AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.

Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
A patient with a legally binding document that refuses any form of artificial airway support is in a state of declining respiratory function. Despite the administration of oxygen via a mask and maintaining the patient in an upright position, their oxygen saturation continues to drop, and the team is faced with a decision on further interventions. What is the most appropriate action for the healthcare team to take in alignment with the advance directives?
Seek an expedited ethical review to potentially override the documented instructions due to the urgent nature of the situation.
Temporarily provide artificial airway support while seeking consent from next of kin for further directives.
Respect the advance directives stipulating no artificial airway support and continue with palliative care measures.
Proceed with the establishment of an artificial airway, assuming the document does not apply in life-threatening scenarios.
Answer Description
The healthcare team must honor the patient's explicit instructions in the legally binding document, which prohibits any type of artificial airway support, including intubation. Despite the critical nature of the patient's condition, the team is legally and ethically bound to respect the advance directive. Alternative supportive measures that do not involve artificial airway support, such as administering medications to improve breathing or addressing underlying conditions, may be considered. However, if all options have been exhausted, the team should focus on providing palliative care to ensure the patient’s comfort.
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What is an advance directive?
What is palliative care?
Why can’t the healthcare team override an advance directive?
Which of the following situations requires specific written authorization from the patient before releasing their Protected Health Information (PHI)?
Releasing information for continuity of care between physicians
Releasing vaccination records to a school
Releasing patient's demographic information for public health purposes
Releasing HIV-related information to an insurance provider
Answer Description
Releasing information related to HIV or mental health requires specific written authorization due to the sensitive nature of this information. Regular medical information does not always require such specialized authorization. This ensures additional privacy and protection for patients concerning sensitive health conditions.
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Why does HIV-related information require specific written authorization?
What other types of health information might require specialized written authorization for release?
What is the difference between routine and sensitive health information under HIPAA?
A patient who speaks limited English has come in for a consultation and, based on the initial greeting, does not appear to fully understand the medical assistant's questions. What should the medical assistant do to facilitate effective communication?
Ask the patient's accompanying child to interpret the medical information and relay the patient's concerns.
Proceed with the consultation using simple English and hoping the patient understands enough to provide informed consent.
Arrange for a qualified interpreter to assist in communication.
Use hand gestures and visual aids exclusively to communicate with the patient.
Answer Description
The medical assistant should arrange for a qualified interpreter to ensure accurate and effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using family members, especially children, or friends may result in miscommunication, breaches of confidentiality, and is prohibited or strongly discouraged in healthcare settings. Relying on the limited English proficiency of the patient could lead to misunderstandings concerning health information and consent. It's important for healthcare providers to use qualified interpretation services to minimize errors, ensure informed consent, and maintain legal and ethical standards of care.
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Why is using a qualified interpreter important instead of relying on family members?
What risks are associated with using children as interpreters in healthcare settings?
What are some tools and strategies that can complement the use of an interpreter for effective communication?
A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's lab results. The A1C level provides a measurement of the patient's average blood glucose concentration over which of the following periods?
The previous 24 hours
The previous 2-3 months
The previous 7-10 days
The previous 2-3 weeks
Answer Description
The hemoglobin A1C test measures the percentage of glycated hemoglobin, which reflects the average blood glucose levels over the preceding 2 to 3 months. This is because glucose remains bound to hemoglobin for the lifespan of the red blood cell, which is approximately 120 days. Daily glucose monitoring, in contrast, shows blood sugar levels at a specific moment in time.
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Why does the A1C test measure blood glucose levels over 2-3 months?
How is the A1C test different from daily blood glucose testing?
What does a normal A1C level indicate, and when might it be elevated?
Mrs. Johnson, a 68-year-old patient, presents to the clinic for a routine annual physical exam. She has coverage under a Medicare Advantage Plan. As a medical assistant responsible for billing, what is important to ensure before submitting the claim for the visit?
Verify Mrs. Johnson's eligibility and coverage for the annual physical exam under her specific Medicare Advantage Plan for the service date.
Automatically submit the claim as all Medicare recipients are entitled to one routine annual physical exam per year without cost-sharing.
Assume that the Medicare Advantage Plan follows the same rules as traditional Medicare and requires no verification.
Bill the patient directly for the annual physical, as Medicare Advantage Plans do not cover preventive services.
Answer Description
Medicare Advantage Plans frequently require providers to follow specific guidelines when billing for services. Unlike traditional Medicare, where the annual wellness visit is covered once every 12 months without a copayment or deductible, Medicare Advantage Plans may have different stipulations. The provider must verify the patient's eligibility for the service date to avoid claim rejection. If a provider forgets to verify eligibility and the plan doesn't cover the service at that particular time, the claim could be rejected, leaving the patient or the clinic responsible for the payment.
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What are Medicare Advantage Plans?
Why is eligibility verification important for Medicare Advantage Plans?
How is an Annual Wellness Visit different under Medicare Advantage Plans versus Original Medicare?
A medical assistant is preparing to draw a blood sample for a coagulation test. Which of the following additive tubes should the medical assistant select for this procedure?
Gold top serum separator tube with clot activator and gel for serum separation
Green top tube containing sodium heparin
Red top tube with no additive
Light blue top tube containing sodium citrate
Answer Description
For coagulation tests, a light blue top tube containing sodium citrate is required. Sodium citrate acts as an anticoagulant by binding to calcium in the blood sample, which is necessary for the coagulation cascade. Using tubes with other additives for coagulation tests, such as a gel barrier or sodium heparin, could lead to inaccurate test results because they do not prevent clotting in the same way, might interfere with the act of coagulation being measured, or they are used for different types of tests (chemistry, ammonia levels).
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Why is sodium citrate used in the light blue top tube for coagulation tests?
What happens if a tube with the wrong additive is used for a coagulation test?
What other tests require the use of a light blue top tube?
Upon receiving a medication order for a patient who is already taking several other prescriptions, which action by the medical assistant best demonstrates application of the rights of medication administration before proceeding?
Confirm the medication with the patient by stating the name and asking for verbal acknowledgment.
Review the patient's medication profile for potential drug interactions prior to medication preparation.
Examine the patient's medical history to ensure the medication aligns with documented health issues.
Request the healthcare provider to restate the medication order to double-check for accuracy.
Answer Description
Reviewing the patient's complete medication profile (including over-the-counter drugs and supplements) allows the assistant to check for potential drug-drug or drug-disease interactions. This fulfills the right medication as well as the expanded right drug interactions/right assessment that complement the traditional five rights. Simply confirming the medication name with the patient, repeating the verbal order, or scanning the medical history does not systematically reveal interaction risks inherent in polypharmacy.
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What are the 'rights of medication administration'?
What is polypharmacy, and why is it important in medication review?
What tools can medical assistants use to check for drug interactions?
A 25-year-old woman has been instructed to provide a midstream clean catch urine sample for a urinalysis. When explaining the procedure, which of the following is the essential step the medical assistant should emphasize to ensure the sample is not contaminated?
Hold the container at least six inches away from the body to avoid splashback
Urinate a small amount into the toilet before catching the midstream urine in the container
Fill the container to the top to ensure there is enough urine for testing
Clean the sample container with soap and water before use
Answer Description
The correct answer is to begin urination into the toilet before catching the midstream urine in the container. This step ensures that the initial stream, which might contain contaminants from the external urethral orifice, is voided before the rest of the urine is collected midstream, which is typically less contaminated and more suitable for accurate urinalysis.
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Why is it important to collect midstream urine for a urinalysis?
What kind of contaminants can be found in the initial stream of urine?
How should a patient properly clean themselves before providing a midstream urine sample?
A patient presents with a red, swollen eye and is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic eye drop to be instilled in the affected eye. As a medical assistant, you are instructed to administer the first dose and educate the patient on proper instillation technique. What steps will you include in your demonstration to ensure proper administration of the eye drops?
Wash hands before the procedure, avoid touching the dropper tip to any surface, tilt the patient's head back, pull down the lower eyelid to form a pocket, instill the drop into the pocket without touching the eye, and then press gently on the nasolacrimal duct for a minute to prevent systemic absorption.
Have the patient lie down, ask them to close their eyes tightly, and then place the drop on the inner canthus so it will seep into the eye upon opening, ensuring minimal discomfort.
Instruct the patient to look directly at the dropper and instill the drop directly onto the cornea for immediate absorption.
Apply pressure to the upper eyelid and quickly insert multiple drops to ensure an adequate dose is received in case the patient blinks.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains the correct sequence and precautions for instilling eye drops, which includes hand hygiene, avoiding touching the dropper to the eye or other surfaces to prevent contamination, tilting the head back, pulling down the lower lid to create a pouch, and applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct after administration to minimize systemic absorption. The incorrect answers include misconceptions or errors in the instillation technique which could lead to contamination, ineffective treatment, or increased risk of side effects.
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Why is it important to avoid touching the eye dropper tip to any surface during administration?
What is the purpose of applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct after administering eye drops?
What are some key tips to ensure patients properly administer eye drops at home?
A patient presents for excision of a benign skin lesion on the back measuring 0.4 cm. The provider performed a simple closure during the procedure. Which modifier should be appended to the CPT code for the excision to accurately reflect the procedural details?
-59 (Distinct Procedural Service)
-51 (Multiple Procedures)
-22 (Increased Procedural Services)
No modifier needed for the simple closure
Answer Description
The correct modifier should be appended to indicate that no additional, unusual, or complex work was needed to close the wound after the lesion excision. In this scenario, since the closure is simple and included in the global definition of an excision procedure, no separate reimbursement or modifier would typically be applicable for the closure. Using the incorrect modifier could either overstate the complexity of the procedure, potentially leading to an overpayment, or understate it, which might result in lower reimbursement. Therefore, since the simple closure is part of the excision code, no modifier for the closure is needed.
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What is a CPT code and why is it important in medical billing?
What does a 'simple closure' mean in a procedure, and how is it different from other types of closures?
When should modifiers be used with CPT codes in medical billing?
In a medical setting, hemostats are commonly used to:
Measure distances or diameters
Cut tissues and sutures
Magnify small objects
Control bleeding by clamping vessels
Answer Description
Hemostats are surgical tools often employed to control bleeding by clamping blood vessels or tissue. They are not intended for measuring, which is the purpose of calipers, or magnifying, which is done using a magnifying glass. While they can have a scissor-like appearance, their primary function is not to cut but rather to clamp.
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How do hemostats work to control bleeding?
What are the main parts of a hemostat and their functions?
Are there different types of hemostats, and if so, what are they used for?
What is primarily included in a discharge summary to ensure continuity of care after a patient leaves the hospital?
A schedule of future appointments only, without any treatment or hospitalization information.
A list of medications the patient needs to take after discharge without additional information.
A detailed account of the patient's hospitalization, treatment, outcomes, and follow-up care instructions.
A copy of all the laboratory tests and imaging results obtained during the hospital stay, without interpretive summaries or follow-up plans.
Answer Description
A discharge summary includes a comprehensive overview of the patient's hospital stay, diagnoses, treatments administered, surgical procedures if performed, and specific recommendations for follow-up care. Such information is vital for subsequent healthcare providers to maintain continuity of care. Options discussing only medication lists or future appointment schedules are incorrect because they only cover part of the necessary information contained in a full discharge, which encompasses a broader range of details.
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Why is a discharge summary important for continuity of care?
What specific details are included in a discharge summary?
How does a discharge summary differ from a medication list or appointment schedule?
A 17-year-old patient who is an emancipated minor comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. Prior to receiving medical treatment, which of the following types of consent is most appropriate in this situation?
Consent from a parent or guardian
Written informed consent
Verbal consent without documentation
Implied consent in emergency situations
Answer Description
In the case of an emancipated minor, written informed consent is typically the most appropriate. Emancipation confers adult status on the minor in terms of medical decision-making capacity. Therefore, the same requirements for consent apply as would for any adult patient. Implied consent is not sufficient for a routine check-up as it usually covers emergency situations where consent cannot be promptly obtained. Verbal consent alone may not provide the necessary documentation needed for non-emergency medical treatments. Consent from a guardian is not required since the minor is emancipated and has the legal right to provide their own consent.
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What is an emancipated minor?
Why is written informed consent required in this case?
How does implied consent differ from written informed consent?
Which of the following best describes the level of microbial control achieved through proper disinfection?
Eliminates all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores
Removes visible soil and organic matter without necessarily killing microorganisms
Reduces the number of microorganisms to a safe level according to public health standards
Eliminates most pathogenic organisms, but might not kill all bacterial spores
Answer Description
Disinfection does not necessarily kill all microorganisms but is expected to kill most pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and fungi that might lead to infections. Sterilization, on the other hand, is a more stringent process aimed at destroying all forms of microbial life, including spores. Sanitization typically reduces the number of microorganisms to a safe level as judged by public health standards, but may not eliminate pathogens as effectively as disinfection. Cleaning removes visible dirt and organic matter, but does not necessarily eliminate microorganisms. Understanding these distinctions is critical in a healthcare environment to ensure appropriate infection control measures are taken.
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Why doesn't disinfection kill all bacterial spores?
What is the difference between disinfection and sterilization?
What are public health standards for sanitization?
When preparing a patient for a pelvic examination or a procedure involving the lower abdomen, which position is it most appropriate to place the patient in?
Prone position
Fowler's position
Sims' position
Lithotomy position
Answer Description
The correct answer is the Lithotomy position, as this position involves the patient lying on their back with their hips and knees flexed, thighs apart, and feet supported by stirrups. This position offers the healthcare provider optimal access to the pelvic organs, which is necessary for pelvic examinations, childbirth, and any procedures involving the lower abdomen. Other positions, like the Fowler's or Prone positions, do not provide the same level of access to the pelvic area.
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Why is the lithotomy position preferred for pelvic exams?
What are some common medical procedures that require the lithotomy position?
How does the lithotomy position differ from other medical positions like Sims' or Fowler's?
A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is attending a nutrition counseling session. Which type of nutrition advice concerning protein intake is most appropriate for this patient?
Protein intake does not have to be modified for this patient.
The patient should follow a low to moderate-protein diet, with an emphasis on plant-based sources.
Advise the patient to adopt a very low-protein diet without restrictions on the types of protein consumed.
Encourage a high-protein diet to ensure adequate nutrition.
Answer Description
Patients with chronic kidney disease often need to limit their protein intake to reduce the burden on the kidneys, which are responsible for filtering waste products produced by protein metabolism. A low to moderate-protein diet helps slow the progression of kidney damage and is a common dietary recommendation for CKD patients. High protein diets, in this context, might exacerbate kidney function decline. Plant-based proteins are often encouraged over animal-based proteins because they can be less taxing on the kidneys and provide fiber and other beneficial nutrients. Very low-protein diets are not typically recommended without careful monitoring and medical advice, as they may lead to malnutrition.
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Why is protein intake important for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
What is the difference between plant-based and animal-based proteins for CKD patients?
Why aren't very low-protein diets commonly recommended for CKD patients?
A provider orders an imaging study for a patient who reports chronic headaches and occasional dizziness. To obtain detailed images of the brain to rule out structural causes, which of the following imaging studies should the medical assistant prepare the patient for that will best provide the needed information?
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
Ultrasound
X-ray
Answer Description
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) offers the best detailed imaging of the brain's structure, making it the ideal choice for investigating potential causes of chronic headaches and dizziness that may be related to structural issues in the brain. While CT scans also provide detailed images, an MRI is more sensitive to changes in the soft tissue, which makes it more suitable for brain imaging in this case. An X-ray is typically used for imaging bones and would not provide the same level of detail for brain structures. An Ultrasound is not the method of choice for brain imaging due to the skull obstructed sound waves and is more commonly used for abdominal and pelvic exams.
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Why is an MRI more suitable than a CT scan for detecting structural brain issues?
How does an MRI work to create detailed images of the brain?
Why is ultrasound not effective for brain imaging in adults?
When preparing a crash cart, which of the following is MOST essential to be included and readily accessible for immediate use during a cardiac emergency?
Non-latex gloves
Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
Antiseptic wipes
Stethoscope
Answer Description
An automated external defibrillator (AED) is most essential to be included in a crash cart for immediate use during a cardiac emergency, as it is crucial for delivering an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm in case of cardiac arrest. While non-latex gloves are important for maintaining universal precautions, their availability is second to the emergency needs of a cardiac arrest event. Moreover, a stethoscope, although valuable in assessing and monitoring patients, is not the primary emergency resuscitation equipment. Likewise, antiseptic wipes are necessary for maintaining cleanliness but are not as critical as the AED for emergency response to a cardiac event.
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Why is an AED crucial during a cardiac emergency?
How does an AED work in analyzing heart rhythm before delivering a shock?
What other items are typically included in a crash cart for emergencies?
A medical assistant overhears a coworker speculating about a patient's medical condition in a public area of the clinic where other patients can hear. The medical assistant knows the coworker's statements are not based on the patient's medical records or known facts. If the patient were to learn of this incident and decide to take legal action, which type of tort could this potentially represent?
Assault
Slander
Negligence
Libel
Answer Description
The correct answer is slander, which is a defamation that is spoken rather than written, and involves the act of making false statements about a person that could damage their reputation. Since the coworker's speculative comments were verbal and could be heard by others, leading to potential harm to the patient's reputation, it would be considered slander if proved false. Libel, on the other hand, is a written defamation. Negligence requires proof of a duty of care and a breach leading to harm, which may not directly apply to the act of gossip. Assault is incorrect because there is no indication of an intentional act that caused the patient to fear immediate harmful or offensive contact.
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What is the difference between slander and libel?
Why is negligence not applicable in this situation?
Could the coworker’s actions also fall under HIPAA violations?
Which part of the digestive tract is chiefly responsible for reclaiming water and electrolytes from indigestible food residue and forming semi-solid feces before elimination?
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine (colon)
Gallbladder
Answer Description
The large intestine (colon) absorbs the remaining water and electrolytes from indigestible chyme, houses gut flora that further break down material, and compacts the waste into stool for eventual elimination. The stomach primarily performs mechanical and chemical digestion; the small intestine absorbs most nutrients; the gallbladder stores and concentrates bile but does not absorb water from food.
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What role do gut flora in the large intestine play in digestion?
Why doesn't the small intestine absorb all the water and electrolytes?
How does the large intestine compact waste into feces?
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