How can service recovery improve patient satisfaction?
A front desk associate at a family practice is scheduling an appointment for a patient who has never been seen by the practice's healthcare providers before. What is the most important information the associate should collect from the patient?
The availability of the patient for future appointments
The patient's full name, address, phone number, and date of birth
The patient's preference for the healthcare provider
The patient's history of chronic conditions or allergies
Answer Description
When scheduling an appointment for a new patient, it is essential to obtain patient demographics which include the patient's full name, address, date of birth, and contact information. This allows the practice to effectively communicate with the patient and create a new patient record which is essential for subsequent visits and medical billing. Incorrect answers might seem related to initial appointment setting, but they are not as critical as the demographic information that forms the foundation of the patient's record.
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Why is collecting demographic information the most important step when scheduling a new patient?
What role does the patient’s demographic information play in medical billing?
Why is it less critical to ask about medical history when scheduling a new patient’s first appointment?
A medical assistant is reviewing diabetic teaching materials. Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary function of insulin in the body?
It aids in the digestion of fats in the small intestine.
It lowers blood glucose levels by helping cells absorb glucose.
It increases the reabsorption of water by the kidneys.
It stimulates the liver to release stored glucose.
Answer Description
Insulin, a hormone produced by the pancreas, plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar. Its primary function is to lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the transport of glucose from the bloodstream into the body's cells, where it is used for energy. The hormone that increases blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose is glucagon.
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What is the role of glucagon in blood sugar regulation?
How do cells absorb glucose from the bloodstream?
What happens when there is a lack of insulin in the body?
Which type of retinal photoreceptor cell is primarily responsible for color vision and functions optimally under bright-light (photopic) conditions?
Bipolar cells
Cones
Ganglion cells
Rods
Answer Description
Cones contain three different photopigments (S, M, and L) that respond to short, medium, and long wavelengths of light, respectively. These cells are most active in well-lit environments, allowing the brain to compare their outputs and generate the perception of color. Rods are much more light-sensitive but saturate in daylight and provide only black-and-white vision. Bipolar and ganglion cells transmit, but do not initiate, visual signals. Therefore, cones are the photoreceptors that enable color perception under bright-light conditions.
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Why are cones able to detect color while rods cannot?
What happens to rods and cones in low-light conditions?
How do bipolar and ganglion cells contribute to vision if they don’t initiate signals?
During the patient interview, which term best classifies the question, "Have you been experiencing any dizziness or headaches?"
Probing question
Leading question
Closed/direct question
Open-ended question
Answer Description
"Have you been experiencing any dizziness or headaches?" seeks a specific, factual response that can be answered with a simple yes or no, so it is a closed (direct) question. Open-ended questions invite a narrative response (e.g., "Can you describe the headaches you have been having?"). Leading questions suggest a particular answer, and probing questions are follow-ups that explore a previous response in more depth.
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What is the difference between closed and open-ended questions during a patient interview?
Why should medical assistants avoid using leading questions when interviewing patients?
How can probing questions be effectively used during a patient interview?
A patient at a clinic requests the release of her records that include sensitive information about a past substance abuse treatment to another healthcare provider. What must be obtained to legally allow the transfer of these records?
A verbal agreement from the patient
The patient's request noted in their file
Implied consent based on the patient-provider relationship
Written authorization from the patient
Answer Description
For the release of records containing sensitive information such as substance abuse treatment, the clinic must obtain written authorization from the patient. This authorization is required to ensure that the patient has knowingly and voluntarily agreed for their confidential information to be shared, in accordance with federal privacy regulations. Verbal permission is not sufficient for this level of sensitive information, and a patient's request alone does not provide the necessary documentation. Additionally, an implied consent is not adequate for the release of PHI that includes sensitive treatment information.
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What is PHI, and why is it important?
What specific laws regulate the release of sensitive information like substance abuse treatment records?
What should a written authorization include for the release of sensitive records?
A patient has repeatedly failed to pay their outstanding balance for medical services rendered. Having followed the office's set protocols for attempting to collect the debt, you are preparing to send the account to a collections agency. Which of the following steps should be taken before submitting the account to the collections agency to ensure adherence to standard collection practices?
Send the patient a final notice informing them of the intent to forward their account to a collections agency.
Withhold the patient's medical records until they have cleared their outstanding balance.
Inform each member of the healthcare team dealing with the patient to encourage payment at their next appointment.
Contact the patient's family members to request they assume responsibility for the payment.
Answer Description
Before sending an account to a collections agency, it is essential to provide the patient with a final notice. This gives them one last opportunity to settle the debt and is considered a best practice for ethical debt collection. The final notice typically includes information regarding the outstanding balance, any previous attempts to collect the debt, and a time-limited offer to resolve the account before it is forwarded to collections. It is not standard practice to directly involve each member of the healthcare team in the collections process or to request family members to pay the debt on behalf of the patient. Additionally, withholding medical records until the debt is paid may breach patient rights under HIPAA, depending on state laws and specific circumstances.
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Why is sending a final notice important before forwarding an account to a collections agency?
What are the potential legal concerns with withholding medical records for unpaid patient balances?
What should be included in a final notice sent to a patient before sending their account to collections?
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