BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
Working in the dynamic, challenging and rewarding ED environment, certified nurses are prepared to assess, triage, stabilize, and help manage and care for every patient who walks through the door.
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) is the foundational nursing specialty certification for RNs working in the ED and across the emergency spectrum. Nurses with a CEN are lifelong learners who demonstrate expertise in clinical practice and are better prepared for professional development and overall career success.
Be recognized, respected, and sought after. Be a Certified Emergency Nurse.
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Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Objectives:Cardiovascular EmergenciesRespiratory EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesGastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and ObstetricalMental Health EmergenciesMedical EmergenciesMusculoskeletal and Wound EmergenciesMaxillofacial and Ocular EmergenciesEnvironment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable DiseasesProfessional Issues
An emergency nurse is discussing professional development opportunities with a colleague. Which of the following activities best exemplifies a commitment to lifelong learning in their field?
Attending a national emergency care conference
Participating in general local community health workshops
Reading current medical journals unrelated to emergency nursing
Discussing challenging cases informally with peers during breaks
Answer Description
Attending a national emergency care conference focuses on updating and expanding one’s knowledge and skills through exposure to new research, techniques, and practices. This activity supports the commitment to lifelong learning by providing education from diverse experts in the profession. Taking part in local community workshops or reading current nursing journals, while educational, may not offer the same breadth or depth of focused learning applicable to emergency nursing. While discussing cases with peers can provide learning experiences, it is not as formal or comprehensive as attending a specialized conference.
Ask Bash
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What are the benefits of attending a national emergency care conference?
How can I find national emergency care conferences to attend?
What types of topics are typically covered at emergency care conferences?
During cardiopulmonary arrest, is absence of a palpable pulse a reliable indicator for initiating CPR?
False
True
Answer Description
The absence of a palpable pulse is considered a reliable indicator to initiate CPR. This is because during cardiopulmonary arrest, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to an absence of a detectable pulse. Initiating CPR promptly can help in artificially circulating blood to vital organs until normal heart function is restored.
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What is cardiopulmonary arrest?
What are the steps involved in CPR?
Why is timely initiation of CPR critical?
A patient presents to the emergency department with severe watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. They report recent antibiotic use for a dental procedure. What is the most appropriate initial infection control measure for this patient?
Use standard precautions only
Implement contact precautions
Begin airborne precautions with N95 masks
Initiate droplet precautions
Answer Description
Contact precautions are the most appropriate initial infection control measure for a patient suspected of having C. difficile infection. C. difficile spores can survive on surfaces for extended periods and are resistant to many common disinfectants. Contact precautions include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the patient's room and using dedicated or disposable equipment. This helps prevent the spread of C. difficile to other patients and healthcare workers.
Standard precautions, while always important, are not sufficient for C. difficile. Droplet precautions are used for respiratory infections, which is not the primary concern here. Airborne precautions with N95 masks are used for diseases like tuberculosis, not C. difficile.
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What exactly are C. difficile infections, and why are they a concern in healthcare settings?
Why are contact precautions specifically recommended for C. difficile infections?
What are the differences between standard, droplet, and airborne precautions?
A patient suspected of having Tuberculosis is in the emergency department. Which isolation precaution is most appropriate to prevent the spread of the disease?
Standard Precautions
Droplet Precautions
Contact Precautions
Airborne Precautions
Answer Description
Tuberculosis is an airborne infectious disease. Patients suspected or confirmed to have TB should be placed in airborne isolation precautions, which include placing the patient in a negative pressure room and using respiratory protective equipment such as N95 respirators. Contact precautions involve the use of gloves and gowns and are more appropriate for diseases spread by direct contact. Droplet precautions are not sufficient for TB as the infectious agent can remain suspended in the air and may transmit over greater distances than droplets. Reverse isolation is used to protect immunocompromised patients from getting an infection, not to prevent the spread of disease from an infected patient.
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What are Airborne Precautions?
Why are Droplet Precautions not effective for tuberculosis?
What is a negative pressure room?
A nurse is reviewing treatment guidelines for managing acute asthma exacerbations in the emergency department. To incorporate evidence-based practice in her care, what should the nurse prioritize when selecting interventions?
Adapting interventions based solely on patient’s preferences
Following traditional practices used in the department
Utilizing peer-reviewed research findings and clinical guidelines
Relying on advice from colleagues
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Utilizing peer-reviewed research findings and clinical guidelines'. Evidence-based practice requires nurses to use the best available, current, and peer-reviewed research data when making practice decisions. This ensures that clinical guidelines adhered to are based on the strongest evidence, leading to improved patient care. Choices such as 'Following traditional practices used in the department' do not guarantee the application of the most effective, researched data. 'Relying on advice from colleagues' lacks systematic evaluation and may not always be based on the most current or rigorous evidence.
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What are peer-reviewed research findings?
What are clinical guidelines?
What is evidence-based practice in nursing?
A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. He is conscious and complaining of severe neck pain. On examination, you note weakness in both upper extremities with intact sensation. What would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Administer a neuromuscular blocker for immediate management
Give intravenous analgesics without immobilization
Begin a CT scan to evaluate for bleeding
Apply a cervical collar and secure the patient to a backboard
Answer Description
The appropriate initial management for this patient involves immobilizing the cervical spine. This step is critical in preventing further injury, especially if there is a potential spinal cord injury indicated by the weakness. Other options, like providing analgesia first or immediately initiating a CT scan, fail to address the risk of exacerbating a potential spinal injury that could lead to permanent loss of function.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to immobilize the cervical spine in trauma patients?
What are the potential consequences of not immobilizing a patient with neck pain after trauma?
What are some signs that suggest a spinal cord injury in trauma patients?
A 45-year-old firefighter presents to the ED with altered mental status, severe lactic acidosis, and a bright red venous blood sample after battling a structure fire. After initiating treatment with hydroxocobalamin, which of the following would be the BEST next step in management?
Administer sodium thiosulfate
Initiate hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Give methylene blue
Begin hemodialysis
Answer Description
While all options presented could be considered in cyanide poisoning management, hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the BEST next step after hydroxocobalamin administration. Here's why:
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can help overcome cyanide-induced cellular hypoxia by increasing dissolved oxygen in the plasma, bypassing the blocked mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase.
It aids in displacing cyanide from cytochrome oxidase, facilitating its elimination.
It can be particularly beneficial for smoke inhalation victims who may have concurrent carbon monoxide poisoning.
Sodium thiosulfate, while useful, is typically given after hydroxocobalamin and wouldn't be the immediate next step. Hemodialysis isn't typically necessary unless there's severe acidosis or renal failure. Methylene blue is not indicated for cyanide poisoning; it's used for methemoglobinemia.
This question tests the candidate's ability to prioritize treatments and understand the synergistic effects of different therapies in complex toxicological emergencies.
Ask Bash
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What is hydroxocobalamin and how does it work in cyanide poisoning?
What is hyperbaric oxygen therapy and why is it used after hydroxocobalamin?
Why are sodium thiosulfate and hemodialysis not considered the best next steps?
A 62-year-old patient with a history of open-angle glaucoma presents to the ED with severe eye pain after accidentally instilling his wife's eye drops. He reports using timolol and latanoprost for his glaucoma. On examination, his intraocular pressure is 42 mmHg. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for this acute elevation in intraocular pressure?
Timolol
Brimonidine
Cyclopentolate
Pilocarpine
Answer Description
The correct answer is pilocarpine. This scenario describes a paradoxical increase in intraocular pressure, likely due to the accidental use of pilocarpine eye drops. In patients with open-angle glaucoma who are on long-term prostaglandin analogs (like latanoprost), the sudden use of pilocarpine can cause a paradoxical increase in intraocular pressure. This is due to the anterior movement of the lens-iris diaphragm, which can temporarily block the trabecular meshwork.
Timolol and latanoprost are the patient's regular medications and typically lower intraocular pressure. Brimonidine, an alpha-2 agonist, also lowers intraocular pressure and would not cause this effect. Cyclopentolate, a cycloplegic agent, can potentially increase intraocular pressure in patients predisposed to angle-closure glaucoma, but it's less likely to cause such a dramatic increase in a patient with open-angle glaucoma.
This question highlights the importance of understanding drug interactions and paradoxical effects in glaucoma management. Emergency nurses should be aware that seemingly appropriate glaucoma medications can sometimes have unexpected effects, especially when patient medication regimens are altered or mixed up.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is pilocarpine and how does it work in treating glaucoma?
What are the main differences between timolol and latanoprost in managing glaucoma?
What are paradoxical effects in medication, particularly concerning glaucoma treatments?
Which condition is characterized by episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness?
Ménière's disease
Labyrinthitis
Sensorineural hearing loss
Otosclerosis
Answer Description
Ménière's disease is correctly identified by its classical symptoms which include episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness. These symptoms distinguish it from other vestibular disorders. Labyrinthitis, although it presents with vertigo, typically does not include the fluctuating hearing loss or the sensation of aural fullness associated with Ménière's disease. Otosclerosis is primarily a conductive hearing loss condition and does not generally include vertigo or tinnitus. Sensorineural hearing loss is a broad diagnosis and lacks the specific combination of symptoms compared to Ménière's disease.
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What are the typical triggers for Ménière's disease episodes?
How is Ménière's disease diagnosed?
What are common treatment options for managing Ménière's disease symptoms?
Direct pressure is ineffective at controlling severe bleeding from an extremity wound when a tourniquet is available.
This statement is true.
This statement is false.
Answer Description
Direct pressure is the first line of management for controlling external bleeding. However, when direct pressure is ineffective or if the wound is severe and life-threatening, a tourniquet is recommended to stop the flow of blood to an extremity. Knowing when and how to properly use a tourniquet can be vital in saving a patient's life by preventing exsanguination.
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When should a tourniquet be used instead of direct pressure?
How do you properly apply a tourniquet?
What are the potential complications of using a tourniquet?
A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with progressive muscle weakness in both legs, which began three days ago and is now affecting their arms. The patient reports a recent upper respiratory infection. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Multiple sclerosis
Myasthenia gravis
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Spinal cord compression
Answer Description
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is the correct answer. GBS is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that typically presents with ascending paralysis, often beginning in the legs and progressing upwards. The patient's history of recent infection (in this case, upper respiratory) is a common trigger for GBS. The progressive nature of the weakness over days is characteristic of GBS.
Multiple sclerosis typically presents with visual disturbances, sensory changes, or focal neurological deficits rather than symmetric ascending weakness. Myasthenia gravis usually affects ocular and bulbar muscles first, causing drooping eyelids or difficulty swallowing. Spinal cord compression would likely present with a more clearly defined sensory level and may include bowel or bladder dysfunction.
Emergency nurses should be aware that GBS can progress rapidly and may lead to respiratory failure, requiring close monitoring and potential ICU admission.
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What are the common triggers for Guillain-Barré syndrome?
How is Guillain-Barré syndrome diagnosed?
What are the potential complications of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A 45-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department after his hand got caught and pulled by a rotating machine, resulting in a severe degloving injury. The skin and soft tissues are extensively peeled back from the underlying muscles. In managing this wound, what is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Cover the injury with a clean, moist sterile dressing and elevate the extremity.
Immediately suture the degloved skin back to its original position.
Clean the wound aggressively with iodine and cover with a dry bandage.
Apply a tourniquet above the site of the injury to minimize blood loss.
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Cover the injury with a clean, moist sterile dressing and elevate the extremity.' This approach helps to protect the wound from further contamination and desiccation. Moist dressings support the viability of any remaining tissue and potentially aid in the reattachment efforts. Elevation helps reduce swelling and decrease pain. Immediate suturing is inappropriate without thorough cleaning and assessment by a specialist, and using antiseptics directly can cause tissue damage and impair wound healing. Applying a tourniquet is incorrect unless there's life-threatening hemorrhage, which was not indicated in the scenario.
Ask Bash
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What are degloving injuries and how do they differ from other types of wounds?
Why is it important to cover a degloved injury with a moist sterile dressing?
What should be done if there is significant bleeding with a degloving injury?
Conjunctivitis can be differentiated from iritis by the presence of photophobia as a symptom.
False
True
Answer Description
The correct answer is true. Conjunctivitis generally does not cause photophobia, whereas iritis typically involves photophobia due to irritation of the iris and ciliary body. Understanding this symptom helps in distinguishing between these two types of ocular infections, which is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.
Ask Bash
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What is photophobia?
What are the main causes of conjunctivitis?
What is iritis, and how is it treated?
A 45-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after a workplace accident resulting in the amputation of his right index finger. The EMS team has brought the amputated part wrapped in gauze. What is the most appropriate next step for preserving the amputated part?
Immerse the amputated finger directly in an ice water bath immediately upon arrival to the emergency department.
Leave the amputated part at room temperature while attending to the patient's other injuries.
Wrap the amputated part in moist gauze, seal it in a watertight bag, and place it on a bed of ice without direct contact with ice.
Place the amputated part directly into a bowl filled with ice to ensure rapid cooling.
Answer Description
The correct way to preserve an amputated part is to wrap it in moist gauze, seal it in a watertight bag, and place it in a container of ice; direct contact with ice can cause further cell damage to the amputated part, potentially impairing successful reattachment.
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Why is it important to avoid direct contact between the amputated part and ice?
What type of gauze is best for wrapping amputated parts?
What are the steps I should take to properly store an amputated part?
An emergency department implements a new workplace violence prevention program. Which of the following metrics would be the BEST indicator of the program's long-term effectiveness?
Percentage of staff completing violence prevention training
Reduction in staff turnover rates related to workplace stress
Number of reported violent incidents per month
Number of security interventions for aggressive behavior
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Reduction in staff turnover rates related to workplace stress'. While all the options presented are relevant to workplace violence prevention, staff turnover rates provide a comprehensive, long-term indicator of the program's effectiveness.
A reduction in staff turnover rates suggests that the work environment has become safer and less stressful, leading to increased job satisfaction and retention. This metric reflects not only a decrease in violent incidents but also improvements in staff perception of safety, support, and overall work culture.
The number of reported violent incidents, while important, may not accurately reflect the program's effectiveness due to potential underreporting or initial increases in reporting due to heightened awareness. Similarly, the percentage of staff completing violence prevention training is an input measure rather than an outcome measure. It doesn't necessarily correlate with reduced violence or improved safety perceptions.
The number of security interventions could be influenced by various factors and might not directly indicate a safer environment. An effective program might actually lead to fewer security interventions as staff become more skilled at de-escalation.
By focusing on staff turnover rates related to workplace stress, healthcare organizations can gauge the holistic impact of their violence prevention efforts on staff well-being, job satisfaction, and the overall safety culture in the emergency department.
Ask Bash
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What factors can influence staff turnover rates in a healthcare setting?
How can we measure changes in staff perception of safety after implementing a violence prevention program?
Why might reported violent incidents not be a reliable measure of a workplace violence prevention program's effectiveness?
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