BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) Exam
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) certification, offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN), is a credential for registered nurses (RNs) specializing in emergency care. It validates expertise in handling critical and urgent medical situations in emergency departments, trauma centers, and other acute care settings.
Exam Overview
The CEN exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, of which 150 are scored, and 25 are unscored pretest questions. Candidates have three hours to complete the test. The exam fee is $370 for non-members and $230 for Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) members. It is administered through computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centers and can also be taken via live remote proctoring.
Exam Content
The CEN exam assesses knowledge across various emergency nursing topics. These include cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, obstetrical, and psychiatric emergencies. It also covers trauma, toxicological emergencies, environmental and communicable diseases, and disaster preparedness. Candidates are tested on professional issues, including ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and evidence-based practice.
Who Should Take This Exam?
This certification is ideal for RNs working in emergency care settings who want to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field. While there are no formal prerequisites, BCEN recommends at least two years of emergency nursing experience before taking the exam. The CEN credential is recognized by hospitals and healthcare organizations as a mark of advanced competency in emergency nursing.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the CEN Exam Handbook provided by BCEN and study the CEN Candidate Handbook for a detailed breakdown of topics. Many nurses use practice exams to assess their knowledge and identify weak areas. BCEN offers online review courses, and various nursing organizations provide study guides and exam prep courses. Hands-on experience in emergency settings is also crucial for success.
Summary
The BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam is a widely recognized credential for emergency nurses seeking to validate their skills and knowledge. It is an important certification for RNs looking to advance their careers in emergency care and demonstrate their expertise in handling critical medical situations.

Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Cardiovascular EmergenciesRespiratory EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesGastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and ObstetricalMental Health EmergenciesMedical EmergenciesMusculoskeletal and Wound EmergenciesMaxillofacial and Ocular EmergenciesEnvironment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable DiseasesProfessional Issues
An emergency nurse identifies a patient with a high fever, a rash that started on the face and spread to the trunk, and Koplik spots inside the mouth. Recognizing these symptoms as indicative of a reportable disease, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in accordance with mandatory reporting protocols?
Wait to report until after laboratory confirmation of the disease.
Notify only the hospital's infection control department.
Delay reporting until the patient has been discharged to reduce patient alarm.
Report the suspected case to the local or state health department.
Answer Description
These symptoms are indicative of measles, which is a highly contagious viral disease that is a reportable condition in every state. Health professionals are required to report suspected cases to the local or state health department immediately, often within 24 hours. While obtaining lab confirmation is a crucial step, the priority is to report the suspected disease to initiate public health interventions and prevent further transmission. Notifying only the infection control department or waiting to report the disease until after discharge may delay necessary immediate public health response.
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Why is measles considered a reportable disease?
What are Koplik spots and why are they significant?
What steps should a nurse take when reporting a suspected case of measles?
An emergency department is experiencing an increase in patient wait times and a decrease in patient satisfaction scores. After a preliminary round of data gathering, the nurse leader organizes a committee to perform a comprehensive review. What is the MOST effective initial action for the committee to take in order to start the process improvement?
Revise the scheduling system for the nursing staff.
Conduct a root cause analysis to determine the underlying reasons for the increased wait times and decreased patient satisfaction.
Immediately expand the staff during peak hours.
Implement a top-down change in leadership practices.
Answer Description
Starting with a root cause analysis is the most effective initial step because it helps to identify the underlying causes of the increased wait times and decreased satisfaction. Once the root causes are understood, targeted strategies to address these specific issues can be developed, potentially leading to more effective solutions. Simply expanding staff or revising scheduling without understanding the root causes may lead to ineffective use of resources or fail to address the actual issues. Changing leadership practices without evidence may cause disruption and is not directly linked to wait times and patient satisfaction without further analysis.
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What is a root cause analysis (RCA)?
How can wait times impact patient satisfaction in the emergency department?
What are some tools committees use to perform process improvement in healthcare settings?
During a mass casualty incident, four patients arrive simultaneously at the emergency department. Which patient should receive the highest priority for treatment according to the START triage system?
A patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute on room air
A patient with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and is not obeying commands
A patient who is ambulatory and has minor lacerations
A patient who is not breathing even after the airway has been repositioned
Answer Description
The START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) triage system prioritizes patients based on their ability to walk, presence of spontaneous respiration, respiratory rate, perfusion, and mental status. The patient with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is breathing spontaneously and falls within the normal range of 12-20 breaths per minute, which suggests adequate perfusion and mental status, but they may need urgent care because they are not obeying commands. This patient should be tagged as 'Immediate' or red, indicating they require immediate life-saving interventions. The patient with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute may be in respiratory distress and could also be tagged as 'Immediate' if they don't follow commands or don't have a peripheral pulse. The ambulatory patient and the patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute may be tagged as 'Delayed' or yellow, indicating their condition is less severe than that of an 'Immediate' patient. The patient who is not breathing even after airway repositioning would typically be tagged as 'Deceased' or black after a quick attempt to open the airway fails to produce spontaneous breathing, indicating a very low chance of survival.
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What is the START triage system?
Why is the patient with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute prioritized in this scenario?
What does each color (red, yellow, green, black) mean in the START triage system?
During the initial assessment of an adult patient in cardiopulmonary arrest, what is the best next step after calling for help and confirming the absence of pulse and breathing?
Assess for potential airway obstruction before starting chest compressions.
Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) and immediately deliver a shock.
Begin high-quality chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute.
Administer two rescue breaths before any chest compressions.
Answer Description
High-quality chest compressions are critical in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for maintaining circulation to vital organs until normal heart rhythm is restored. According to current resuscitation guidelines, chest compressions should be initiated within 10 seconds of identifying cardiopulmonary arrest. Defibrillation is important if a shockable rhythm is present, but the immediate priority is to initiate CPR with chest compressions. Assessing for potential airway obstruction and delivering two rescue breaths are components of the CPR process but are secondary to starting chest compressions in the adult chain of survival.
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Why are chest compressions prioritized over rescue breaths in adult CPR?
What are the correct steps for delivering high-quality chest compressions?
When should an AED be used during adult CPR?
The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the face from an altercation. He presents with ecchymosis in the periorbital areas, epistaxis, and difficulty articulating speech. Rhinorrhea is clear and bilateral. Which of the following is the most concerning finding that requires immediate intervention?
Clear rhinorrhea
Periorbital ecchymosis
Epistaxis
Difficulty articulating speech
Answer Description
The presence of clear rhinorrhea following blunt trauma to the face may indicate a basilar skull fracture with a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as infection. While periorbital ecchymosis (commonly known as 'raccoon eyes') and epistaxis may also accompany facial trauma, they are not as acutely concerning as a potential CSF leak. Difficulty articulating speech, while important to address, is not as critical as securing the integrity of the cranial vault and preventing central nervous system infection.
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What is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and why is a leak concerning?
How can you tell if clear rhinorrhea is cerebrospinal fluid?
What are the potential complications of a basilar skull fracture?
A 63-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with symptoms of syncope and exertional chest discomfort. Her medical history is significant for scleroderma. An echocardiogram reveals right ventricular hypertrophy and increased pulmonary artery pressures. Which initial treatment strategy would be MOST appropriate for this patient with suspected pulmonary hypertension?
Start diuretic therapy and oxygen supplementation alone.
Initiate an endothelin receptor antagonist.
Begin treatment with a calcium channel blocker.
Prescribe empiric antibiotics while awaiting further studies.
Answer Description
Patients presenting with symptoms of pulmonary hypertension and a history of scleroderectomy are at risk for pulmonary arterial hypertension, which classically is associated with connective tissue diseases like scleroderma. While diuretics and oxygen could be used as supportive therapy, the initiation of endothelin receptor antagonists, such as bosentan, specifically targets pulmonary arterial hypertension by blocking endothelin, a substance that causes blood vessels to constrict. Calcium channel blockers are generally not the initial treatment of choice as they can be harmful in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension unless they responded positively to a vasodilator challenge, which is not indicated in the information provided. Empiric antibiotics without evidence of infection would not address her pulmonary hypertension and syncope.
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What is pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)?
How do endothelin receptor antagonists treat PAH?
Why are calcium channel blockers not the first-line treatment for PAH?
After stabilizing an adult patient whom you suspect is a victim of human trafficking, which action best reflects recommended nursing practice in most U.S. jurisdictions?
Immediately notify law enforcement without informing the patient.
Obtain the patient's consent before contacting law enforcement, unless mandatory reporting laws apply.
Discharge the patient with hotline information and document the suspicion, without notifying law enforcement.
Detain the patient in the department until police arrive to ensure safety.
Answer Description
Healthcare guidelines advise that competent adult patients should be asked for permission before involving law enforcement, unless the situation meets mandatory reporting criteria (e.g., minor, vulnerable adult, or imminent danger). This respects patient autonomy, builds trust, and reduces the risk of retaliation by traffickers. Immediate notification without consent (Option A) can endanger the patient; simply discharging without offering help (Option C) neglects duty of care; detaining the patient until police arrive (Option D) violates legal and ethical standards.
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What are mandatory reporting laws, and when do they apply?
Why is obtaining patient consent important before involving law enforcement?
What are some key steps to take after identifying a potential victim of human trafficking?
Which obstetrical complication is characterized by the triad of hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) and is considered a severe variant of pre-eclampsia?
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) of pregnancy
HELLP syndrome
Answer Description
HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count) is a life-threatening obstetric emergency that may develop ante-partum or post-partum. It represents a severe form of pre-eclampsia and is defined by laboratory evidence of red-cell destruction, markedly elevated AST/ALT, and platelet counts typically below 100 000 /µL. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy can also raise liver enzymes but lacks the classic hemolysis and marked thrombocytopenia. Disseminated intravascular coagulation produces thrombocytopenia and hemolysis yet is a secondary coagulopathy rather than a hypertensive variant. Gestational diabetes mellitus involves carbohydrate intolerance and does not present with this hematologic-hepatic triad.
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What are the laboratory findings that confirm a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome?
How is HELLP syndrome different from acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
What is the recommended management for HELLP syndrome?
A 45-year-old male arrives in the emergency department with severe submandibular swelling, difficulty swallowing, and a muffled "hot potato" voice. Examination reveals firm bilateral swelling under the jaw and elevation of the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Epiglottitis
Mumps
Ludwig's angina
Peritonsillar abscess
Answer Description
These findings are characteristic of Ludwig's angina-a rapidly spreading cellulitis of the floor of the mouth that often follows an infected lower molar. Bilateral submandibular swelling, tongue elevation, dysphagia, and a muffled voice indicate impending airway compromise. Peritonsillar abscess usually causes unilateral tonsillar swelling and uvular deviation. Epiglottitis causes severe sore throat with stridor, and mumps produces parotid gland swelling rather than floor-of-mouth cellulitis.
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What causes Ludwig's angina?
Why is airway compromise a concern in Ludwig's angina?
How is Ludwig's angina treated?
What is the initial step in the management of a chemical burn to the eye?
Administering topical antibiotics
Immediate irrigation with saline or water
Assessment of visual acuity
Applying a sterile dressing over the eye
Answer Description
Immediate irrigation of the eye is crucial in the management of a chemical burn to reduce tissue damage and remove the offending substance. Delaying this step can result in more severe injury or complications. Other options, though important in overall patient care, are secondary to the urgency of washing out the chemical.
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Why is immediate irrigation crucial in chemical eye burns?
What types of solutions are used for ocular irrigation in chemical burns?
How long should the eye be irrigated after a chemical burn?
An emergency nurse has been experiencing increased irritability, a sense of detachment from patients, and a feeling of decreased personal achievement at work. Recognizing these as possible signs of burnout, what is the most effective initial approach for the nurse to manage these symptoms?
Take more vacation time to rest
Offer support to colleagues experiencing similar issues
Rely on overtime shifts for financial ease
Consult with a mental health professional
Answer Description
Consulting with a mental health professional is the most direct and effective initial approach to address symptoms of burnes and assess needs for further interventions or supports. While supporting each other among colleagues and discussing experiences can provide peer support, professional advice is crucial for individualized assessment and management strategies. Vacation time may provide temporary relief but doesn't address the underlying issues directly. Relying on overtime for financial reasons might contribute further to burnout rather than resolving it.
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Why is consulting with a mental health professional the most effective approach for burnout?
How does burnout differ from general fatigue or stress?
What are some signs that differentiate burnout from other mental health issues like depression?
A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident. He complains of severe pain in his lower leg that is out of proportion to the injury and is not relieved by opioid analgesics. Physical examination reveals a swollen and tense anterior compartment of the leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer additional analgesics
Reassess the patient in several hours
Immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy
Measure intracompartmental pressures
Answer Description
The most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition is an immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy. This patient is showing signs of acute compartment syndrome, which is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment that can impair circulation and cause muscle and nerve damage. Immediate intervention is critical to release the pressure and prevent permanent damage. Measuring compartment pressures might support the diagnosis but does not address the urgency of surgical intervention. Administering additional analgesia might help in managing pain but does not treat the underlying compartment syndrome. Reassessment in several hours could lead to worsening of the condition and is inappropriate given the current signs and symptoms.
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What is acute compartment syndrome?
How are intracompartmental pressures measured?
What is a fasciotomy, and how is it performed?
A patient presents to the emergency department with signs of shock after experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting for two days. The patient exhibits cold, clammy skin, rapid heartbeat, and low blood pressure. Based on these symptoms, what is the MOST likely type of shock this patient is experiencing?
Hypovolemic shock
Distributive shock
Cardiogenic shock
Neurogenic shock
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Hypovolemic shock.' This is because the patient's history of severe diarrhea and vomiting likely led to a significant loss of fluids and electrolytes, reducing blood volume, which typically causes hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by signs such as rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and cold, clammy skin due to reduced circulation. In contrast, distributive shock involves a problem with vascular tone and often presents with warm, flushed skin as seen in septic shock. Cardiogenic shock, attributable to heart failure, typically presents with symptoms related to cardiac dysfunction and not primarily due to fluid loss. Neurogenic shock, caused by spinal cord or nervous system injuries, results in blood vessel dilation that would not commonly be associated with diarrhea and vomiting.
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What are the stages of hypovolemic shock?
How is hypovolemic shock diagnosed in the emergency department?
What is the primary treatment for hypovolemic shock?
Which substance typically causes a liquefactive necrosis of tissues upon exposure?
Toluene
Acid
Alkali
Benzene
Answer Description
Alkali substances cause liquefactive necrosis because they saponify fats, leading to deep penetrating injuries that can continue to cause tissue damage even after the initial exposure. Acids typically cause a coagulative necrosis, forming a protective eschar that limits the depth of tissue injury.
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Why do alkali substances cause liquefactive necrosis?
How does acid exposure differ in terms of tissue damage compared to alkali exposure?
What is saponification in the context of alkali-induced tissue damage?
A 33-year-old painter presents to the emergency department after accidentally injecting his non-dominant hand with a high-pressure paint gun. The entry wound on his index finger is small and punctate, but the finger is swollen and exquisitely tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
Thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile saline to remove the paint.
Apply a firm pressure dressing to the site to control swelling.
Immobilize the hand, elevate it, and prepare for urgent surgical consultation.
Request an order for a digital nerve block for immediate pain relief.
Answer Description
High-pressure injection injuries are surgical emergencies. The initial presentation of a small puncture wound is misleading and belies the extensive underlying tissue damage caused by the force and chemical nature of the injected substance. The priority is to prepare for emergent surgical decompression and debridement to remove the foreign material and reduce pressure. Therefore, the most appropriate initial actions include immobilizing the extremity, administering tetanus prophylaxis and broad-spectrum antibiotics, and ensuring an urgent surgical consultation. Applying a pressure dressing or performing a digital nerve block is contraindicated as it can further increase compartment pressure. Irrigating the wound in the emergency department is not recommended as it may not be effective for deep contamination and could potentially spread the toxic substance further into the tissue planes.
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Why are high-pressure injection injuries considered surgical emergencies?
What is compartment syndrome, and why is it a concern in high-pressure injection injuries?
Why is irrigating the wound in the emergency department not recommended for high-pressure injection injuries?
A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with bilateral eye redness, itching, and a mucoid discharge. Upon examination, you notice conjunctival injection and swelling of the eyelids. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Oral antihistamines
Artificial tears and cold compresses
Topical antibiotic eye drops
Steroid eye drops
Answer Description
The correct answer is artificial tears and cold compresses. These interventions are the initial treatment for viral conjunctivitis, which is the most common form of conjunctivitis. Artificial tears help lubricate the eye and wash away irritants, while cold compresses can reduce inflammation and provide symptomatic relief.
Topical antibiotics are not initially recommended for viral conjunctivitis, as they are ineffective against viruses and may contribute to antibiotic resistance. Oral antihistamines are more appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis and may not be necessary for viral cases. Steroid eye drops, while sometimes used in severe cases, are not a first-line treatment and should only be prescribed under ophthalmological supervision due to potential side effects.
It's important to note that while this presentation is suggestive of viral conjunctivitis, a thorough assessment should be performed to rule out other potential causes, such as bacterial infection or allergic reactions, which may require different treatment approaches.
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What is viral conjunctivitis?
How do artificial tears and cold compresses help treat viral conjunctivitis?
Why are antibiotics not recommended for viral conjunctivitis?
During a mass casualty incident, which of the following triage categories should be assigned to patients who can walk and have minor injuries?
Black
Yellow
Red
Green
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Green'. In mass casualty triage systems, such as START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment), patients are categorized into four color-coded groups based on the severity of their condition and need for immediate treatment. The color green is used for patients with minor injuries who can walk and whose treatment can be delayed. These patients are also sometimes referred to as the 'walking wounded'.
Red is used for patients requiring immediate treatment (critical), yellow for those whose treatment can be delayed (serious but stable), and black for those who are deceased or have injuries incompatible with life. Understanding this color-coding system is crucial for emergency nurses to efficiently prioritize patient care during mass casualty events, ensuring that limited resources are allocated effectively to save the most lives possible.
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What is the START triage system?
Why are 'walking wounded' categorized as Green in triage?
How does the Green category differ from Yellow in mass casualty triage?
A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. After initial assessment, you administer a short-acting beta-2 agonist via nebulizer. The patient's symptoms improve, but not completely. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Prepare for immediate intubation
Administer systemic corticosteroids
Administer IV magnesium sulfate
Initiate continuous nebulized beta-2 agonists
Answer Description
The correct answer is to administer systemic corticosteroids. In acute asthma exacerbations, systemic corticosteroids are a crucial component of treatment. They help reduce airway inflammation, decrease mucus production, and enhance the effectiveness of beta-2 agonists. Corticosteroids should be given early in the course of treatment, usually within the first hour of presentation, to all patients with acute asthma exacerbations except those with very mild symptoms.
While continuous nebulized beta-2 agonists can be beneficial, they are typically used in conjunction with corticosteroids rather than as a sole next step. Intubation is reserved for severe cases unresponsive to other treatments and would be premature at this stage. Administering IV magnesium sulfate, while sometimes used in severe asthma exacerbations, is not the most appropriate next step for a patient showing partial improvement with initial treatment.
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Why are systemic corticosteroids important in treating acute asthma exacerbations?
How do beta-2 agonists help during an asthma exacerbation?
When is IV magnesium sulfate used in asthma treatment?
A patient presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing, a cough that produces frothy pink sputum, and an S3 gallop upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Which initial treatment should the nurse anticipate administering to best manage this patient's condition?
Sublingual nitroglycerin
Intravenous morphine
Inhalation of a short-acting beta-agonist
Intravenous diuretics
Answer Description
The presentation is suggestive of acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. The administration of intravenous diuretics, such as furosemide, is a key initial treatment in managing fluid overload and reducing pulmonary congestion in this situation. Nitroglycerin may also be used to reduce preload and afterload but is not the initial medication of choice. Oxygen therapy alone will not address the fluid overload and is an adjunct treatment. Intravenous morphine is not the primary treatment for heart failure and is used cautiously, mainly for palliative care to ease dyspnea and anxiety in end-stage heart failure, not as an initial line of treatment.
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What is acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
Why are intravenous diuretics the initial treatment for pulmonary edema?
What is the purpose of an S3 gallop in diagnosing heart failure?
A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She recently underwent a long flight and has a history of oral contraceptive use. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for suspected pulmonary embolism?
CT pulmonary angiography
D-dimer test
Echocardiography
Chest X-ray
Answer Description
The most appropriate initial diagnostic test for suspected pulmonary embolism is a D-dimer test. D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is elevated in the presence of blood clots. It has a high sensitivity but low specificity for pulmonary embolism. A negative D-dimer test can effectively rule out pulmonary embolism in patients with low to moderate clinical probability, while a positive result warrants further imaging studies.
CT pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism, but it is not typically the initial test due to radiation exposure and potential contrast-related complications. Chest X-ray may show nonspecific findings but cannot definitively diagnose or rule out pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography can be useful in assessing right ventricular function and identifying signs of right heart strain, but it is not the initial diagnostic test of choice for suspected pulmonary embolism.
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What is a D-dimer test and how does it work?
Why is CT pulmonary angiography not the initial test for pulmonary embolism?
How does the history of long flights and oral contraceptive use increase the risk of pulmonary embolism?
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