BCEN CFRN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Flight Registered Nurse
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BCEN CFRN Information
The Certified Flight Registered Nurse (CFRN) credential is a specialized certification offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN). It is designed for registered nurses who work in the unique and challenging environment of flight and critical care transport. The CFRN certification demonstrates a nurse's expertise and commitment to providing high-quality care in aeromedical and critical care transport settings, where they often face extreme environments and complex medical scenarios.
To qualify for the CFRN exam, BCEN recommends that candidates have at least two years of experience in critical care or emergency nursing. This experience is crucial because the exam covers a broad range of topics, including patient care in flight, trauma, and medical emergencies, as well as understanding the effects of altitude and flight physiology on patients. The CFRN exam consists of 175 questions, of which 150 are scored, and candidates must achieve a scaled score of approximately 70% (109 correct answers) to pass. The test is administered in English and has a time limit of three hours.
Earning the CFRN credential signifies that a nurse has the advanced knowledge and skills required to provide critical care in flight, enhancing their professional reputation and potentially opening doors to more career opportunities in aeromedical transport. Maintaining the certification requires continuing education and periodic recertification, ensuring that CFRN-certified nurses stay current with the latest best practices and medical advancements in flight nursing.
For more information about the CFRN certification and to access official resources, visit the BCEN website. For details on exam preparation, application, and recertification, refer to the BCEN's CFRN exam page.
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Free BCEN CFRN Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Principles of Flight Transport Nursing PracticeResuscitation PrinciplesTraumaMedical EmergenciesSpecial Populations
A 28-year-old male technician presents with a burn injury after an accidental exposure to a high-energy radiology machine. Upon assessing the patient, which of the following actions is most appropriate for initial management of radiological burns?
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Cover the burn with an occlusive dressing
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Conduct a full body scan
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Remove contaminated clothing and thoroughly irrigate the affected area
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Administer intravenous fluids
Answer Description
The correct answer is to remove any contaminated clothing and thoroughly irrigate the affected area. This helps reduce contamination and thereby limits radiation exposure to both the patient and medical staff. While covering the burn with an occlusive dressing is part of wound care, it should be done after initial decontamination. Administering intravenous fluids is important for burns in general, but in the context of radiological burns, reducing radiation absorption is the priority. Conducting a full body scan is important but not the immediate priority in the initial management.
Ask Bash
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What should I know about managing radiological burns?
Why is it important to irrigate the burn area?
What are the differences between managing general burns and radiological burns?
A 35-year-old male patient is being transported via air ambulance after ingesting a large quantity of ethylene glycol (antifreeze). Which medication should be administered to prevent the formation of toxic metabolites?
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Activated charcoal
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Naloxone
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Fomepizole
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Atropine
Answer Description
The medication that should be administered is fomepizole. Fomepizole is an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor, which prevents the metabolism of ethylene glycol into its toxic metabolites like glycolate and oxalate. These toxic metabolites are responsible for the metabolic acidosis, renal failure, and other severe complications associated with ethylene glycol poisoning. Ethanol can also be used as an alternative treatment since it competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase, but it is less commonly used due to its side effects and the need for careful monitoring.
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What are the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol?
How does fomepizole work to counteract ethylene glycol poisoning?
What are some potential side effects or considerations when using fomepizole?
During a night flight transfer, a 35-year-old male patient who was involved in a high-speed motorcycle accident shows signs of respiratory distress, abdominal pain, and decreased breath sounds on the left side. Which additional finding is most indicative of a diaphragmatic injury?
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Elevated hemidiaphragm on the left
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Flat jugular venous pressure
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Unilateral chest pain
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Bowel sounds in the chest
Answer Description
Bowel sounds in the chest are a hallmark sign of diaphragmatic injury because they indicate that abdominal organs have herniated into the thoracic cavity through the ruptured diaphragm. Decreased breath sounds and abdominal pain are common but can be caused by other thoraco-abdominal injuries.
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What causes diaphragmatic injury in trauma cases?
How do you differentiate between diaphragmatic injury and other thoracic injuries?
What are the potential complications of a diaphragmatic injury?
You are called to transport a 45-year-old male involved in a high-speed car accident. Upon arrival, the patient is unconscious with shallow breathing. Which of the following physical assessment findings would best indicate a potentially life-threatening condition?
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Absent bowel sounds
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Asymmetrical chest movements
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Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
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Dilated pupils
Answer Description
Presence of asymmetrical chest movements could indicate a pneumothorax or hemothorax, both of which are life-threatening conditions that require immediate attention. Dilated pupils could be due to head trauma or drug influence but are not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12 suggests moderate head injury, but does not pinpoint specific life-threatening issues. Absent bowel sounds might indicate internal injury but are less immediately critical than compromised lung function.
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What are asymmetrical chest movements and what do they indicate?
What is a pneumothorax, and how does it affect breathing?
How is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) used in trauma assessment?
A 45-year-old patient presents with confusion, sweating, and tachycardia. Blood glucose is measured at 45 mg/dL. What is the most likely condition?
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Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
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Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
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Hypoglycemia
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Hyperglycemia
Answer Description
The most likely condition is hypoglycemia, which is characterized by low blood glucose levels, typically below 70 mg/dL. Symptoms include confusion, sweating, tachycardia, and seizures. Hyperglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) all involve elevated blood glucose levels, not low blood glucose.
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What causes hypoglycemia?
What symptoms should I watch for in hypoglycemia?
How is hypoglycemia treated in a patient?
A 45-year-old male patient with severe sepsis is showing signs of decreased perfusion despite adequate fluid resuscitation. Which of the following vasopressors is the best initial choice to improve the patient's blood pressure and perfusion?
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Dopamine
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Phenylephrine
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Epinephrine
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Norepinephrine
Answer Description
Norepinephrine is considered the first-line vasopressor for patients with septic shock who remain hypotensive despite adequate fluid resuscitation. It has potent alpha-adrenergic effects, leading to vasoconstriction and increased systemic vascular resistance, which help to improve blood pressure and perfusion. Epinephrine and dopamine can be considered in specific circumstances or as additional agents, but norepinephrine is preferred due to its more favorable balance of efficacy and side effects. Phenylephrine is typically a second-line option in patients with certain contraindications to norepinephrine.
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What are the mechanisms of action of norepinephrine?
Why is norepinephrine preferred over epinephrine in septic shock?
What are some common side effects of norepinephrine usage?
A 45-year-old male has been airlifted to your medical facility after being bitten by a rattlesnake. Upon assessment, you note generalized weakness, hematuria, and severe swelling around the bite site. What is the most important initial intervention for managing this patient?
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Immobilize the affected limb
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Clean the wound thoroughly
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Administer antivenom
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Increase fluid intake
Answer Description
The most important initial intervention for managing a rattlesnake bite is the administration of antivenom, as it directly neutralizes the venom. Immobilizing the limb, longer shelter stays, and wound cleaning are supportive measures but do not address the systemic effects of the venom.
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What is antivenom and how does it work?
What are the common symptoms of a rattlesnake bite?
Why is immobilizing the limb not the first priority in managing a rattlesnake bite?
Which assessment finding would most likely predict a difficult airway during patient preparation for transport?
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Limited temporomandibular joint mobility
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Presence of an IV line
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History of hypertension
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Sinus tachycardia
Answer Description
Limited temporomandibular joint (TMJ) mobility suggests the patient may have difficulty opening their mouth fully, which can make insertion of airway devices challenging. Identifying limited TMJ mobility helps anticipate and prepare for potential difficulties with airway management. While a history of hypertension, presence of an IV line, and sinus tachycardia are important clinical findings, they do not directly indicate difficulty with securing the airway.
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What is limited temporomandibular joint mobility?
Why is airway management important in patient transport?
What are common signs of difficult airway management?
A 78-year-old male patient with a history of congestive heart failure is experiencing increased shortness of breath and bilateral pitting edema during an interfacility transport. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to improve his symptoms?
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Start oxygen therapy
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Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position
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Administer furosemide
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Administer normal saline
Answer Description
Administering furosemide helps reduce fluid overload in patients with congestive heart failure by promoting diuresis. While oxygen therapy can help with respiratory distress, it does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Administering normal saline can exacerbate fluid overload, and placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position is not recommended as it can worsen respiratory symptoms and fluid congestion.
Ask Bash
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What is furosemide and how does it work?
What is congestive heart failure (CHF) and why does it cause symptoms like shortness of breath and edema?
What roles do oxygen therapy and fluid management play in treating CHF?
Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of abdominal compartment syndrome?
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Distended abdomen
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Increased urination
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Lower back pain
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Nausea and vomiting
Answer Description
A hallmark symptom of abdominal compartment syndrome is a distended abdomen. This condition results from increased intra-abdominal pressure, which leads to decreased blood flow to the abdominal organs and causes them to swell. While symptoms like nausea and vomiting, lower back pain, and increased urination can be present in many different conditions, a distended abdomen is more specific to abdominal compartment syndrome.
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What causes abdominal compartment syndrome?
How can abdominal compartment syndrome be treated?
What are the potential complications of abdominal compartment syndrome?
Which type of fluid is most appropriate for initial resuscitation in a trauma patient exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock during air transport?
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Packed red blood cells
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Hypertonic saline
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Colloids (e.g., albumin)
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Isotonic crystalloids (e.g., normal saline, lactated Ringer's)
Answer Description
Isotonic crystalloids, such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution, are typically used for initial fluid resuscitation in trauma patients with hypovolemic shock due to their ability to quickly expand intravascular volume without causing potential complications associated with other fluids. While blood products may eventually be necessary, they are not usually the first line of treatment in most cases. Hypertonic saline and colloids have specific indications and are not widely used as initial fluids in trauma resuscitation.
Ask Bash
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What are isotonic crystalloids and why are they important in trauma care?
What is hypovolemic shock, and how does it affect patient care during air transport?
Why are hypertonic saline and colloids not recommended for initial resuscitation in trauma patients?
A 28-year-old male is brought to your helicopter after a motorcycle crash. He is unconscious with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 6. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to decrease the risk of secondary brain injury during transport?
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Administering supplemental oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation between 94-98%
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Administering isotonic fluids to maintain blood pressure
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Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees
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Hyperventilating the patient to maintain a PaCO2 of 25-30 mmHg
Answer Description
Administering supplemental oxygen to maintain the patient's oxygen saturation between 94-98% is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can exacerbate brain injuries and contribute to secondary brain injury. Hyperventilation to reduce PaCO2 is generally avoided as it can lead to decreased cerebral blood flow, potentially worsening the injury. Administering isotonic fluids helps to maintain adequate blood pressure and cerebral perfusion, but without focusing on oxygenation, the intervention would be incomplete. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce intracranial pressure, but it is less immediately important compared to oxygenation.
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What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Why is it important to maintain oxygen saturation between 94-98%?
What are secondary brain injuries?
You are transporting a critically injured child following a severe motor vehicle accident. The parents are highly anxious and continuously asking about their child's condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take while managing the psychosocial needs of the family during transport?
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Providing regular updates on the child's condition and explaining the procedures being performed.
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Offering reassurance that they will be updated as new information becomes available.
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Encouraging the parents to ask questions and engaging with their concerns regarding the child's care.
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Communicating with the parents about the child's status to help them feel informed.
Answer Description
Keeping the parents informed with regular updates about their child's condition helps alleviate their anxiety and ensures they feel included in the medical process. It is important to maintain open communication channels and explain the procedures being performed. This approach enhances trust and reduces stress for the family in a high-stress situation. Dismissing questions, providing false reassurances without details, or limiting updates to emergencies can increase anxiety and reduce trust in the care being provided.
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Why are regular updates important for anxious family members during medical transport?
What is the impact of open communication on family trust in the medical team?
How can a nurse effectively explain procedures being performed during transport?
Which of the following is a common clinical feature of chronic renal failure?
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Increased renal excretion of calcium
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Hypercalcemia
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Hyperkalemia
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Increased urine output
Answer Description
Hyperkalemia is a common clinical feature of chronic renal failure due to the kidney's reduced ability to excrete potassium. Other symptoms like decreased urine output can be present but are less indicative early in the disease. Increased renal excretion of calcium is incorrect, as chronic renal failure more commonly leads to hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia.
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What causes hyperkalemia in chronic renal failure?
What are some other symptoms of chronic renal failure?
How does chronic renal failure lead to hypocalcemia?
Which structured communication tool is commonly used for patient handoff to ensure critical information is effectively passed between providers?
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ABCDE
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SBAR
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HEADSS
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SOAP
Answer Description
The SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) tool is designed for standardized communication, ensuring that critical patient information is conveyed clearly and concisely during handoff. It helps avoid miscommunication and errors by providing a consistent framework for discussions.
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What does SBAR stand for?
Why is structured communication important in healthcare?
What other communication tools are used in healthcare?
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