BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) Exam
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) certification, offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN), is a credential for registered nurses (RNs) specializing in emergency care. It validates expertise in handling critical and urgent medical situations in emergency departments, trauma centers, and other acute care settings.
Exam Overview
The CEN exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, of which 150 are scored, and 25 are unscored pretest questions. Candidates have three hours to complete the test. The exam fee is $370 for non-members and $230 for Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) members. It is administered through computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centers and can also be taken via live remote proctoring.
Exam Content
The CEN exam assesses knowledge across various emergency nursing topics. These include cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, obstetrical, and psychiatric emergencies. It also covers trauma, toxicological emergencies, environmental and communicable diseases, and disaster preparedness. Candidates are tested on professional issues, including ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and evidence-based practice.
Who Should Take This Exam?
This certification is ideal for RNs working in emergency care settings who want to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field. While there are no formal prerequisites, BCEN recommends at least two years of emergency nursing experience before taking the exam. The CEN credential is recognized by hospitals and healthcare organizations as a mark of advanced competency in emergency nursing.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the CEN Exam Handbook provided by BCEN and study the CEN Candidate Handbook for a detailed breakdown of topics. Many nurses use practice exams to assess their knowledge and identify weak areas. BCEN offers online review courses, and various nursing organizations provide study guides and exam prep courses. Hands-on experience in emergency settings is also crucial for success.
Summary
The BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam is a widely recognized credential for emergency nurses seeking to validate their skills and knowledge. It is an important certification for RNs looking to advance their careers in emergency care and demonstrate their expertise in handling critical medical situations.

Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Cardiovascular EmergenciesRespiratory EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesGastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and ObstetricalMental Health EmergenciesMedical EmergenciesMusculoskeletal and Wound EmergenciesMaxillofacial and Ocular EmergenciesEnvironment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable DiseasesProfessional Issues
A 25-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with widespread urticaria, throat tightness, and difficulty breathing 10 minutes after being stung by a bee. The patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Intramuscular epinephrine
Intravenous antihistamines
Intravenous corticosteroids
Rapid infusion of normal saline
Answer Description
Intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it quickly works to reverse the pathophysiologic processes of anaphylaxis, which can include airway edema, hypotension, and shock. Antihistamines, while useful for symptomatic relief of urticaria and pruritus, do not address the hemodynamic and respiratory issues as effectively. Corticosteroids have a delayed onset and are not the primary treatment in the acute management of anaphylaxis. Normal saline is supportive treatment for hypotension but does not counteract the underlying anaphylactic reaction.
Ask Bash
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Why is intramuscular epinephrine the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
When should additional therapies like antihistamines or corticosteroids be used in anaphylaxis treatment?
How does rapid infusion of normal saline help in the management of anaphylaxis?
A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of depression. During the assessment, which of the following findings would be considered the most concerning for imminent suicide risk?
Expressing feelings of hopelessness
A specific plan for suicide with access to lethal means
Recent loss of a loved one
A history of previous suicide attempts
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'A specific plan for suicide with access to lethal means.' This is the most concerning finding because it indicates that the patient has not only thought about suicide but has also formulated a concrete plan and has the means to carry it out. This combination significantly increases the immediacy of the suicide risk.
While 'A history of previous suicide attempts' is a significant risk factor, it doesn't necessarily indicate imminent risk. Similarly, 'Expressing feelings of hopelessness' is a warning sign but doesn't imply immediate danger. 'Recent loss of a loved one' is a potential trigger for suicidal thoughts, but alone it doesn't indicate a high level of imminent risk.
As an emergency nurse, recognizing the severity of a specific plan combined with access to means is crucial for immediate intervention and potentially life-saving actions.
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Why does having 'a specific plan for suicide with access to lethal means' indicate the highest imminent suicide risk?
Why is a 'history of previous suicide attempts' significant but less concerning than a specific plan?
How should emergency nurses intervene when a patient reveals a specific suicide plan?
A 75-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe diarrhea following a recent hospitalization where he received antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. He appears dehydrated and reports abdominal cramping. Which intervention is the most appropriate initial step in managing his condition?
Initiate contact precautions and collect a stool sample for testing
Increase fluid intake and reassess in 24 hours
Immediately begin treatment with another course of antibiotics
Administer an anti-diarrheal medication
Answer Description
The appropriate initial step for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of C. difficile infection is to initiate contact precautions and collect a stool sample for testing. This prevents the spread of the bacteria and confirms the diagnosis, allowing for specific treatment. Administering further antibiotics without testing may worsen the condition if wrongly selected, hydrating the patient while necessary, doesn’t address the underlying cause directly at this point, and monitoring vital signs, while important, is not specific enough as an initial intervention for suspected C. difficile.
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What is C. difficile and how does it cause illness?
Why are contact precautions necessary for C. difficile?
Why isn’t administering anti-diarrheal medication appropriate for suspected C. difficile?
An adult patient arrives in the emergency department reporting the sudden appearance of numerous new floaters and brief flashes of light in the right eye. Within an hour, the patient notices a dark curtain-like shadow progressing across the same visual field. Which ocular disorder best accounts for this presentation?
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Retinal detachment
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Age-related macular degeneration
Answer Description
Sudden onset of multiple floaters and photopsia followed by a curtain or shadow moving over part of the visual field is classic for a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment. Liquefied vitreous passes through a retinal tear, separating the neurosensory retina from the pigment epithelium. This is an ocular emergency that requires immediate ophthalmologic evaluation to prevent permanent vision loss.
Distractors:
- Acute angle-closure glaucoma produces severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and halos around lights due to a rapid rise in intraocular pressure, not a curtain-like field defect.
- Age-related macular degeneration leads to gradual, painless loss of central vision and distortion (metamorphopsia), not an abrupt peripheral shadow.
- Bacterial conjunctivitis presents with conjunctival injection and purulent discharge but does not cause floaters, flashes, or visual-field loss.
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What causes retinal detachment?
Why are floaters and flashes significant in retinal detachment?
How is retinal detachment treated?
Which physical examination finding is highly specific (about 99 % specificity) for acute decompensated heart failure because it reflects rapid ventricular filling due to volume overload?
Peripheral pitting edema
Crackles at the lung bases
Jugular venous distension
Third heart sound (S3)
Answer Description
The third heart sound (S3) occurs in early diastole when a large volume of blood enters a dilated, compliant ventricle. Although its sensitivity is low (detected in a minority of patients), its presence is one of the most specific bedside indicators of acute heart failure, far exceeding the specificity of crackles, peripheral edema, or jugular venous distension. The other findings listed are either less specific or signify different pathologies.
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Why is the third heart sound (S3) highly specific for acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the difference between S3 and crackles in diagnosing heart failure?
How is the third heart sound (S3) detected during a physical exam?
After stabilizing an adult patient whom you suspect is a victim of human trafficking, which action best reflects recommended nursing practice in most U.S. jurisdictions?
Discharge the patient with hotline information and document the suspicion, without notifying law enforcement.
Detain the patient in the department until police arrive to ensure safety.
Obtain the patient's consent before contacting law enforcement, unless mandatory reporting laws apply.
Immediately notify law enforcement without informing the patient.
Answer Description
Healthcare guidelines advise that competent adult patients should be asked for permission before involving law enforcement, unless the situation meets mandatory reporting criteria (e.g., minor, vulnerable adult, or imminent danger). This respects patient autonomy, builds trust, and reduces the risk of retaliation by traffickers. Immediate notification without consent (Option A) can endanger the patient; simply discharging without offering help (Option C) neglects duty of care; detaining the patient until police arrive (Option D) violates legal and ethical standards.
Ask Bash
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What are mandatory reporting laws, and when do they apply?
Why is obtaining patient consent important before involving law enforcement?
What are some key steps to take after identifying a potential victim of human trafficking?
Which substance typically causes a liquefactive necrosis of tissues upon exposure?
Benzene
Toluene
Acid
Alkali
Answer Description
Alkali substances cause liquefactive necrosis because they saponify fats, leading to deep penetrating injuries that can continue to cause tissue damage even after the initial exposure. Acids typically cause a coagulative necrosis, forming a protective eschar that limits the depth of tissue injury.
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Why do alkali substances cause liquefactive necrosis?
How does acid exposure differ in terms of tissue damage compared to alkali exposure?
What is saponification in the context of alkali-induced tissue damage?
Which systemic complication is most commonly seen in severe scorpion envenomation and is responsible for many fatalities associated with these stings?
Anaphylactic shock
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Acute hepatic failure
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Answer Description
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is the hallmark serious complication of scorpion envenomation. Venom-induced massive catecholamine release and direct myocardial toxicity can precipitate acute left-ventricular failure, leading to pulmonary edema and, in some cases, shock. Pulmonary edema and cardiogenic shock are repeatedly cited as the leading causes of death in both adult and pediatric sting victims. Anaphylaxis, while possible (usually after prior sensitization or during antivenom infusion), is documented only rarely. Acute hepatic failure and disseminated intravascular coagulation have been reported in isolated cases but are not typical or common outcomes.
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Why does scorpion venom cause cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
What are the symptoms of cardiogenic pulmonary edema in scorpion envenomation?
How is cardiogenic pulmonary edema treated in scorpion envenomation cases?
A newborn has been successfully ventilated and has a heart rate above 100 bpm with improving skin color. What is the NEXT appropriate step in the neonatal resuscitation protocol?
Start chest compressions
Administer 100% oxygen via bag and mask
Monitor the baby and maintain temperature control
Administer 10 mL/kg of normal saline intravenously
Answer Description
After establishing an effective airway and adequate ventilation, and confirming a stable heart rate of over 100 bpm along with improved skin coloration, the appropriate next step is to monitor the baby and maintain temperature control. This step is vital as newborns are prone to hypothermia, which can complicate recovery. Immediate, aggressive interventions like administering intravenous fluids or supplemental oxygen might not be necessary with the stabilization of vital parameters and can in fact complicate the clinical scenario if not indicated.
Ask Bash
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Why is temperature control important in neonatal resuscitation?
When is it necessary to administer intravenous fluids during neonatal resuscitation?
Why is supplemental oxygen not given routinely in neonatal resuscitation?
A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident. He complains of severe pain in his lower leg that is out of proportion to the injury and is not relieved by opioid analgesics. Physical examination reveals a swollen and tense anterior compartment of the leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy
Measure intracompartmental pressures
Administer additional analgesics
Reassess the patient in several hours
Answer Description
The most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition is an immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy. This patient is showing signs of acute compartment syndrome, which is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment that can impair circulation and cause muscle and nerve damage. Immediate intervention is critical to release the pressure and prevent permanent damage. Measuring compartment pressures might support the diagnosis but does not address the urgency of surgical intervention. Administering additional analgesia might help in managing pain but does not treat the underlying compartment syndrome. Reassessment in several hours could lead to worsening of the condition and is inappropriate given the current signs and symptoms.
Ask Bash
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What is acute compartment syndrome?
How are intracompartmental pressures measured?
What is a fasciotomy, and how is it performed?
A patient presents with a wound infection showing signs of advancing cellulitis. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized?
Administer intravenous antibiotics
Elevate the affected limb
Perform immediate wound debridement
Apply warm compresses to the area
Answer Description
Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention for a patient with advancing cellulitis from a wound infection. Cellulitis is a spreading bacterial infection of the skin and underlying tissues that can progress rapidly and lead to serious complications if not treated promptly. IV antibiotics provide rapid systemic distribution of the medication, which is crucial for controlling the spreading infection.
While the other options are important aspects of wound care:
- Elevating the affected limb helps reduce swelling but doesn't directly combat the infection.
- Applying warm compresses may increase blood flow to the area but doesn't address the underlying bacterial cause.
- Debriding the wound might be necessary in some cases, but it's not the first priority for advancing cellulitis and could potentially spread the infection further if done before antibiotic treatment.
The key in managing advancing cellulitis is to quickly initiate systemic antibiotic therapy to prevent further spread of the infection and potential complications such as sepsis or necrotizing fasciitis.
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Why are IV antibiotics prioritized for cellulitis?
What bacteria commonly cause cellulitis?
When is wound debridement necessary for cellulitis?
What term describes the act of consuming a substance in amounts that exceed the recommended or safe levels with the intent to cause harm?
Overconsumption
Intentional overdose
Substance use
Accidental ingestion
Answer Description
The correct term is 'intentional overdose,' which specifically refers to taking a substance, such as medication or illegal drugs, with the purpose of harming oneself. This distinguishes it from accidental ingestions, which are not intentional acts. Other terms may refer to different scenarios, such as 'substance use,' which does not imply self-harm, or 'overconsumption,' which can occur without harmful intent. Recognizing the distinction is vital for understanding patient motivations and providing appropriate care.
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What are some signs or symptoms of an intentional overdose?
How is intentional overdose different from accidental overdose?
What role does healthcare staff play in addressing intentional overdoses?
A 28-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department with confusion, agitation, and hyperthermia. The patient's friends report they were at a music festival, and the patient had taken an unknown pill. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Alcohol intoxication
Opioid overdose
MDMA (Ecstasy) toxicity
Cocaine overdose
Answer Description
The correct answer is MDMA (Ecstasy) toxicity. MDMA is a common party drug that can cause a constellation of symptoms including confusion, agitation, and hyperthermia. This condition, known as serotonin syndrome, is a potentially life-threatening reaction to excessive serotonergic activity in the central nervous system.
Alcohol intoxication typically causes depressant effects and would not explain the hyperthermia. Opioid overdose usually presents with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils, not agitation and hyperthermia. While cocaine can cause agitation and hyperthermia, it's less commonly associated with confusion and is not typically taken in pill form at music festivals.
In managing MDMA toxicity, the priority is to address hyperthermia through cooling measures and to provide supportive care. Benzodiazepines may be used to manage agitation. It's crucial for emergency nurses to recognize the signs of various substance-related emergencies to provide appropriate and timely care.
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What is serotonin syndrome?
How does MDMA (Ecstasy) cause hyperthermia?
Why are benzodiazepines used in MDMA toxicity management?
A 28-year-old construction worker presents to the ED with a 3-inch nail penetrating his right eye. The patient is alert and oriented, with stable vital signs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer IV pain medication and prepare for immediate nail removal
Apply a protective shield over the eye without applying pressure
Carefully extract the nail and apply direct pressure to control bleeding
Bandage both eyes to prevent movement and sympathetic ophthalmia
Answer Description
The correct answer is to apply a protective shield over the eye without applying pressure. In cases of penetrating eye injuries, it's crucial to protect the eye from further damage while avoiding any pressure that could exacerbate the injury. A protective shield (such as a paper cup) should be placed over the eye to prevent accidental movement of the foreign body.
Administering pain medication, while important, is not the immediate priority. Removing the nail is absolutely contraindicated as it could cause severe damage and vision loss. Bandaging both eyes, while sometimes done for eye injuries to prevent sympathetic movement, is not the first step and could be disorienting for the patient in this scenario.
The primary goal is to stabilize the injury, prevent further damage, and prepare the patient for emergency ophthalmological evaluation and possible surgical intervention. After shielding the eye, other steps would include obtaining a detailed history, assessing visual acuity in the unaffected eye, and arranging for immediate ophthalmology consultation.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to avoid applying pressure to the injured eye?
What is the purpose of using a protective shield over the eye?
What is sympathetic ophthalmia and why isn’t bandaging both eyes a priority in this case?
Which of the following best describes a degloving injury?
Deep puncture wound with minimal external bleeding
Separation of skin and subcutaneous tissue from underlying structures
Complete detachment of a body part
Superficial abrasion covering a large surface area
Answer Description
A degloving injury occurs when an extensive section of skin and subcutaneous tissue is separated from the underlying muscle, fascia, or bone. This type of injury is often seen in high-energy trauma, such as motor vehicle accidents or industrial incidents. It's important to differentiate degloving injuries from other types of wounds because they require specialized management due to the extensive tissue damage and potential for complications like infection and tissue necrosis. Unlike simple lacerations or abrasions, degloving injuries involve a large area of tissue separation and often require complex surgical interventions for proper treatment.
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What causes a degloving injury?
How are degloving injuries managed medically?
What are the complications associated with degloving injuries?
A 35-year-old factory worker presents to the emergency department after accidental ingestion of a strong alkali substance. Which of the following is the BEST initial management strategy?
Neutralize with a weak acid solution
Induce emesis immediately
Perform immediate gastric lavage
Avoid inducing emesis and dilute with water or milk
Answer Description
The correct answer is to avoid inducing emesis and dilute with water or milk. This is the best initial management strategy for alkali ingestion because:
Inducing emesis is contraindicated in alkali ingestions as it can cause re-exposure of the esophagus to the corrosive substance, potentially worsening the injury.
Dilution with water or milk helps to reduce the concentration of the alkali and minimize further tissue damage. This should be done immediately if the patient is alert and able to swallow.
Neutralization with weak acids is not recommended as it can cause an exothermic reaction, potentially increasing tissue damage.
Gastric lavage is generally contraindicated in corrosive ingestions due to the risk of perforation and aspiration.
It's important to note that while dilution is the best initial step, the patient will require further assessment and management, including possible endoscopy and supportive care.
Ask Bash
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Why is inducing emesis contraindicated in alkali ingestions?
How does dilution with water or milk help mitigate alkali ingestion effects?
Why is neutralization with weak acids not recommended for alkali ingestion?
A 28-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Their blood glucose is 485 mg/dL, and their arterial pH is 7.21. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Lactic Acidosis
Hypoglycemia
Answer Description
The correct answer is Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). This patient presents with classic symptoms of DKA: nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The high blood glucose (485 mg/dL) and low arterial pH (7.21) are hallmark signs of DKA. In DKA, the body cannot use glucose for energy due to insulin deficiency, leading to the breakdown of fats and the production of ketones, which causes metabolic acidosis.
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) typically has even higher glucose levels (often >600 mg/dL) and less severe acidosis. Hypoglycemia would present with a low blood glucose, not high. Lactic acidosis, while it can cause a low pH, doesn't typically present with such high glucose levels and is more commonly associated with severe illness, shock, or certain medications.
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What are the key differences between Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) and Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
How does the body produce ketones during Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Why does Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) cause abdominal pain and nausea?
A patient with a known history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents to the emergency department with hematemesis. An endoscopy confirms bleeding esophageal varices. The emergency nurse understands that the formation of these varices is a direct result of which underlying condition?
Acute gastritis
Peptic ulcer disease
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Portal hypertension
Answer Description
The primary cause of esophageal varices is portal hypertension, which is an increased pressure within the portal vein system. This condition is most often a complication of cirrhosis of the liver, where scar tissue obstructs blood flow. The increased pressure forces blood to be rerouted through smaller, collateral veins, such as those in the esophagus, causing them to dilate and form varices. Mallory-Weiss syndrome involves a tear in the esophageal lining, peptic ulcer disease is caused by erosion of the lining, and gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining; none of these are the direct cause of variceal formation.
Ask Bash
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What is portal hypertension and how does it cause esophageal varices?
What is the connection between alcoholic cirrhosis and portal hypertension?
How are bleeding esophageal varices treated in the emergency setting?
A patient presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing, a cough that produces frothy pink sputum, and an S3 gallop upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Which initial treatment should the nurse anticipate administering to best manage this patient's condition?
Sublingual nitroglycerin
Inhalation of a short-acting beta-agonist
Intravenous morphine
Intravenous diuretics
Answer Description
The presentation is suggestive of acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. The administration of intravenous diuretics, such as furosemide, is a key initial treatment in managing fluid overload and reducing pulmonary congestion in this situation. Nitroglycerin may also be used to reduce preload and afterload but is not the initial medication of choice. Oxygen therapy alone will not address the fluid overload and is an adjunct treatment. Intravenous morphine is not the primary treatment for heart failure and is used cautiously, mainly for palliative care to ease dyspnea and anxiety in end-stage heart failure, not as an initial line of treatment.
Ask Bash
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What is acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
Why are intravenous diuretics the initial treatment for pulmonary edema?
What is the purpose of an S3 gallop in diagnosing heart failure?
An 80-year-old male with a history of diabetes and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) presents to the emergency department. He reports feeling 'unwell' for the past two hours with mild nausea and diaphoresis. He describes an intermittent 'burning' sensation in his epigastric region, which he attributes to his GERD. Which of the following findings is most specific for acute coronary syndrome in this patient?
Epigastric burning sensation
History of diabetes mellitus
Pain that radiates to the jaw
Nausea and diaphoresis
Answer Description
In patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS), particularly older adults and those with diabetes, presentations can be atypical. While nausea, diaphoresis, and epigastric discomfort are all potential symptoms of ACS, they are non-specific. An epigastric burning sensation is easily confused with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). However, pain that radiates to the jaw or left arm is a classic and more specific indicator of cardiac ischemia. This finding should significantly raise the suspicion for ACS, even when other symptoms seem vague or attributable to other conditions.
Ask Bash
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What is acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?
Why are patients with diabetes at risk for atypical ACS presentations?
How does jaw pain relate to ACS?
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