BCEN CFRN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Flight Registered Nurse
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BCEN CFRN Information
The Certified Flight Registered Nurse (CFRN) credential is a specialized certification offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN). It is designed for registered nurses who work in the unique and challenging environment of flight and critical care transport. The CFRN certification demonstrates a nurse's expertise and commitment to providing high-quality care in aeromedical and critical care transport settings, where they often face extreme environments and complex medical scenarios.
To qualify for the CFRN exam, BCEN recommends that candidates have at least two years of experience in critical care or emergency nursing. This experience is crucial because the exam covers a broad range of topics, including patient care in flight, trauma, and medical emergencies, as well as understanding the effects of altitude and flight physiology on patients. The CFRN exam consists of 175 questions, of which 150 are scored, and candidates must achieve a scaled score of approximately 70% (109 correct answers) to pass. The test is administered in English and has a time limit of three hours.
Earning the CFRN credential signifies that a nurse has the advanced knowledge and skills required to provide critical care in flight, enhancing their professional reputation and potentially opening doors to more career opportunities in aeromedical transport. Maintaining the certification requires continuing education and periodic recertification, ensuring that CFRN-certified nurses stay current with the latest best practices and medical advancements in flight nursing.
For more information about the CFRN certification and to access official resources, visit the BCEN website. For details on exam preparation, application, and recertification, refer to the BCEN's CFRN exam page.
Additional Links

Free BCEN CFRN Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Principles of Flight Transport Nursing PracticeResuscitation PrinciplesTraumaMedical EmergenciesSpecial Populations
You are in a transport scenario involving a 34-year-old male patient who suffered a severe crush injury to his right leg in a construction accident. The patient is experiencing increasing pain and swelling despite stabilization. Which action should you take to assess for the possibility of compartment syndrome?
Measure the intracompartmental pressure
Elevate the limb and re-assess in 15 minutes
Check for pedal pulses
Monitor the patient’s pain and swelling
Answer Description
The correct answer is to measure the intracompartmental pressure. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment rises to a level that decreases perfusion, leading to muscle and nerve damage. Measuring the pressure directly confirms the diagnosis. Monitoring swelling and pain are important but are not definitive assessments for compartment syndrome. Checking for pedal pulses, while essential in assessing circulatory status, does not exclude the presence of compartment syndrome since pulses can still be present despite increased compartment pressure.
Ask Bash
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What is compartment syndrome and how does it develop?
How is intracompartmental pressure measured, and what is the critical threshold for diagnosing compartment syndrome?
Why are pedal pulses not a reliable indicator of compartment syndrome?
A 35-year-old male was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident and presents with abdominal pain and signs of peritonitis. During transport, which of the following is the most likely complication of an untreated hollow organ injury?
Peritonitis
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiac tamponade
Pneumothorax
Answer Description
Peritonitis develops as a consequence of the leakage of gastric or intestinal contents into the peritoneal cavity due to a perforated hollow organ. This leads to widespread inflammation and can progress to sepsis if untreated. Hypovolemic shock can occur with solid organ injuries or extensive bleeding, but is not as directly linked to isolated hollow organ perforations. Cardiac tamponade and pneumothorax are conditions related to thoracic injuries rather than abdominal hollow organ injuries.
Ask Bash
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What are hollow organs, and why are they prone to perforations?
How does peritonitis develop from a hollow organ injury?
What is the difference between peritonitis and sepsis?
During an aerial transport, the helicopter experiences a sudden engine failure, forcing an emergency landing in a remote area. After the landing, what is the first priority for the flight nurse?
Check for injuries among the crew and patient
Contact emergency services for help
Assess the available survival supplies
Activate the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Answer Description
The first priority after an emergency landing is to ensure the immediate safety and health of the crew and patient by checking for injuries and providing necessary medical care. While contacting emergency services, using location devices, and assessing supplies are essential, they come after securing the immediate safety of everyone on board. Checking for injuries allows the nurse to determine if anyone needs immediate medical intervention, which is critical in the first moments post-crash.
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What is an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
Why is checking for injuries the first priority after an emergency landing?
What steps should be taken after confirming that no one is injured in an aircraft emergency landing?
A 45-year-old male patient on an interfacility transport is diagnosed with septic shock. The patient exhibits hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation and is currently on vasopressors. What is the next crucial step in managing this patient?
Administer another dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Initiate hemodialysis.
Increase the dosage of vasopressors.
Monitor central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) and optimize tissue perfusion.
Answer Description
Given the severity of septic shock, monitoring and optimizing tissue perfusion is paramount. Central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) monitoring helps assess whether the tissues are receiving adequate oxygen. If ScvO2 is low despite appropriate initial steps, further interventions such as optimizing cardiac output, transfusion of red blood cells, or increasing oxygen delivery may be necessary. Administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic is critical at the beginning of sepsis treatment, not next step after vasopressors. Increasing vasopressor dose can maintain blood pressure but does not directly improve tissue oxygenation. Initiating hemodialysis is needed in cases of acute kidney injury and not directly related to improving perfusion in septic shock.
Ask Bash
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What is central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) and why is it important in septic shock?
Why is administering broad-spectrum antibiotics not the next step in this case?
When is hemodialysis indicated in sepsis or septic shock?
A 35-year-old trauma patient with significant blood loss is being prepared for transport. Which of the following blood products is the most appropriate initial choice to address acute hemorrhage and improve oxygen-carrying capacity?
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Cryoprecipitate
Platelets
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
Answer Description
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are the most appropriate initial choice for acute hemorrhage as they directly increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Fresh frozen plasma is typically used to correct coagulopathy. Platelets are used to treat thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction, and cryoprecipitate is used for specific coagulation factor deficiencies.
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Why are PRBCs preferred over FFP for acute hemorrhage?
When would platelets or cryoprecipitate be used instead of PRBCs?
What is the primary function of PRBCs in the treatment of trauma patients?
During a patient retrieval from a remote mountainous area, you encounter a hiker who has been exposed to extremely low temperatures for an extended period and is now presenting with frostbite on their hands. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's frostbite?
Applying direct heat with a heating pad
Rubbing the frostbitten areas to improve circulation
Removing blisters from the affected areas
Immersing the frostbitten areas in warm water
Answer Description
Immersing the frostbitten areas in warm water is the correct approach because it helps to gently rewarm the tissues, which is crucial for minimizing further damage. Rubbing frostbitten areas can cause additional injury due to ice crystals in the tissue. Removing blisters is not recommended as it can lead to infection. Applying direct heat, like a heating pad, can cause burns due to the patient's decreased sensation.
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Why is it important to immerse frostbitten areas in warm water for treatment?
What complications can arise if frostbitten areas are rubbed or massaged?
Why is applying direct heat, like with a heating pad, dangerous for frostbite treatment?
A 32-year-old male is transported via emergency medical helicopter after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Upon assessment, he presents with decreased breath sounds on the left side, distended neck veins, and hypotension. Based on the mechanism of injury, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Flail chest
Tension pneumothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Hemothorax
Answer Description
The most likely diagnosis is a tension pneumothorax, which can occur due to significant blunt force trauma to the chest, such as that experienced in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. The clinical signs of decreased breath sounds on one side, distended neck veins, and hypotension are classic indicators of tension pneumothorax. Hemothorax and cardiac tamponade can present with some similar signs, but the decreased breath sounds are more indicative of pneumothorax.
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What is a tension pneumothorax?
How does a tension pneumothorax differ from a hemothorax?
Why does a tension pneumothorax cause distended neck veins?
A 36-year-old male involved in a motorcycle collision arrives at the trauma bay with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8. To prevent secondary brain injury, which intervention is most appropriate?
Maintaining adequate oxygenation with SpO2 greater than 94%
Administering aggressive fluid resuscitation
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees
Inserting an intracranial pressure monitor
Answer Description
Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in the prevention of secondary brain injury. Hypoxia can exacerbate brain injury by increasing ischemia and causing further neuronal damage. Ensuring an oxygen saturation (SpO2) greater than 94% helps to ensure that the brain is receiving sufficient oxygen supply, thus mitigating the risk of secondary injury. Other options, such as aggressive fluid resuscitation or inserting an intracranial pressure monitor, while important, are not the immediate priority for preventing secondary brain injury in the pre-hospital or initial emergency setting. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce intracranial pressure but is secondary to ensuring oxygenation.
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Why is hypoxia such a critical factor in secondary brain injury?
What is the role of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) in managing brain injuries?
Why is SpO2 greater than 94% the target for brain injury patients?
During a review of your transport team's recent missions, you identify a higher than usual number of delayed arrivals at the receiving facility. What would be the most appropriate first step to address this issue?
Conduct a root cause analysis to identify the factors contributing to the delays.
Suggest disciplinary action for the crews involved in the delayed missions.
Implement more mid-mission checkpoints to track progress more closely.
Change the crew schedules to ensure more timely arrivals.
Answer Description
Conducting a root cause analysis allows you to systematically investigate the delays, identify underlying issues, and implement targeted improvements, ensuring a comprehensive understanding and resolution of the problem. Changing crew schedules or suggesting discipline without analysis may not address the core issue, and adding more checkpoints could exacerbate the delays.
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What is a root cause analysis?
Why is changing crew schedules not the best initial step?
Why could adding more checkpoints worsen delays?
During a critical care transport, a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury is experiencing difficulty with airway patency. What is the most appropriate initial intervention to secure the airway while minimizing the risk of exacerbating the spinal injury?
Performing a jaw-thrust maneuver
Inserting an oropharyngeal airway
Using a head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
Considering Rapid Sequence Induction for Intubation (RSI)
Answer Description
Using the jaw-thrust maneuver instead of the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver is correct because it allows for airway management without causing further movement of a potentially unstable cervical spine. The oropharyngeal airway can help maintain patency but should be used only if the patient does not have a gag reflex. Nasal airways should be avoided if there is any suspicion of a basilar skull fracture. RSI may be considered after securing initial airway patency, but it is not the initial step in managing difficulties encountered with the airway in this specific scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is the jaw-thrust maneuver and why is it preferred in spinal injury cases?
Why is the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver not used for suspected cervical spine injuries?
When should an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) or Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI) be considered?
A 34-year-old male who was trapped in a burning building for several minutes has been brought to the emergency department. Upon arrival, the patient presents with hoarseness, singed nasal hairs, soot around the mouth and nose, and stridor. What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
Administer corticosteroids
Prepare for early intubation
Administer heated humidified oxygen
Perform a complete bronchoscopy
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Prepare for early intubation.' Inhalation injuries can quickly lead to airway obstruction due to edema. Given the signs of airway involvement, including hoarseness, stridor, and soot in the airways, early intubation is crucial to secure the airway and prevent rapid deterioration. Administering heated humidified oxygen can help in managing inhalation injuries but is not the immediate priority when signs of airway compromise are present. Administering corticosteroids has not been shown to be beneficial in acute management and can be detrimental. A complete bronchoscopy can provide detailed assessment but should not delay securing the airway through intubation when airway compromise is evident.
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Why is early intubation critical in patients with inhalation injuries?
What are the key signs of airway involvement in inhalation injuries?
Why are corticosteroids not recommended for acute inhalation injury management?
During a mass casualty incident involving a train derailment with multiple injured individuals, what is the primary responsibility of the flight nurse upon arrival?
Transport critical patients to the nearest hospital.
Start triaging the patients in the area.
Assist with setting up a temporary medical tent.
Establish communication with the Incident Commander and receive a briefing.
Answer Description
The primary responsibility of the flight nurse upon arrival at a mass casualty incident is to establish communication with the Incident Commander and to receive a briefing. This ensures that the flight nurse is aware of the situation, understands the chain of command, and can provide effective medical care within the established emergency response framework. Other options, while important, are tasks that would follow initial communications and situational assessment.
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Who is the Incident Commander, and why is it important to communicate with them during a mass casualty incident?
What is the role of a flight nurse in a mass casualty incident beyond communication?
What is a mass casualty triage process, and why isn't it the first priority for the flight nurse in this situation?
You are a flight nurse attending to a 45-year-old male patient with a history of Type 1 Diabetes. He is found unconscious, with a blood glucose reading of 35 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial treatment you should administer?
Give an oral glucose gel
Administer 1mg of glucagon intramuscularly
Administer 25g of dextrose intravenously
Provide a carbohydrate-rich meal
Answer Description
The most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with a blood glucose reading of 35 mg/dL is IV administration of dextrose. This approach rapidly increases blood glucose levels, which is critical in an unconscious patient. While a glucagon injection can also raise blood glucose, it is usually used in settings where IV access is not available. Oral glucose gels cannot be administered to unconscious patients due to the risk of aspiration.
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Why is IV dextrose preferred over glucagon in an unconscious diabetic patient?
Why can't oral glucose gels be used in unconscious patients?
What are the risks of prolonged hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?
During a patient handoff in the helicopter, a bystander asks the nurse about the patient's condition. Which legal principle ensures the nurse must keep this information confidential?
Informed consent
Mandatory reporting
HIPAA
EMTALA
Answer Description
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) mandates the confidentiality of patients' medical information. Nurses must not disclose patient information to unauthorized individuals to protect the patient's privacy rights. EMTALA regulates treatment and transfer of patients in emergency settings, but it does not cover confidentiality in this context. Informed consent pertains to obtaining permission from the patient before performing medical procedures, and mandatory reporting involves reporting specific conditions to authorities, which is not relevant in this scenario.
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What is HIPAA, and why is it important in protecting patient confidentiality?
How does HIPAA differ from EMTALA?
Are there any exceptions to HIPAA’s confidentiality requirements?
What primary pathology characterizes a pulmonary embolism?
Increased pressure in the pleural cavity causing lung collapse
Infection of the pulmonary parenchyma
Obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries due to a blood clot
Fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces
Answer Description
A pulmonary embolism is characterized by the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries due to a blood clot. This condition can lead to decreased oxygenation and increased strain on the heart, making prompt diagnosis and treatment vital. Other options mention related but different pathologies such as infections or pressure changes.
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How does a blood clot form in a pulmonary embolism?
What symptoms might a patient with a pulmonary embolism exhibit?
How is a pulmonary embolism diagnosed?
Which condition is characterized by a sudden loss of kidney function, leading to the accumulation of waste products in the blood?
Polycystic kidney disease
Chronic renal failure
Acute kidney injury
Urinary tract infection
Answer Description
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is marked by a rapid decrease in kidney function over a short period, resulting in the accumulation of waste products in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors including trauma, infections, or medications.
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What are common causes of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
How is acute kidney injury diagnosed?
How does AKI differ from chronic renal failure?
During a patient transport, the registered nurse receives a handoff report from the referring hospital. Which of the following pieces of information is most essential to include in the handoff report to the receiving provider at the destination facility?
Current medical status update, including recent treatments and vital signs.
Pre-existing medical conditions and past medical history.
Contact information for the referring provider.
Answer Description
In a handoff report, using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) method ensures that critical information about the patient's condition, recent treatments, and ongoing care needs are communicated clearly. The patient's current medical status update informs the receiving provider of any recent changes in condition or treatments, which is crucial for planning continued care. Pre-existing medical conditions are also important but are part of the 'Background' and not as critical in immediate handoff. Contact information for the referring provider is useful but less crucial in the direct care handoff.
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What is the SBAR method?
Why is the patient's current medical status prioritized in a handoff report?
How does 'Background' information in SBAR differ from 'Situation' and 'Assessment'?
Which of the following strategies is most effective for managing stress among flight transport nurses?
Relying on self-reporting for stress levels
Restricting work hours to strictly 8-hour shifts
Implementing regular debriefings
Providing annual psychological assessments
Answer Description
Implementing regular debriefings helps manage stress by providing a structured opportunity for flight transport nurses to process the events of the mission, share experiences, and receive emotional support from peers and supervisors. This strategy promotes mental well-being and team cohesion.
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Why are regular debriefings effective for managing stress?
How does stress impact flight transport nurses on the job?
What other strategies, aside from debriefings, can help reduce stress in flight transport nurses?
A 45-year-old male patient with a history of pneumonia is transported by air to a tertiary care center. During transport, he develops severe shortness of breath, hypoxemia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray without signs of heart failure. What should be the immediate priority in managing this patient?
Administer antibiotics for the underlying infection
Administer bronchodilators for airway management
Administer high-flow oxygen or apply positive pressure ventilation
Administer diuretics to manage potential fluid overload
Answer Description
The patient is showing signs of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), indicated by severe hypoxemia and bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray without heart failure. Providing high-flow oxygen or positive pressure ventilation is critical to maintain adequate oxygenation. Administering antibiotics is important for underlying infection but not the immediate priority. Bronchodilators are not indicated for ARDS. Diuretics are also not appropriate in this scenario since ARDS is not primarily related to fluid overload.
Ask Bash
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What is ARDS and why is it significant in this scenario?
Why is positive pressure ventilation preferred in ARDS management?
Why are antibiotics not the immediate priority in this case?
Which condition involves a blockage that hinders the normal movement of contents through the intestines, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, and distension?
Intestinal obstruction
Appendicitis
Cholecystitis
Peptic ulcer disease
Answer Description
Intestinal obstruction is characterized by a blockage that prevents the normal flow of contents through the intestines. This can result in symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. Causes can include adhesions, hernias, or tumors. Although peptic ulcer disease, appendicitis, and cholecystitis involve abdominal pain, they do not involve blockages in the intestines preventing the movement of contents.
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What are the common causes of intestinal obstruction?
How is intestinal obstruction diagnosed?
What are the treatment options for intestinal obstruction?
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