AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.

Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
During the admission process for elective surgery, a patient hands you a document that specifies their desire not to be placed on life support in the event of a catastrophic complication. This document is properly signed and witnessed. How should the medical team proceed regarding this document?
Advise the patient that medical decisions are ultimately up to the surgical team and disregard the document.
Confirm that the document is a DNR and inform the surgical team accordingly.
Record the patient's living will in their medical record and ensure the surgical team is aware of its existence.
File the document without notifying medical staff as it only applies to post-operative care.
Answer Description
The document provided by the patient is known as a living will. It is a legal document in which a person specifies what actions should be taken for their health if they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves because of illness or incapacity. In this scenario, the medical team should note the existence of the living will in the patient's medical record and ensure that the directives within the living will are accessible and respected in the event of a catastrophic complication during surgery. Other documents such as DNR or DNI orders may also govern what medical treatments a patient does or does not want to receive, but since the question explicitly refers to a document describing the patient's wishes regarding life support, a living will is most appropriate here.
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What is the difference between a living will and a DNR?
How do healthcare providers ensure that a living will is followed during surgery?
Can a living will be overridden, and by whom?
During a routine physical examination, a 45-year-old patient complains of tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following palpation techniques should be used to further evaluate the possibility of appendicitis?
Perform serial palpation at 5-minute intervals to identify changes in the level of tenderness over time.
Begin gentle, graded palpation in the area adjacent to the tender region, progressing carefully towards the point of maximum tenderness.
Immediately use rebound tenderness technique over the painful region to confirm the presence of appendicitis.
Apply deep pressure palpation directly over the site of pain to accurately assess the underlying structures.
Answer Description
Gentle, graded palpation is necessary to assess areas of tenderness and possible inflammation without causing excessive discomfort or further injury to the patient. Starting palpation away from the painful area helps to relax the patient and makes it easier to identify the exact point of maximal tenderness. Deep palpation or vigorous palpation of the tender area could exacerbate the pain and may potentially cause harm, especially if the appendix is inflamed and at risk of rupture. Therefore, employing a gentle, graded approach is most appropriate. Serial palpation at intervals is not a technique for exploring acute tenderness as it refers to repeated examinations over time, not assessing tenderness progressively. Moreover, using rebound tenderness as a part of palpation technique is helpful but is not the initial palpation technique used for assessment; it is rather a sign elicited after careful palpation.
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Why is gentle, graded palpation preferred for suspected appendicitis?
What is rebound tenderness, and how is it used in assessing appendicitis?
What are the risks of using deep pressure over the painful site in appendicitis assessment?
During the inspection phase of a physical examination, you note that a patient's skin appears yellowish in color. What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?
Offer the patient a glass of water, as this might be due to dehydration.
Reassure the patient that it is a common finding and proceed with the examination.
Continue with the physical examination without noting the finding in the patient's record.
Report the observation promptly to the healthcare provider for further assessment.
Answer Description
Jaundice, or yellowing of the skin, often indicates a liver problem or bile duct obstruction and requires further clinical assessment. It is important for a medical assistant to recognize this sign and report it immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation. It would not be appropriate to proceed with patient reassurance without provider assessment, offer the patient water, or ignore the finding as these actions do not address the potential underlying health concern.
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What is jaundice and what causes it?
Why is it critical to report jaundice to a healthcare provider immediately?
What are liver function tests, and how do they help diagnose jaundice?
During an office visit, a patient avoids eye contact, has arms crossed, and repeatedly taps their foot. As a medical assistant, what is the most appropriate interpretation of these non-verbal cues?
The patient is likely experiencing anxiety or discomfort and may require reassurance.
The patient is expressing enthusiasm and eagerness to engage in conversation.
The patient is exhibiting signs of being in a relaxed and content state of mind.
The patient is showing signs of aggression and could become confrontational.
Answer Description
Avoidance of eye contact, crossed arms, and foot tapping can indicate that a patient is experiencing anxiety, discomfort, or impatience. It is important for the medical assistant to recognize these signs and react appropriately, which could involve offering reassurance, asking if the patient has concerns they wish to discuss, or ensuring they are comfortable. Interpreting such non-verbal cues accurately is essential in providing empathetic patient care.
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Why is recognizing non-verbal cues important in patient care?
What are some other examples of non-verbal cues in patients?
How should a medical assistant respond to a patient showing these non-verbal signs?
In a follow-up appointment for a patient who has recovered from Guillain-Barré syndrome, which primarily affects peripheral nerve function, the medical assistant is asked to describe how this condition could have impacted the patient's activities. Which explanation by the medical assistant aligns correctly with the nervous system's role?
The condition would primarily affect the central nervous system, impacting the patient's cognitive abilities rather than peripheral sensory or motor functions.
The syndrome would compromise voluntary muscle control, including walking and hand movements, by impacting the somatic nervous system, which is part of the peripheral nervous system.
Guillain-Barré syndrome would selectively impair the sensory functions due to its effect on the sensory neurons, with no impact on motor control.
The syndrome would disrupt the autonomic nervous system functions, leading to alterations in heart rate and blood pressure without affecting voluntary muscle control.
Answer Description
Guillain-Barré syndrome affects the peripheral nervous system, which is involved in transmitting signals between the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and the rest of the body. This condition can lead to muscle weakness and paralysis as it disrupts the relay of commands from the central nervous system to the muscles. The somatic nervous system, a subset of the peripheral nervous system, controls voluntary muscle movements, and so it would be most directly affected by Guillain-Barré syndrome. While the autonomic nervous system also pertains to the peripheral nervous system, it mainly regulates involuntary functions such as heart rate and digestion, which are not typically the primary functions affected by Guillain-Barré syndrome. Recognizing Guillain-Barré syndrome involves the interconnectedness of both the peripheral and central nervous systems, but the role of the autonomic nervous system in this condition is less direct compared to the somatic nervous system.
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What is the somatic nervous system and how does it relate to Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Why does Guillain-Barré syndrome primarily impact voluntary muscle control rather than cognitive functions?
What is the difference between the autonomic and somatic nervous systems, and why is the autonomic system less involved in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Why is potassium hydroxide (KOH) routinely added when preparing a wet mount of skin, hair, or nail scrapings for microscopic examination?
To stain Gram-negative bacilli blue-violet for easier identification.
To dissolve lipid-rich cell walls to reveal acid-fast bacilli.
To clear keratinized tissue so that fungal hyphae and yeast cells are more visible.
To precipitate viral inclusion bodies so they appear refractile.
Answer Description
KOH is a strong alkali that digests and clears keratin and other cellular debris in the specimen. This clearing effect leaves fungal elements-such as hyphae and yeast cells-intact and easier to see under the microscope, allowing rapid presumptive diagnosis of mycotic infections. The other options describe purposes served by different staining or preparation techniques and are not achieved with a KOH wet mount.
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What is keratinized tissue?
How does KOH clear keratinized tissue?
What are fungal hyphae and yeast cells?
Approximately how long do normal human red blood cells survive in the peripheral bloodstream before they are removed (primarily by the spleen) for recycling?
About 365 days
About 120 days
About 20 days
About 60 days
Answer Description
Mature erythrocytes lack nuclei and most organelles, so they cannot repair cellular damage. As they age, membrane flexibility and enzyme activity decline, and surface changes trigger splenic macrophages to phagocytose them. This senescence process occurs after about 120 days in circulation, making that the best estimate of the normal red-cell lifespan. Significantly shorter values (e.g., 20 or 60 days) would lead to chronic anemia, while much longer values (e.g., a full year) are incompatible with known erythrocyte turnover rates.
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Why do red blood cells have a lifespan of about 120 days?
What role does the spleen play in removing red blood cells?
What would happen if red blood cells had a shorter or longer lifespan than 120 days?
A physician prescribes 250 mg of a medication and the label on the medication states '500 mg per tablet'. How many tablets should you administer to the patient?
1.5 tablets
0.5 tablet
1 tablet
2 tablets
Answer Description
To find out the number of tablets, divide the prescribed dosage by the dosage amount per tablet. In this case, 250 mg (prescribed dosage) divided by 500 mg per tablet equals 0.5, which means half a tablet should be administered. It is important to note that medication should never be administered without confirmation of the dosage and appropriate physician approval, especially when it involves altering the physical form of the tablet, such as cutting it in half.
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How do you calculate the number of tablets for a prescribed dose?
What precautions should be taken when splitting a tablet?
What if the prescribed dosage is not easily divisible by the tablet strength?
A new patient presents to the clinic for their first appointment and provides a driver's license at check-in. The medical assistant notes the patient's full name and address from the ID. Which of the following pieces of information is most critical for the medical assistant to verbally confirm with the patient to ensure proper identification?
The patient's preferred pharmacy
The patient's date of birth
The street name of the patient's address
The patient's primary care physician
Answer Description
To ensure patient safety and accurate medical records, it is standard practice to use at least two patient identifiers. The most common and critical identifiers are the patient's full name and date of birth. Even when a patient provides a photo ID, it is essential to verbally confirm their date of birth to prevent misidentification, which could lead to serious medical errors, billing issues, and privacy breaches. While the address is a demographic data point, it is not considered a primary unique identifier for clinical purposes.
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Why is the date of birth a critical identifier for patients?
What are some examples of two patient identifiers?
Why is the address not considered a primary identifier for clinical purposes?
Which resource should a medical assistant refer to when determining the recommended immunization schedule for both children and adults?
American Medical Association (AMA)
American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Answer Description
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for setting the standard for vaccination schedules in the United States, which includes recommendations for both pediatric and adult immunizations. Medical assistants and healthcare providers reference the CDC guidelines to determine the appropriate timings and intervals for administering vaccines.
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What is the role of the CDC in immunization schedules?
What does the ACIP do in the context of immunization schedules?
Why are immunization schedules important for public health?
An outpatient clinic schedules a 54-year-old woman for an abdominal (upper-abdomen) ultrasound to evaluate intermittent right-upper-quadrant pain. Before she leaves the office, which preparation instruction should the medical assistant give to promote optimal visualization of the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas during this examination?
Eat a light low-fat meal 30 minutes before the appointment to reduce gallbladder contraction.
Have nothing to eat or drink except small sips of water for at least eight hours before the scan.
Undergo a quick 12-lead electrocardiogram to screen for silent arrhythmias before imaging.
Drink 32 ounces of water one hour beforehand and do not void until after the scan.
Answer Description
The patient should fast-avoiding all food and most liquids except small sips of water-for at least eight hours before an abdominal ultrasound. Fasting limits stomach contents and intestinal gas, keeping the gallbladder distended and allowing clear views of upper-abdominal organs. A full bladder is required only for pelvic or renal ultrasounds, and an ECG or eating shortly before scanning does not improve image quality.
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Why is a full bladder important for an abdominal ultrasound?
Why should patients typically fast before an abdominal ultrasound?
Why isn’t an EKG part of the standard preparation for an abdominal ultrasound?
When a physician decides to terminate an established physician-patient relationship in a non-emergent situation, which of the following actions is REQUIRED in order to avoid a charge of patient abandonment?
Stop all treatment and medication refills immediately on the date the decision to terminate is made.
Refuse to transfer the patient's medical records until all outstanding balances are paid in full.
Send the patient a formal written notice, documented in the chart, that specifies a future date when care will end and allows reasonable time to find another provider.
Unilaterally assign the patient to another physician without consulting the patient.
Answer Description
To prevent patient abandonment, the physician must give the patient formal written notice-usually by certified mail or another traceable method-stating the termination date and providing sufficient time (commonly 30 days or more, depending on the patient's condition and local regulations) for the patient to secure another provider. The physician should also offer to transfer records upon request. Simply refusing to release records, stopping care immediately, or assigning the patient to another physician without consent fails to meet legal and ethical duties and can expose the provider to liability.
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What is patient abandonment?
Why is certified mail commonly used for notifying patients about termination?
How much time should a physician give a patient to find a new provider?
Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing ear irrigation in a clinical setting?
To prevent ear infections by administering medication.
To test the patient's hearing ability.
To reduce inflammation in the external auditory meatus.
To remove impacted cerumen or foreign bodies from the ear canal.
Answer Description
Ear irrigation is commonly performed to remove impacted cerumen (earwax) or foreign bodies from the ear canal. It helps in maintaining ear hygiene and can relieve patients of symptoms such as hearing loss, ear discomfort, or dizziness that may be associated with ear blockages. While it may indirectly reduce the risk of infection by maintaining a clean ear canal, preventing infections is not the primary reason for its performance. Additionally, it does not serve to test hearing ability or reduce inflammation, which are addressed by different clinical interventions; in fact, active inflammation is a contraindication for irrigation.
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What is cerumen, and why does it become impacted?
What are the contraindications for ear irrigation?
How is ear irrigation performed safely?
When a medical assistant needs to verify that an upcoming procedure will be covered by a patient's health-insurance plan, what should be the first step in the eligibility-verification process?
Ask the patient to explain the details of their coverage.
Request and copy the patient's current insurance identification card.
Discuss the plan's copayments, deductibles, and co-insurance amounts.
Contact the insurance company to confirm policy status and benefits.
Answer Description
Eligibility verification begins with gathering accurate information from the patient. The medical assistant should request the patient's current insurance identification card and copy or scan both sides. The policy number, group number, effective dates, and payer contact information found on the card are required before any later steps-such as contacting the insurer, confirming benefits with the patient, or explaining cost-sharing amounts-can be completed confidently.
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Why is copying the patient's insurance ID card important?
What information is typically found on an insurance ID card?
What happens if eligibility verification is skipped or done incorrectly?
During a routine visit, a patient presents with a black eye and mentions getting hit by a stray ball during a community baseball game two days prior. The patient laughs it off but appears slightly uncomfortable discussing the incident. While accidental sports injuries are common, something about the patient’s demeanor raises your concern. What is the most prudent action for a medical assistant to take in this scenario?
Immediately report the injury to law enforcement on suspicion of domestic abuse without further verification.
Advise the patient on the improbability of their explanation and encourage them to admit to being a victim of violence.
Dismiss the patient’s explanation and insist on a full body examination for other signs of abuse, disregarding their comfort and consent.
Carefully document the patient's stated cause of injury and observe for any patterns or inconsistencies in future visits.
Answer Description
When an injury could reasonably be accidental, and the patient provides a plausible explanation, a medical assistant should document the patient’s explanation in detail. Although medical assistants should be vigilant for signs of abuse, reporting an injury caused by an accident at a sports event, especially with a plausible explanation provided, isn't typically mandated. However, careful documentation is essential to establish the patient's version of events should questions arise later, and should a pattern of injuries emerge over time, documentation would be critical for any subsequent reporting. Attempting to report without sufficient cause may lead to a breach of trust and confidentiality. It is also important to maintain a nonjudgmental and supportive demeanor, allowing the patient to feel safe in disclosing any future concerns.
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Why is careful documentation important in cases like this?
What signs might suggest a pattern of abuse that should be flagged?
How can a medical assistant remain nonjudgmental while addressing concerns about possible abuse?
A 65-year-old male with history of type II diabetes and hypertension is prescribed a new medication to help reduce his cardiovascular risk. The provider explains that the medication will lower his LDL cholesterol by inhibiting an enzyme responsible for its synthesis. Which medication aligns with the described mechanism of action and indication?
Atorvastatin
Glipizide
Losartan
Metformin
Answer Description
The described medication works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is crucial in the synthesis of cholesterol. This class of drugs, known as statins, is commonly prescribed to lower LDL cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk, particularly in patients with comorbidities such as diabetes and hypertension. Other options listed do not act primarily by inhibiting cholesterol synthesis and thus would not be the correct choice given the description.
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What is HMG-CoA reductase and why is it important in cholesterol synthesis?
Why do patients with type II diabetes and hypertension benefit from statins?
How do statins differ from medications like metformin, losartan, or glipizide in their mechanism of action?
A 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has been prescribed a new inhaler. The medical assistant needs to educate the patient on using the device. As part of the instruction, what should the medical assistant emphasize immediately after the patient takes a long, deep inhalation of the medication?
Exhale immediately to expel any residual medication from the airways and prevent potential side effects.
Continue to breathe in and out rapidly to facilitate deeper penetration of the medication into the lung tissue.
Hold the breath for approximately 10 seconds or as long as comfortably possible to allow for better absorption of the medication.
Take a few rapid, shallow breaths to ensure the medication is distributed evenly throughout the lungs.
Answer Description
After a patient takes a long, deep inhalation of the medication from an inhaler, it is crucial that they hold their breath for about 10 seconds or as long as comfortably possible. This hold allows the medication to settle in the lungs and enhances absorption. Releasing the breath too soon could reduce the treatment's efficacy. Shallow breaths are not advised because they may not carry the medication deep enough into the lungs where it is needed, and exhaling the medication immediately wastes the dose.
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Why is it important to hold your breath after using an inhaler?
How does chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) affect the lungs?
What is the correct technique for using an inhaler?
A medical assistant is preparing a tray for a minor office surgery by carefully opening sterile packages and arranging instruments on a sterile drape. The assistant knows to avoid touching the area with non-sterile items and to keep the field in view at all times. What is the primary purpose of these actions?
To protect the surgical instruments from being damaged during the procedure.
To ensure compliance with the provider's personal preferences for instrument layout.
To create a microorganism-free area to prevent patient infection.
To organize instruments by their order of use to improve the provider's efficiency.
Answer Description
The primary purpose of establishing and maintaining a sterile field is to create an area that is free of microorganisms to prevent them from entering the patient's body during an invasive procedure. This practice, known as surgical asepsis, is crucial for preventing surgical site infections. While efficiency is a benefit of an organized tray, the foundational reason for all sterile procedures is infection control.
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What items are typically included in a sterile field?
How is a sterile field maintained during a procedure?
What are the consequences of breaking sterility in surgery?
During a routine medical history assessment, a patient reports experiencing bloating and diarrhea after consuming dairy products. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to best support the patient's needs?
Suggest increasing the consumption of yogurt to improve the patient's digestion.
Advise the patient to drink full-fat milk instead of skim milk to reduce symptoms.
Encourage the patient to take over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications when symptoms occur.
Recommend that the patient avoid dairy products and consider lactose-free alternatives.
Answer Description
The medical assistant should recommend that the patient avoid dairy products, as the patient's symptoms suggest a possible lactose intolerance. Lactose intolerance is characterized by the inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in milk and dairy products, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms such as bloating, diarrhea, and gas. Recommending an avoidance of dairy products may prevent these symptoms. Lactose-free alternatives or lactase enzyme supplements may also be recommended, but the first step is to avoid the problematic foods. The other responses do not directly address the patient's reported symptoms or the possibility of lactose intolerance.
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What is lactose intolerance?
What are some common lactose-free alternatives?
How can lactase enzyme supplements help?
A 25-year-old woman has been instructed to provide a midstream clean catch urine sample for a urinalysis. When explaining the procedure, which of the following is the essential step the medical assistant should emphasize to ensure the sample is not contaminated?
Clean the sample container with soap and water before use
Hold the container at least six inches away from the body to avoid splashback
Urinate a small amount into the toilet before catching the midstream urine in the container
Fill the container to the top to ensure there is enough urine for testing
Answer Description
The correct answer is to begin urination into the toilet before catching the midstream urine in the container. This step ensures that the initial stream, which might contain contaminants from the external urethral orifice, is voided before the rest of the urine is collected midstream, which is typically less contaminated and more suitable for accurate urinalysis.
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Why is it important to collect midstream urine for a urinalysis?
What kind of contaminants can be found in the initial stream of urine?
How should a patient properly clean themselves before providing a midstream urine sample?
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