BCEN CFRN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Flight Registered Nurse
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BCEN CFRN Information
The Certified Flight Registered Nurse (CFRN) credential is a specialized certification offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN). It is designed for registered nurses who work in the unique and challenging environment of flight and critical care transport. The CFRN certification demonstrates a nurse's expertise and commitment to providing high-quality care in aeromedical and critical care transport settings, where they often face extreme environments and complex medical scenarios.
To qualify for the CFRN exam, BCEN recommends that candidates have at least two years of experience in critical care or emergency nursing. This experience is crucial because the exam covers a broad range of topics, including patient care in flight, trauma, and medical emergencies, as well as understanding the effects of altitude and flight physiology on patients. The CFRN exam consists of 175 questions, of which 150 are scored, and candidates must achieve a scaled score of approximately 70% (109 correct answers) to pass. The test is administered in English and has a time limit of three hours.
Earning the CFRN credential signifies that a nurse has the advanced knowledge and skills required to provide critical care in flight, enhancing their professional reputation and potentially opening doors to more career opportunities in aeromedical transport. Maintaining the certification requires continuing education and periodic recertification, ensuring that CFRN-certified nurses stay current with the latest best practices and medical advancements in flight nursing.
For more information about the CFRN certification and to access official resources, visit the BCEN website. For details on exam preparation, application, and recertification, refer to the BCEN's CFRN exam page.
Additional Links

Free BCEN CFRN Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Principles of Flight Transport Nursing PracticeResuscitation PrinciplesTraumaMedical EmergenciesSpecial Populations
You are the flight nurse responding to a 30-year-old male who was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the patient conscious but in severe pain, with deformity and instability noted to the pelvis. What should be your immediate priority in managing this patient's pelvic injury?
Immobilize the patient on a spinal board
Provide manual traction to the lower extremities
Apply a pelvic binder to stabilize the pelvis
Initiate IV fluids to manage shock
Answer Description
The immediate priority in managing a patient with suspected pelvic fracture is to stabilize the pelvis to reduce further bleeding and prevent additional injury. A pelvic binder should be applied as soon as possible to provide this stabilization. Manual traction is not applicable in this scenario, as it is typically used for long bone fractures, and while IV fluids and immobilization are important, they are secondary to the immediate stabilization of the pelvis.
Ask Bash
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Why is a pelvic binder the priority in stabilizing a pelvic fracture?
How do you correctly apply a pelvic binder?
What are the risks of not stabilizing a pelvic fracture promptly?
A 45-year-old male patient is being transported by helicopter from a rural hospital to a metropolitan trauma center following a traumatic injury. During the flight, the patient starts experiencing acute dyspnea. Which of the following is the MOST likely physiologic cause of this symptom during air transport?
Hypoxia
Engine noise
Pneumothorax
Vibration-induced fatigue
Answer Description
Hypoxia is the most likely cause of acute dyspnea in helicopter transportation due to altitude changes. The decreased partial pressure of oxygen at higher altitudes reduces the amount of oxygen available for the patient to breathe. Pneumothorax and air embolism are potential complications but are less likely causes in this specific scenario. Additionally, engine noise or vibrations do not typically cause dyspnea.
Ask Bash
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Why does altitude affect oxygen levels during air transport?
What are the early signs of hypoxia in a patient during air transport?
How can hypoxia be managed during air transport?
While preparing a 45-year-old female patient with multiple rib fractures for transport, she complains of severe pain impacting her breathing. What is the most appropriate intervention to manage her pain and ensure comfort during transport?
Administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed
Administer local anesthesia to the affected area
Monitor vital signs continually without administering additional analgesia
Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing exercises
Answer Description
Managing pain in a patient with rib fractures is crucial to improving their breathing and preventing complications such as pneumonia. Administering adequate pain relief, such as an opioid analgesic, can greatly enhance comfort and respiratory function. Encouraging deep breathing exercises alone is not sufficient in the presence of severe pain, and local anesthesia may not be the most appropriate primary intervention. Monitoring vital signs continually helps detect potential complications, but it is not a primary pain management strategy.
Ask Bash
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Why are opioids preferred for pain management in rib fracture patients?
What risks are associated with rib fractures and inadequate pain control?
Why is local anesthesia less effective as the primary intervention for rib fracture pain?
A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is presenting with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. On physical examination, you note paradoxical movement of a portion of his chest wall during respiration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hemothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Flail chest
Pneumothorax
Answer Description
The most likely diagnosis is a flail chest, indicated by the paradoxical movement of the chest wall segment. This injury results when multiple adjacent ribs are fractured in at least two places, creating a free-floating segment that moves inward on inspiration and outward on expiration. Pneumothorax, tension pneumothorax and hemothorax can also produce dyspnea and chest pain but do not cause a discrete paradoxically moving chest wall segment.
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Why does flail chest cause paradoxical movement of the chest wall?
How is flail chest differentiated from a pneumothorax or hemothorax on physical examination?
What are the treatment priorities for a patient with flail chest?
A 34-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorcycle crash. He is hemodynamically unstable, and x-rays confirm an open book pelvic fracture. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?
Apply a pelvic binder
Initiate IV fluids and administer blood products
Perform an external fixation
Immediate surgical repair
Answer Description
The correct answer is to apply a pelvic binder. Open book pelvic fractures can lead to significant blood loss and instability. A pelvic binder helps stabilize the pelvis, reduce bleeding, and improve hemodynamic status. Administering IV fluids and blood products is also critical but should follow initial stabilization. Performing an external fixation is usually a later step after initial stabilization in the operating room or interventional radiology suite. Immediate surgical repair is not the priority in the initial management phase.
Ask Bash
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Why is a pelvic binder the initial management step for an open book pelvic fracture?
What are the signs and symptoms of an open book pelvic fracture?
How does an open book pelvic fracture cause hemodynamic instability?
What is the primary purpose of using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) communication tool during patient handoff in flight transport?
To track patient vital signs continuously
To facilitate navigation during flight
To manage the aircraft's maintenance schedule
To provide a structured method of communication
Answer Description
The purpose of using the SBAR tool in patient handoff is to provide a structured method of communication. SBAR helps ensure all important information is conveyed clearly and systematically, thus reducing the risk of miscommunication and errors during transitions of care.
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What does each element of SBAR stand for and include?
Why is SBAR particularly important in flight or high-pressure settings?
How does SBAR reduce errors during patient handoff?
You are transporting a patient with suspected electrical burns from a construction site. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in assessing this patient?
Estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) of burns
Perform an electrocardiogram (ECG)
Measure oxygen saturation
Check for circumferential burns
Answer Description
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for patients with electrical burns as the electrical current can cause cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation and acute myocardial infarction. Assessing the cardiac system promptly helps in early identification and treatment of any life-threatening arrhythmias. Measuring oxygen saturation is also important but is not specific to the unique complications electrical burns present. Similarly, estimating body surface area involvement and checking for circumferential burns are significant assessments but not the immediate first step.
Ask Bash
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Why are electrical burns particularly dangerous for the heart?
What are the signs of cardiac arrhythmias in a patient with electrical burns?
Why is an ECG prioritized over other assessments in electrical burn patients?
A 65-year-old male patient with septic shock is being prepared for air medical transport. His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and he exhibits signs of poor perfusion. Which initial intervention is MOST appropriate to improve his oxygen delivery?
Administering intravenous fluids
Starting a continuous infusion of vasopressors
Transfusing packed red blood cells
Administering oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Answer Description
The correct initial intervention for a patient in septic shock with poor perfusion is fluid resuscitation. This helps to restore intravascular volume, increasing cardiac output and ultimately improving tissue perfusion. Blood products are typically reserved for patients with significant blood loss or anemia, while vasopressors are often used after ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation.
Ask Bash
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Why is fluid resuscitation the first step in treating septic shock?
When are vasopressors used in septic shock treatment?
Why aren't packed red blood cells initially used in septic shock treatment?
You are transporting a patient who has sustained a chemical burn to their face and arms from a strong alkaline substance. What is the initial step you should take in managing this type of burn?
Monitor for signs of systemic toxicity without initial decontamination.
Apply a neutralizing agent to the burned area.
Irrigate the affected area with copious amounts of water.
Cover the burns with dry, sterile dressings.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to irrigate the affected area with copious amounts of water. This helps to dilute and remove the chemical agent, reducing tissue damage. Neutralizing agents should generally be avoided as they can often cause additional reactions or burns. Covering the burns with dressings should occur after thorough decontamination to avoid trapping the chemical on the skin. Monitoring for signs of systemic toxicity is essential, but the immediate priority is decontaminating the area.
Ask Bash
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Why is water the preferred initial treatment for chemical burns?
What are the risks of using neutralizing agents for chemical burns?
What makes chemical burns from alkaline substances more severe than acidic burns?
A 35-year-old male patient exposed to a significant amount of ionizing radiation presents with erythema, pain, and blistering on the skin. Which of the following immediate interventions should be prioritized?
Provide high-flow oxygen to manage potential respiratory distress.
Initiate IV fluid resuscitation to manage potential shock.
Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent infection.
Remove contaminated clothing and irrigate the affected area with copious amounts of water.
Answer Description
The correct answer is essential as it involves immediate decontamination to remove any residual radiation particles, minimizing further exposure and injury to both the patient and healthcare providers. Other options, while important, do not address the primary and immediate need to stop further radiation exposure.
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Why is removing contaminated clothing important in radiation exposure?
What is ionizing radiation, and how does it cause skin damage?
Why isn’t initiating IV fluids or administering antibiotics the priority in this scenario?
Which of the following signs is most characteristic of an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed?
Abdominal pain
Melena
Coffee ground emesis
Hematochezia
Answer Description
Melena, or black, tarry stools, is most characteristic of an upper GI bleed as it indicates the digestion of blood in the gastrointestinal tract. Bright red blood in the stool or hematochezia typically indicates a lower GI bleed. Coffee ground emesis suggests the presence of digested blood, usually from an upper GI source, but is less common than melena. Abdominal pain can be associated with multiple causes and is not specific to GI bleeds.
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Why does melena indicate an upper GI bleed?
What are the key differences between melena and hematochezia?
When would coffee ground emesis occur instead of melena?
A 45-year-old male patient is being prepared for transport after a severe motor vehicle accident. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 135 bpm, and he is showing signs of jugular venous distension and muffled heart sounds. What is the most appropriate intervention to address his condition most effectively?
Administer vasopressors
Pericardiocentesis
Start blood product transfusion
Administer intravenous fluids
Answer Description
The patient is likely experiencing obstructive shock due to cardiac tamponade, which is indicated by his hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds. Pericardiocentesis is the most appropriate intervention to relieve the pressure around the heart and restore cardiovascular stability. Administering intravenous fluids and blood products can support blood pressure but will not directly address the cause. Vasopressors may temporarily increase blood pressure but still do not remove the underlying obstruction.
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What is cardiac tamponade, and why does it cause obstructive shock?
How is pericardiocentesis performed, and why is it crucial in cardiac tamponade?
Why are intravenous fluids, blood products, or vasopressors not sufficient in treating cardiac tamponade?
A 35-year-old male patient was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and was ejected from the vehicle. He presents to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypotension, and multiple visible injuries. What is the most likely type of injury pattern you would expect due to the described mechanism of injury?
Distal extremity fracture
Musculoskeletal injuries with potential internal bleeding
Superficial abrasions and contusions
Polytrauma involving multiple organ systems
Answer Description
In high-speed motor vehicle collisions, especially when ejection from the vehicle occurs, the patient is at a high risk for multiple severe injuries including traumatic brain injuries, internal bleeding, spinal injuries, and long bone fractures. The kinetic energy transfer from ejection usually leads to injuries in multiple organ systems.
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Why does ejection from a vehicle increase the risk of polytrauma?
What is the role of kinetic energy in injury mechanisms during high-speed collisions?
Which organ systems are most commonly injured in high-speed ejection cases?
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle crash in which witnesses report a severe hyper-extension of his neck. He is alert and hemodynamically stable. Neurologic examination reveals 0/5 strength in both upper extremities and 4/5 strength in both lower extremities. Pin-prick and temperature sensation are diminished in the hands, while proprioception is preserved. Reflexes are brisk in all four limbs. Which incomplete spinal cord syndrome best explains this presentation?
Central cord syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Anterior cord syndrome
Answer Description
The combination of markedly greater motor weakness in the upper than in the lower extremities, sensory loss predominantly affecting pain and temperature, preserved proprioception, and a hyper-extension cervical mechanism is classic for central cord syndrome. Central cord injuries involve the central corticospinal tracts that contain fibers for the arms situated more medially, producing the characteristic arm-dominant motor deficit. Anterior cord syndrome causes bilateral motor and pain/temperature loss below the lesion with preserved dorsal-column sensation; Brown-Sequard syndrome produces ipsilateral motor loss with contralateral pain/temperature loss; cauda equina syndrome involves lower-motor-neuron leg weakness and saddle anesthesia.
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What is central cord syndrome, and why does it primarily affect upper extremities?
How is central cord syndrome different from anterior cord syndrome?
What clinical features differentiate Brown-Sequard syndrome from central cord syndrome?
During an aerial transport, the helicopter experiences a sudden engine failure, forcing an emergency landing in a remote area. After the landing, what is the first priority for the flight nurse?
Check for injuries among the crew and patient
Contact emergency services for help
Assess the available survival supplies
Activate the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Answer Description
The first priority after an emergency landing is to ensure the immediate safety and health of the crew and patient by checking for injuries and providing necessary medical care. While contacting emergency services, using location devices, and assessing supplies are essential, they come after securing the immediate safety of everyone on board. Checking for injuries allows the nurse to determine if anyone needs immediate medical intervention, which is critical in the first moments post-crash.
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What is an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
Why is checking for injuries the first priority after an emergency landing?
What steps should be taken after confirming that no one is injured in an aircraft emergency landing?
A 35-year-old male sustains second and third-degree burns over 25% of his body surface area after an industrial accident involving a high-temp furnace. Initial on-scene management should include:
Applying ice directly to the burns to reduce pain and swelling.
Applying topical antibiotics immediately to prevent infection.
Immersing the burned areas in cold water for extended periods to prevent further damage.
Cooling the burns with tepid water for 10-20 minutes, covering them with a clean, dry cloth, and managing pain.
Answer Description
Initial management of thermal burns includes stopping the burning process, cooling the burns with tepid water, covering the burns with a clean, dry cloth, and managing pain. Applying cold water excessively can lead to hypothermia, which should be avoided.
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Why is tepid water recommended for cooling burns instead of cold or ice water?
What is the difference between second-degree and third-degree burns?
Why should topical antibiotics not be applied immediately after a burn injury?
When selecting a landing zone (LZ) for a helicopter during a night-time emergency medical evacuation, which critical factor must be ensured to maintain safety?
The landing zone is made of concrete or asphalt to ensure stable ground.
The landing zone is well-lit with ground lights and flares.
The landing zone is close to the patient’s location to minimize transport time.
The landing zone is clear of obstacles such as trees, wires, and poles.
Answer Description
Ensuring the landing zone (LZ) is clear of obstacles like trees, wires, and poles is crucial for pilot visibility and helicopter safety. Obstacles can cause collisions, especially at night when visibility is reduced. While the LZ should also be well-lit and easily accessible, the presence of obstacles poses the most immediate danger to safe landing and takeoff operations.
Ask Bash
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Why is it more dangerous for helicopters to land at night?
How can ground personnel help ensure a safe landing zone for the helicopter?
What are the steps to prepare a landing zone for a helicopter during an emergency?
You are dispatched to transport a patient who was pulled from a pool after being submerged for several minutes. The patient is unconscious, has a weak pulse, and is breathing spontaneously, but with noticeable difficulty. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for managing this patient during transport?
Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for potential intubation.
Initiate IV fluid therapy to manage hypotension.
Conduct a thorough spinal assessment before proceeding with further treatment.
Place the patient in a left lateral position to prevent aspiration.
Answer Description
In submersion injuries, maintaining an open airway and ensuring adequate oxygenation is crucial. Administering high-flow oxygen helps mitigate hypoxia, a common complication. Given the patient's unconscious state and breathing difficulty, continually monitoring oxygen saturation and being prepared to intubate if conditions worsen is essential. IV fluids might be useful in specific cases, but they are not the immediate priority if the airway and oxygenation are compromised. Checking for spinal injuries is important, but not the first step in this scenario.
Ask Bash
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Why is hypoxia such a critical concern in submersion injuries?
When is intubation necessary in submersion injury cases?
Why is spinal assessment not the first step in this scenario?
Upon arrival at a scene involving a potential hazardous materials (hazmat) situation, what initial action should a flight transport nurse take to ensure safety?
Administer life-saving interventions within the hot zone.
Await the arrival of a hazmat team before taking action.
Initiate decontamination procedures for patients.
Establish a safe perimeter and identify safe entry points.
Answer Description
Ensuring scene safety by establishing a safe perimeter and identifying safe entry points is crucial to prevent additional exposure to hazardous substances. Direct patient care cannot be safely performed until the nurse verifies the area is secure and appropriate PPE is available. Initiating decontamination procedures or administering life-saving interventions within the hot zone before ensuring it's safe poses risks to both the nurse and the patients. Waiting for a hazmat team without taking any preparatory actions might delay critical safety measures.
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What is a 'hot zone' in a hazmat situation?
What type of PPE is required for hazmat situations, and how is it determined?
Why is establishing a safe perimeter a critical first step in hazmat incidents?
A 78-year-old male patient with a history of congestive heart failure is experiencing increased shortness of breath and bilateral pitting edema during an interfacility transport. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to improve his symptoms?
Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position
Administer furosemide
Administer normal saline
Start oxygen therapy
Answer Description
Administering furosemide helps reduce fluid overload in patients with congestive heart failure by promoting diuresis. While oxygen therapy can help with respiratory distress, it does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Administering normal saline can exacerbate fluid overload, and placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position is not recommended as it can worsen respiratory symptoms and fluid congestion.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is furosemide effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) symptoms?
Why is oxygen therapy not the primary intervention in this case?
Why is the Trendelenburg position inappropriate for a CHF patient?
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