BCEN CFRN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Flight Registered Nurse
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BCEN CFRN Information
The Certified Flight Registered Nurse (CFRN) credential is a specialized certification offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN). It is designed for registered nurses who work in the unique and challenging environment of flight and critical care transport. The CFRN certification demonstrates a nurse's expertise and commitment to providing high-quality care in aeromedical and critical care transport settings, where they often face extreme environments and complex medical scenarios.
To qualify for the CFRN exam, BCEN recommends that candidates have at least two years of experience in critical care or emergency nursing. This experience is crucial because the exam covers a broad range of topics, including patient care in flight, trauma, and medical emergencies, as well as understanding the effects of altitude and flight physiology on patients. The CFRN exam consists of 175 questions, of which 150 are scored, and candidates must achieve a scaled score of approximately 70% (109 correct answers) to pass. The test is administered in English and has a time limit of three hours.
Earning the CFRN credential signifies that a nurse has the advanced knowledge and skills required to provide critical care in flight, enhancing their professional reputation and potentially opening doors to more career opportunities in aeromedical transport. Maintaining the certification requires continuing education and periodic recertification, ensuring that CFRN-certified nurses stay current with the latest best practices and medical advancements in flight nursing.
For more information about the CFRN certification and to access official resources, visit the BCEN website. For details on exam preparation, application, and recertification, refer to the BCEN's CFRN exam page.
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Free BCEN CFRN Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited time
- General Principles of Flight Transport Nursing PracticeResuscitation PrinciplesTraumaMedical EmergenciesSpecial Populations
What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?
To defend the body against infections
To transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues
To initiate clot formation and help stop bleeding
To regulate body temperature
Answer Description
Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, play a crucial role in hemostasis, the process that prevents and stops bleeding. They achieve this by aggregating to form clots and releasing chemicals that aid in blood coagulation. Even though other answers mention the general role of blood elements like transporting oxygen or fighting infections, these are functions of red blood cells and white blood cells, respectively.
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What specific process do platelets participate in when forming a blood clot?
How do platelets differ from other blood cells like red and white blood cells?
What happens if platelet levels are too low or too high in the body?
A 6-month-old infant is being transported after a fall from a significant height. The infant is presenting with irritability, vomiting, and a bulging fontanelle. Based on these symptoms, which condition is the infant most likely experiencing?
Meningitis
Dehydration
Increased intracranial pressure
Gastroenteritis
Answer Description
The presentation of irritability, vomiting, and a bulging fontanelle in an infant strongly suggests increased intracranial pressure (ICP). This is a critical condition often caused by head trauma, which requires immediate medical attention. Although dehydration can present with vomiting, it would not typically cause a bulging fontanelle. Meningitis could present with similar signs but less likely following a fall. Gastroenteritis usually presents with vomiting and diarrhea but does not cause a bulging fontanelle.
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Why does increased intracranial pressure (ICP) cause symptoms like a bulging fontanelle in infants?
How is increased intracranial pressure (ICP) diagnosed and treated during transport?
How can healthcare providers differentiate between increased ICP and other conditions like meningitis in infants?
A 50-year-old male patient presents with acute respiratory distress due to acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient is alert and oriented but experiencing labored breathing with an SpO2 of 85% on room air. Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV) is initiated. Which of the following clinical signs indicates that NIV is effective for this patient?
Absent breath sounds
Improved SpO2 to greater than 90%
Use of accessory muscles
Development of bradycardia
Answer Description
The effectiveness of NIV in patients with respiratory distress is primarily indicated by improvement in clinical signs such as alleviation of labored breathing, increased oxygen saturation levels, and improvement in arterial blood gases. Specifically, an increasing SpO2 to above 90% after starting NIV suggests that the intervention is providing adequate respiratory support. On the other hand, absent breath sounds or accessory muscle usage might indicate progressing severity, and bradycardia may suggest hypoxia or other complications.
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What is Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV)?
Why does SpO2 above 90% indicate effective NIV?
What are other signs that a patient might need invasive ventilation instead of NIV?
During a medical flight transport, a bariatric patient with a BMI of 45 presents with shortness of breath and hypoxia. Which of the following initial interventions is most appropriate?
Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
Initiate bag-valve-mask ventilation
Start continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Initiate bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
Answer Description
Administering high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask ensures that the patient receives a high concentration of oxygen to alleviate hypoxia, which is crucial given the patient's immediate symptoms. Bag-valve-mask ventilation is typically reserved for patients who are unresponsive or unable to maintain their airway, while CPAP and BiPAP are more suited for patients with stable respiratory rates who need assistance with ventilation.
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What is a non-rebreather mask and how does it work?
When is bag-valve-mask ventilation necessary?
What is the difference between CPAP and BiPAP, and when are they used?
A 45-year-old male patient is being prepared for transport after a severe motor vehicle accident. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 135 bpm, and he is showing signs of jugular venous distension and muffled heart sounds. What is the most appropriate intervention to address his condition most effectively?
Administer vasopressors
Pericardiocentesis
Administer intravenous fluids
Start blood product transfusion
Answer Description
The patient is likely experiencing obstructive shock due to cardiac tamponade, which is indicated by his hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds. Pericardiocentesis is the most appropriate intervention to relieve the pressure around the heart and restore cardiovascular stability. Administering intravenous fluids and blood products can support blood pressure but will not directly address the cause. Vasopressors may temporarily increase blood pressure but still do not remove the underlying obstruction.
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What is cardiac tamponade, and why does it cause obstructive shock?
How is pericardiocentesis performed, and why is it crucial in cardiac tamponade?
Why are intravenous fluids, blood products, or vasopressors not sufficient in treating cardiac tamponade?
A patient in cardiac arrest due to acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is being prepared for transport. Despite advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) interventions, the patient remains in cardiogenic shock. Which of the following interventions is most effective to improve myocardial perfusion and decrease myocardial workload during transport?
Administer a norepinephrine infusion
Administer a dobutamine infusion
Initiate intravenous nitroglycerin
Perform synchronized cardioversion
Answer Description
The administration of an inotropic agent like dobutamine is the most effective intervention in this scenario. Dobutamine increases cardiac output by enhancing myocardial contractility and improving stroke volume. This optimizes cardiac perfusion and helps to decrease myocardial workload, which is crucial in managing cardiogenic shock. While defibrillation is essential in life-threatening arrhythmias and fluid administration is critical in hypovolemic shock, they are not as directly effective in improving myocardial perfusion and reducing cardiac workload in cardiogenic shock due to AMI. Administering nitroglycerin primarily affects preload and coronary vasodilation but does not address myocardial contractility as effectively as dobutamine.
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What is cardiogenic shock?
How does dobutamine help in cardiogenic shock?
Why isn’t norepinephrine or nitroglycerin effective in this scenario?
Which of the following strategies is most effective for managing stress among flight transport nurses?
Restricting work hours to strictly 8-hour shifts
Implementing regular debriefings
Relying on self-reporting for stress levels
Providing annual psychological assessments
Answer Description
Implementing regular debriefings helps manage stress by providing a structured opportunity for flight transport nurses to process the events of the mission, share experiences, and receive emotional support from peers and supervisors. This strategy promotes mental well-being and team cohesion.
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Why are regular debriefings effective for managing stress?
How does stress impact flight transport nurses on the job?
What other strategies, aside from debriefings, can help reduce stress in flight transport nurses?
A 54-year-old male patient with cardiogenic shock is being transported via helicopter. He is currently on a balloon pump. Suddenly, the patient develops a new dysrhythmia. What is the most appropriate initial intervention to ensure the continued effective functioning of the balloon pump?
Administer antiarrhythmic medications
Increase the frequency of inflations
Assess and adjust the timing of the device
Defibrillate the patient
Answer Description
The most appropriate initial intervention when a patient on a balloon pump develops a new dysrhythmia is to assess and adjust the timing of the pump. The device's effectiveness heavily relies on proper timing relative to the cardiac cycle, which can be disrupted by dysrhythmias. Administering antiarrhythmic medications or defibrillation may also be necessary, but these are secondary steps. Simply increasing the pump frequency without addressing the timing would not resolve the issue and may worsen the patient's hemodynamic status.
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What is an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) and how does it work?
How do dysrhythmias affect the functioning of a balloon pump?
How is the timing of an IABP adjusted during a dysrhythmia?
A 5-year-old involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision is being transported by helicopter. The initial assessment reveals gurgling respirations, a heart rate of 150 bpm, and pale, cool skin. There is no obvious external hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most critical initial intervention?
Suction the airway to clear secretions
Obtain a point-of-care blood glucose level
Apply a cervical collar and immobilize the spine
Initiate a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus
Answer Description
In pediatric trauma, the primary survey follows the ABCDE (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure) sequence. Gurgling respirations indicate a partially obstructed airway, which is an immediate life threat that must be addressed first. While the patient also shows signs of shock (tachycardia, pale/cool skin), establishing a patent airway is the priority. Without a clear airway, all other resuscitation efforts, such as fluid administration, will be ineffective. Therefore, suctioning the airway is the most critical initial intervention.
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What is the ABCDE sequence in pediatric trauma assessment?
Why is airway management prioritized in trauma patients?
What are the signs of shock in pediatric patients, and why is heart rate important?
During a flight transport of a pregnant patient experiencing seizures due to eclampsia, which medication is most appropriate to administer to manage the condition?
Magnesium sulfate
Phenytoin
Lorazepam
Diazepam
Answer Description
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for eclampsia-associated seizures during pregnancy. It has been proven to be effective in controlling seizures and preventing recurrence. It is important to differentiate this from other medications like diazepam and lorazepam, which are used for general seizure control but are not the primary drugs of choice for eclampsia.
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Why is magnesium sulfate the first-line treatment for eclampsia-associated seizures?
What are the signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity to monitor during treatment?
How does magnesium sulfate compare to benzodiazepines like diazepam for managing eclampsia seizures?
A 45-year-old male is transported via helicopter after a motor vehicle accident. During transport, the patient begins to experience increasing abdominal distension, hypotension, and respiratory distress. The flight nurse suspects abdominal compartment syndrome. Which initial intervention is most appropriate to manage this condition?
Performing abdominal decompression
Administering intravenous fluids
Starting vasopressor therapy
Initiating mechanical ventilation
Answer Description
The most appropriate initial intervention for suspected abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) is decompression of the abdomen, ideally through surgical means. While managing the patient's blood pressure and respiratory status are also critical, decompression directly addresses the underlying issue causing the symptoms of ACS. Administering fluids or vasopressors alone may not be sufficient to relieve the increased intra-abdominal pressure.
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What is abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS)?
How is abdominal decompression performed?
Why are fluids and vasopressors not sufficient treatments for ACS?
During a patient retrieval from a remote mountainous area, you encounter a hiker who has been exposed to extremely low temperatures for an extended period and is now presenting with frostbite on their hands. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's frostbite?
Applying direct heat with a heating pad
Immersing the frostbitten areas in warm water
Rubbing the frostbitten areas to improve circulation
Removing blisters from the affected areas
Answer Description
Immersing the frostbitten areas in warm water is the correct approach because it helps to gently rewarm the tissues, which is crucial for minimizing further damage. Rubbing frostbitten areas can cause additional injury due to ice crystals in the tissue. Removing blisters is not recommended as it can lead to infection. Applying direct heat, like a heating pad, can cause burns due to the patient's decreased sensation.
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Why is it important to immerse frostbitten areas in warm water for treatment?
What complications can arise if frostbitten areas are rubbed or massaged?
Why is applying direct heat, like with a heating pad, dangerous for frostbite treatment?
A helicopter is dispatched to a remote location where a 35-year-old male has sustained blunt abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you note the patient is hypotensive, tachycardic, and has abdominal distension with bruising on the flank (Grey Turner's sign). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
Splenic rupture
Hollow organ injury
Diaphragmatic rupture
Answer Description
The presence of hypotension, tachycardia, and abdominal distension combined with Grey Turner's sign suggests retroperitoneal hemorrhage. This is a serious condition that can result from blunt abdominal trauma. The other potential answers are not accompanied by these specific clinical signs. Splenic rupture typically presents with left upper quadrant pain and possible referred pain to the left shoulder (Kehr's sign). Hollow organ injury might present with signs of peritonitis but not specifically with Grey Turner's sign. Diaphragmatic rupture may show respiratory distress or bowel sounds in the chest, but not the signs described in this scenario.
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What is Grey Turner's sign and why is it significant?
How is retroperitoneal hemorrhage typically diagnosed in trauma cases?
What are the primary treatments for retroperitoneal hemorrhage in trauma patients?
A 45-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and presents with signs of hemorrhagic shock, including a heart rate of 130 bpm, blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg, and cool, pale skin. According to current trauma guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial intravenous fluid for resuscitation?
Administration of colloids, such as albumin
Administration of hypertonic saline
Administration of isotonic crystalloids, such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution
Administration of packed red blood cells
Answer Description
According to the most recent Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines, the initial management for hemorrhagic shock may begin with a judicious bolus of a warmed isotonic crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringer's or normal saline. This is considered a temporizing measure. The modern standard of care, known as Damage Control Resuscitation (DCR), emphasizes minimizing crystalloid administration to avoid dilutional coagulopathy, hypothermia, and acidosis. The primary goal is to transition rapidly to hemostatic resuscitation with blood products (packed red blood cells, plasma, and platelets) in a balanced ratio. While packed red blood cells are essential, they are part of the subsequent balanced resuscitation strategy, not typically the very first fluid administered in isolation. Hypertonic saline may be considered for patients with concurrent traumatic brain injury but is not the primary choice for hemorrhage alone. Colloids like albumin are not a first-line choice in initial trauma resuscitation.
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Why is isotonic crystalloid preferred for initial resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock?
What is Damage Control Resuscitation (DCR)?
Why are colloids and hypertonic salines not recommended for initial hemorrhagic shock resuscitation?
A 35-year-old male patient presents with a severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. CT scan reveals a large intraparenchymal hemorrhage with significant midline shift. As a flight nurse, what is the most immediate management priority during transport?
Monitor blood pressure and manage hypertension
Initiate IV fluids to maintain perfusion
Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
Administer osmotic diuretics
Answer Description
The most immediate management priority for patients with significant midline shift due to a space-occupying lesion, such as intraparenchymal hemorrhage, is to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, as increased intracranial pressure (ICP) can compromise respiratory function. Hyperventilation can help reduce ICP by causing cerebral vasoconstriction. Ensuring airway patency and oxygenation are critical during transport to prevent secondary brain injury. While monitoring blood pressure and administering osmotic diuretics are important, ensuring adequate ventilation takes precedence to avoid further hypoxia or hypercapnia which can exacerbate neurological deterioration.
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What is intracranial pressure (ICP), and why is it significant in managing patients with a midline shift?
How does hyperventilation help manage elevated ICP during transport?
Why is oxygenation prioritized over other interventions, like administering osmotic diuretics, in intraparenchymal hemorrhage with midline shift?
When initiating invasive ventilation in a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which ventilator setting is most important to reduce the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury?
Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
Tidal volume of 6 mL/kg of predicted body weight
FiO2 set to 100%
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cmH2O
Answer Description
Setting the tidal volume is crucial when initiating invasive ventilation in ARDS patients because using too high a tidal volume can cause ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI). Keeping the tidal volume at 6 mL/kg of predicted body weight helps to minimize this risk. While positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), respiratory rate, and FiO2 are also important settings, they do not directly correlate with lung injury prevention as effectively as tidal volume management.
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Why is a tidal volume of 6 mL/kg of predicted body weight recommended for ARDS patients?
What is ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI)?
What role does PEEP play in managing ARDS patients on a ventilator?
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle crash in which witnesses report a severe hyper-extension of his neck. He is alert and hemodynamically stable. Neurologic examination reveals 0/5 strength in both upper extremities and 4/5 strength in both lower extremities. Pin-prick and temperature sensation are diminished in the hands, while proprioception is preserved. Reflexes are brisk in all four limbs. Which incomplete spinal cord syndrome best explains this presentation?
Cauda equina syndrome
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Anterior cord syndrome
Central cord syndrome
Answer Description
The combination of markedly greater motor weakness in the upper than in the lower extremities, sensory loss predominantly affecting pain and temperature, preserved proprioception, and a hyper-extension cervical mechanism is classic for central cord syndrome. Central cord injuries involve the central corticospinal tracts that contain fibers for the arms situated more medially, producing the characteristic arm-dominant motor deficit. Anterior cord syndrome causes bilateral motor and pain/temperature loss below the lesion with preserved dorsal-column sensation; Brown-Sequard syndrome produces ipsilateral motor loss with contralateral pain/temperature loss; cauda equina syndrome involves lower-motor-neuron leg weakness and saddle anesthesia.
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What is central cord syndrome, and why does it primarily affect upper extremities?
How is central cord syndrome different from anterior cord syndrome?
What clinical features differentiate Brown-Sequard syndrome from central cord syndrome?
A 45-year-old man with a severe traumatic brain injury is intubated and ventilated for rotor-wing transport to a level I trauma center. Shortly after lift-off and climb through 2,000 ft AGL, his pupillary response slows and his intracranial pressure monitor rises from 18 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg despite unchanged ventilator settings. Which factor related to the flight environment is the most likely cause of this acute increase in ICP?
Rotor-blade vibration and cabin noise stimulating sympathetic discharge
Positive G-forces during climb impeding cerebral venous outflow
Lower barometric pressure at altitude causing expansion of trapped intracranial gas
Hyperventilation failure leading to hypercarbia and cerebral vasodilation
Answer Description
As the helicopter ascends, ambient barometric pressure falls. According to Boyle's law, any intracranial air pocket (post-traumatic or post-operative pneumocephalus) expands as external pressure drops. The rigid skull cannot accommodate this volume increase, so ICP rises. Altitude-induced hypoxia further promotes cerebral vasodilation and edema, compounding the pressure elevation. Acceleration forces, sympathetic stimulation from noise/vibration, or equipment activation do not directly raise ICP to the same degree. Hypercarbia would increase ICP but was ruled out by stable ventilator settings and end-tidal COâ‚‚.
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What is Boyle's law and how does it apply to medical scenarios like intracranial pressure changes during flight?
Why does altitude-induced hypoxia contribute to elevated intracranial pressure?
What is the difference between hypercarbia and hypoxia in their impact on intracranial pressure?
You are a flight nurse attending to a 45-year-old male patient with a history of Type 1 Diabetes. He is found unconscious, with a blood glucose reading of 35 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial treatment you should administer?
Administer 25g of dextrose intravenously
Administer 1mg of glucagon intramuscularly
Provide a carbohydrate-rich meal
Give an oral glucose gel
Answer Description
The most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with a blood glucose reading of 35 mg/dL is IV administration of dextrose. This approach rapidly increases blood glucose levels, which is critical in an unconscious patient. While a glucagon injection can also raise blood glucose, it is usually used in settings where IV access is not available. Oral glucose gels cannot be administered to unconscious patients due to the risk of aspiration.
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Why is IV dextrose preferred over glucagon in an unconscious diabetic patient?
Why can't oral glucose gels be used in unconscious patients?
What are the risks of prolonged hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?
While transporting a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury resulting from a high-speed motor vehicle accident, what is the most crucial initial step to stabilize the patient and prevent further injury?
Perform a full neurological assessment
Provide high-flow oxygen to ensure adequate perfusion
Maintain manual in-line stabilization of the spine
Administer IV fluids for hemodynamic stability
Answer Description
The most crucial initial step in stabilizing a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury is maintaining proper immobilization techniques to prevent further spinal damage. Manual in-line stabilization minimizes movement of the spine and helps avoid exacerbating the injury. Administering IV fluids and monitoring neurological status are essential but secondary measures following proper immobilization.
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Why is manual in-line stabilization the most crucial initial step for suspected spinal cord injuries?
How does manual in-line stabilization differ from cervical collar application?
When can IV fluids or neurological assessments be prioritized in spinal cord injuries?
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