BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) Exam
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) certification, offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN), is a credential for registered nurses (RNs) specializing in emergency care. It validates expertise in handling critical and urgent medical situations in emergency departments, trauma centers, and other acute care settings.
Exam Overview
The CEN exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, of which 150 are scored, and 25 are unscored pretest questions. Candidates have three hours to complete the test. The exam fee is $370 for non-members and $230 for Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) members. It is administered through computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centers and can also be taken via live remote proctoring.
Exam Content
The CEN exam assesses knowledge across various emergency nursing topics. These include cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, obstetrical, and psychiatric emergencies. It also covers trauma, toxicological emergencies, environmental and communicable diseases, and disaster preparedness. Candidates are tested on professional issues, including ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and evidence-based practice.
Who Should Take This Exam?
This certification is ideal for RNs working in emergency care settings who want to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field. While there are no formal prerequisites, BCEN recommends at least two years of emergency nursing experience before taking the exam. The CEN credential is recognized by hospitals and healthcare organizations as a mark of advanced competency in emergency nursing.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the CEN Exam Handbook provided by BCEN and study the CEN Candidate Handbook for a detailed breakdown of topics. Many nurses use practice exams to assess their knowledge and identify weak areas. BCEN offers online review courses, and various nursing organizations provide study guides and exam prep courses. Hands-on experience in emergency settings is also crucial for success.
Summary
The BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam is a widely recognized credential for emergency nurses seeking to validate their skills and knowledge. It is an important certification for RNs looking to advance their careers in emergency care and demonstrate their expertise in handling critical medical situations.
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Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Cardiovascular EmergenciesRespiratory EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesGastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and ObstetricalMental Health EmergenciesMedical EmergenciesMusculoskeletal and Wound EmergenciesMaxillofacial and Ocular EmergenciesEnvironment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable DiseasesProfessional Issues
A patient presents to the emergency department with a skin infection that is not responding to standard antibiotic treatment. Which of the following is the BEST initial precaution to implement while awaiting culture results?
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Standard precautions only
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Droplet precautions
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Airborne precautions
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Contact precautions
Answer Description
Contact precautions are the most appropriate initial measure for suspected multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs) like MRSA or VRE. This involves wearing gloves and gowns when entering the patient's room and during patient care activities. While standard precautions are always necessary, they are not sufficient for suspected MDROs. Droplet precautions are typically used for respiratory infections, and airborne precautions are for pathogens that can remain suspended in the air, which is not the case for most MDROs causing skin infections. Implementing contact precautions helps prevent the spread of these resistant organisms to other patients and healthcare workers through direct contact or contact with contaminated surfaces.
Ask Bash
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What are multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs)?
What are contact precautions?
How do standard precautions differ from contact precautions?
A 28-year-old patient presenting with hallucinations and delusional thinking is suspected of having schizophrenia. The patient's vital signs include a high fever, increased heart rate, and muscle rigidity. What is the BEST initial course of action?
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Adjust the dosage of the current antipsychotic medications
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Start the patient on a new antipsychotic medication regimen
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Discontinue any potential offending antipsychotic agent and provide supportive treatment for NMS
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Initiate hydrotherapy for symptom relief
Answer Description
The presence of hallucinations and delusional thinking, along with symptoms like high fever, elevated heart rate, and muscle rigidity, suggest a potential diagnosis of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), especially if the patient has been on antipsychotic medication. Immediate discontinuation of any potential offending antipsychotic agent and symptomatic treatment is critical. While starting a new medication regimen might be necessary eventually, addressing possible NMS requires urgent medical attention to prevent further complications, such as renal failure or severe neurological damage. Although Hydrotherapy and adjustment of current antipsychotic medications are relevant considerations, they do not address the immediate life-threatening situation of NMS.
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What are the symptoms of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
Why is discontinuing the antipsychotic medication essential in this case?
What are some supportive treatments for NMS?
A 45-year-old female is brought to the ED following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She presents with severe facial swelling, malocclusion, and respiratory distress. On examination, you note raccoon eyes, clear fluid dripping from the nose, lengthening of the midface, and mobility of the entire maxilla and zygomatic complex when grasped. What is your primary concern, and what immediate action should be taken?
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Airway compromise requiring immediate intubation
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Controlling hemorrhage from facial lacerations
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Ordering an immediate CT scan for surgical planning
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Immediate neurosurgical consult for potential brain injury
Answer Description
The correct answer is airway compromise requiring immediate intubation. The patient's presentation strongly suggests a Le Fort III fracture, which involves complete separation of the facial bones from the cranial base. This severe maxillofacial trauma can lead to rapid airway obstruction due to bleeding, edema, and mechanical displacement of structures.
While CT imaging is crucial for definitive diagnosis and surgical planning, it is not the primary concern in this scenario. The patient's respiratory distress indicates an impending airway emergency that requires immediate intervention.
Although controlling hemorrhage is important in maxillofacial trauma, the description doesn't indicate active severe bleeding that would take precedence over airway management.
While clear fluid dripping from the nose suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak due to a dural tear, addressing this is not the most urgent concern when faced with potential airway compromise. Management of such leaks typically occurs after airway stabilization and complete trauma evaluation.
Ask Bash
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What is a Le Fort III fracture?
Why is airway compromise critical in facial trauma cases?
What role does a CT scan play in managing facial trauma?
Which domestic installation is commonly responsible for unintentional carbon monoxide exposure?
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Portable room heaters
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Barbecues
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Heating systems
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Refrigerators
Answer Description
Heating systems, including furnaces, boilers, and water heaters, are common sources of carbon monoxide in homes. Inadequate ventilation or malfunction of these heating systems can lead to carbon monoxide build-up, which is odorless and colorless, making it a silent killer. Vehicles left running in enclosed spaces are also a significant source, but domestic heating systems are generally considered the primary culprits in accidental exposures in the home environment. Barbecues and portable heaters are typically used intermittently and are less likely to cause unintentional chronic exposures when used with proper precautions.
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Why are heating systems major sources of carbon monoxide (CO) exposure?
How can one prevent carbon monoxide exposure from heating systems?
What symptoms indicate possible carbon monoxide poisoning?
A patient presenting with pulmonary edema due to a rapid ascent to high altitude will have an improvement in symptoms with immediate administration of a beta-agonist bronchodilator.
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Incorrect
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Correct
Answer Description
High altitude can lead to noncardiac pulmonary edema, known as High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE). The primary treatment for HAPE is descent to a lower altitude and supplemental oxygen. A beta-agonist bronchodilator is a treatment for conditions such as asthma or COPD, but it is not the primary intervention for HAPE.
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What are the main symptoms of High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)?
What is the role of a beta-agonist bronchodilator in respiratory conditions?
Why is descent to a lower altitude considered a primary treatment for HAPE?
What is a characteristic symptom of a patient presenting with diverticulitis?
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Severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain
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Lower left quadrant abdominal pain
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Generalized abdominal swelling
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High fever with no abdominal pain
Answer Description
Lower left quadrant abdominal pain is a typical symptom of diverticulitis, reflecting the common location of the inflamed diverticula in the sigmoid colon. In contrast, symptoms like severe right lower quadrant pain or generalized abdominal swelling are more indicative of conditions such as appendicitis or ascites respectively.
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What are diverticula?
What other symptoms might indicate diverticulitis?
How is diverticulitis diagnosed?
What immediate nursing intervention is most appropriate for a suspected anterior shoulder dislocation before radiographic confirmation?
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Performing a closed reduction attempt
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Immediate immobilization of the joint
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Applying longitudinal traction to the affected arm
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Administering oral analgesia
Answer Description
For suspected dislocations, immobilization is the priority to prevent further injury to the joint and surrounding structures. While analgesia is important, it is secondary to immobilization. Closed reduction is typically performed by a physician once the dislocation is confirmed by radiography and should not be attempted by nursing personnel prior to confirmation. Similarly, applying traction is part of the reduction process and should not be done without confirmation and medical direction.
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Why is immediate immobilization so important for a suspected dislocation?
What are the signs and symptoms of an anterior shoulder dislocation?
What are radiographic confirmation processes for dislocations?
Which of the following is the primary cause of osteomyelitis?
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Bone fracture
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Bacterial infection
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Autoimmune response
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Vitamin D deficiency
Answer Description
The correct answer is bacterial infection. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacterial infection of the bone. While trauma, surgery, or underlying medical conditions can increase the risk of developing osteomyelitis, they are not the primary cause. Bacteria, most commonly Staphylococcus aureus, enter the bone through various routes such as the bloodstream, direct inoculation, or spread from nearby soft tissue infections. Understanding the primary cause is crucial for emergency nurses to recognize risk factors, initiate appropriate diagnostic measures, and begin timely treatment to prevent complications.
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What are the common bacteria associated with osteomyelitis?
How does osteomyelitis develop after a bone fracture?
What are the symptoms of osteomyelitis?
Which of the following descriptions accurately characterizes a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
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A loss of consciousness and postural tone arising from inadequate blood supply to the brain
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A temporary dysfunction of neurological processes without permanent cerebral damage, caused by focal ischemia
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A neurological condition marked by dizziness and disorientation, typically resultant from inner ear anomalies
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An episode of persistent neurological damage resulting from systemic hypoperfusion
Answer Description
The correct characterization of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is an episode of temporary neurological dysfunction resulting from focal ischemia, without leading to permanent infarction. TIA serves as a critical warning indicator for possible stroke, hence recognizing its traits helps in mitigating future severe outcomes. The description of a TIA specifically excludes permanent damage, which is a defining element of a stroke. Episodes of syncope involve temporary losses of consciousness caused frequently by vascular instability, not necessarily ischemic events, and vertigo is typically related to balance disturbances rather than ischemic neurological impairment.
Ask Bash
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What is focal ischemia and how does it relate to a TIA?
What are the risk factors associated with TIAs?
How can TIAs serve as a warning for strokes?
A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of eye pain, tearing, and light sensitivity after getting dirt in their eye while gardening. Upon examination, you notice a small scratch on the surface of the cornea. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
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Patch the affected eye
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Administer topical anesthetic drops
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Irrigate the eye with normal saline
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Apply antibiotic ointment
Answer Description
Administering topical anesthetic drops is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected corneal abrasion. This helps alleviate pain and allows for a more thorough examination of the eye. However, it's important to note that these drops are for diagnostic purposes only and should not be prescribed for home use due to the risk of delayed healing and potential corneal damage.
Irrigation is not the first step, as it may cause further irritation to an already damaged cornea. While antibiotic ointment may eventually be prescribed, it's not the initial intervention. Patching the eye is generally not recommended for corneal abrasions, as it can increase the risk of infection and delay healing.
Ask Bash
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What are corneal abrasions?
Why is administering topical anesthetic drops the initial intervention?
What are the risks of eye patching after a corneal abrasion?
Which of the following is the earliest clinical sign of compartment syndrome?
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Visible swelling of the affected limb
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Decreased range of motion
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Pain out of proportion to the injury
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Absent distal pulses
Answer Description
Pain out of proportion to the injury is the earliest and most reliable clinical sign of compartment syndrome. This severe pain often occurs before the development of other classic signs like paresthesia, pallor, or pulselessness. It's crucial for emergency nurses to recognize this early indicator, as compartment syndrome can lead to permanent tissue damage if not addressed promptly. While swelling and decreased range of motion are common in many injuries, they are not specific to compartment syndrome. Absent pulses are a late sign and indicate severe progression of the condition.
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What exactly is compartment syndrome?
How do healthcare professionals assess for pain out of proportion to the injury?
What are the other signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?
What is a defining characteristic of neurogenic shock?
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Hypotension with tachycardia
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Hypertension with bradycardia
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Hypotension with bradycardia
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Hyperthermia with tachycardia
Answer Description
Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension with bradycardia. It occurs due to the loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic output after a spinal cord injury, leading to vasodilation and thus decreased cardiac output. Unlike other types of shock, the presence of bradycardia is distinctive because typically, shock presents with tachycardia where the body tries to compensate for low blood pressure by increasing the heart rate. Therefore, the presence of bradycardia in the setting of hypotension is a key indicator of neurogenic shock.
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What causes hypotension and bradycardia in neurogenic shock?
How is neurogenic shock different from other types of shock?
What are the treatment options for neurogenic shock?
A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe, diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His abdomen is rigid and board-like on palpation. Which of the following is the BEST next step in management?
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Start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
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Administer IV opioids for pain management
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Obtain immediate surgical consultation
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Order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Answer Description
The correct answer is to obtain immediate surgical consultation. The patient's presentation of sudden severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a rigid, board-like abdomen are classic signs of peritonitis, which is often caused by a perforated viscus. This is a surgical emergency that requires immediate evaluation by a surgeon for potential life-saving intervention.
While pain management and IV fluids are important supportive measures, they should not delay definitive treatment. CT scan can be helpful in diagnosis, but in this case, the clinical presentation strongly suggests peritonitis, and waiting for imaging could potentially delay necessary surgical intervention. Administering antibiotics is also important, but should not precede surgical consultation in this acute situation.
Remember, in cases of suspected peritonitis or perforated viscus, time is of the essence, and early surgical involvement is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.
Ask Bash
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What are the classic signs of peritonitis?
Why is immediate surgical consultation important in this scenario?
What are the recommended next steps after obtaining a surgical consultation for suspected peritonitis?
A patient with chronic renal failure presents to the emergency department with symptoms of marked fatigue, confusion, and shortness of breath. The patient's current medications include calcium acetate, erythropoietin, and furosemide. Laboratory reports reveal hyperkalemia. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
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Give a bolus of intravenous fluids
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Start insulin and dextrose infusion
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Oral administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate
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Administer calcium gluconate
Answer Description
The appropriate initial management for this patient, who shows signs of hyperkalemia, is administration of calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane against the effects of elevated serum potassium levels, which is essential to prevent further cardiac complications until more definitive hyperkalemia treatments can take effect. Insulin and dextrose, while used to treat hyperkalemia by driving potassium back into cells, are not the immediate treatment for cardiac protection. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate aids in the removal of excess potassium but acts slower and is not indicated for urgent symptom management.
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What is hyperkalemia, and what causes it?
What is the role of calcium gluconate in treating hyperkalemia?
What are the other treatments for hyperkalemia?
A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with increasing pain, redness, and swelling around a laceration on his leg that he sustained from a gardening tool five days ago. The wound area is warm to touch and he reports a fever at home. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Cellulitis
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Wound infection
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Chronic osteomyelitis
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Healing by secondary intention
Answer Description
The presentation of increasing pain, warmth, redness, and swelling around the wound site, combined with the patient's fever, are classic signs of a wound infection. These symptoms indicate that the body is responding to an infection likely caused by bacteria entering through the wound. The worsening of symptoms despite the passage of time since the injury further supports the diagnosis of an infection, not merely an inflammatory response to the injury itself.
Ask Bash
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What are the common signs and symptoms of a wound infection?
What bacteria commonly cause wound infections?
How is a wound infection treated?
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