AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.
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Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
A patient's ledger shows a list of dates, services provided, charges, and payments made. After posting a recent payment, the medical assistant notices that the total amount of payments exceeds the total charges for services rendered. In accounting terms, what does this situation indicate about the patient's account?
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The account is now part of accounts receivable.
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The account has a credit balance.
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The account is now part of accounts payable.
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The account has a debit balance.
Answer Description
When the total payments exceed the total amount of charges in a patient's account, it means there is a credit balance. This surplus indicates that the patient has overpaid or that adjustments in the billing have led to a balance that is in favor of the patient. The patient may be eligible for a refund or can use the credit toward future services. A debit balance would suggest the patient owes money to the practice. Accounts receivable and accounts payable are not specific balances on an individual patient's account; they represent the business's overall balance of incoming and outgoing payments respectively.
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What is a credit balance in accounting terms?
What steps should a medical assistant take when a credit balance is identified?
How are credit and debit balances different in a patient's account?
What is the safest method to dispose of used needles in a healthcare setting?
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Bending the needle before disposal to prevent reuse
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Recapping the needle and placing it in the regular trash bin
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Disposing of them in a puncture-resistant sharps disposal container
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Breaking the needle into two pieces before throwing it away
Answer Description
The use of a sharps disposal container is the appropriate method for disposing of used needles to prevent needlestick injuries and comply with OSHA regulations. Recapping, bending, or breaking needles can lead to accidents and potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
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What is a sharps disposal container?
What are bloodborne pathogens?
What does OSHA stand for, and what is its role?
A patient comes in for a medical procedure priced at $1,500. The patient's health insurance plan has a $1,000 annual deductible, of which $400 has already been met for the current year. After the deductible is satisfied, the insurance plan covers 80% of medical expenses. How much is the patient responsible for paying after the insurance coverage is applied?
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$780
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$1,200
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$1,080
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$300
Answer Description
The patient has already paid $400 towards their deductible, leaving $600 remaining. The cost of the procedure will first be applied to satisfy the remaining deductible, which is $600. After the deductible is met, the insurance covers 80% of the remaining procedure cost ($900). The insurance will pay $720 (80% of $900), and the remaining 20% of the covered amount, which is $180, will be the patient's responsibility. Therefore, the patient’s total payment after insurance coverage is the remaining deductible ($600) plus their 20% coinsurance share ($180), totaling $780.
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What is an insurance deductible?
What does it mean for insurance to cover 80% of medical expenses?
How do I calculate out-of-pocket medical costs after insurance?
What is the first action a medical assistant should take when a patient is experiencing an acute asthmatic episode in the medical office?
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Have the patient try to drink water to calm down
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Take the patient’s blood pressure
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Begin chest compressions
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Administer a quick-relief inhaler prescribed to the patient
Answer Description
In the event of an acute asthmatic attack, the priority is to ensure the patient can breathe. Administering a quick-relief medication, usually a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler, can help to rapidly open the airways and alleviate bronchospasm. Monitoring vital signs is important but follows after ensuring the patient is receiving the medication necessary to open airways. Administering oxygen or contacting emergency services might be necessary subsequent steps depending on the severity of the asthmatic attack and response to initial treatment.
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What is a quick-relief inhaler and how does it work?
What signs and symptoms indicate an acute asthmatic episode?
What should a medical assistant do after administering the inhaler?
Which of the following situations requires specific written authorization from the patient before releasing their Protected Health Information (PHI)?
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Releasing information for continuity of care between physicians
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Releasing HIV-related information to an insurance provider
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Releasing vaccination records to a school
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Releasing patient's demographic information for public health purposes
Answer Description
Releasing information related to HIV or mental health requires specific written authorization due to the sensitive nature of this information. Regular medical information does not always require such specialized authorization. This ensures additional privacy and protection for patients concerning sensitive health conditions.
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What is Protected Health Information (PHI)?
Why is there a need for specific written authorization to release HIV-related information?
What other types of information require specific authorization before release?
A medical assistant is preparing to administer a PPD test to a patient to screen for tuberculosis. 24-72 hours after injection, the patient returns for an evaluation. Which of the following is the BEST method to assess for a positive reaction?
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Performing venipuncture to analyze blood response
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Assessing the redness of the injection site
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Conducting a capillary blood test
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Measuring the diameter of the induration area in millimeters with a ruler
Answer Description
When evaluating a PPD test, the area of induration (palpable, raised, hardened area) around the injection site is measured in millimeters. Redness is not considered a reliable indicator of a positive result. It is the size of the induration, not the redness, that is used to determine a positive result. Venipuncture and capillary blood tests are not methods used to determine the results of a PPD skin test.
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What is a PPD test, and how does it work?
Why is measuring the diameter of induration more important than assessing redness?
What other tests can be done for tuberculosis screening besides the PPD test?
A patient is scheduled to begin a 24-hour urine collection to assess their renal function. As the medical assistant, you are responsible for instructing the patient on how to properly collect the specimen. Which of the following instructions is correct for ensuring the validity of the test?
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Tell the patient to begin collecting urine at any time in the morning and continue collecting all urine voided during the day and night until the next morning.
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Advise the patient to collect their urine starting at any convenient time but ensure that all collection is done within the same day for convenience.
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Inform the patient to collect as much urine as possible whenever it is feasible throughout the day and evening.
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Instruct the patient to start collecting their urine with the second void of the morning and to include the first void of the following morning to ensure a full 24-hour period is accounted for.
Answer Description
The correct instruction for a 24-hour urine collection is for the patient to void and discard the first morning urine, then collect all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. This is because the first morning urine represents substances accumulated overnight and does not provide a starting point for a collection period meant to represent an exact 24-hour timeframe. It is essential to have a precise starting time to ensure that all urine produced within the designated period is accounted for, leading to accurate laboratory results.
Stating to start collecting in the morning without discarding is incorrect, as it would include urine produced outside of the 24-hour window. Suggesting to collect urine at a convenient time but within the same calendar day does not accurately demarcate a 24-hour period. Telling the patient to collect as much urine when possible fails to adhere to the strict timing needed for the test, and therefore would not provide an accurate measurement for the patient's renal function.
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Why is it important to discard the first void of the morning when starting a 24-hour urine collection?
What substances are typically measured in a 24-hour urine collection?
What steps should a patient take if they accidentally miss a urine collection during the 24-hour period?
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is primarily used to adjust doses of medications that manage hyperglycemia in diabetic patients.
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False
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True
Answer Description
The statement is false. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is not used for managing hyperglycemia or adjusting doses of diabetes medications. Instead, it is a standardized number that is used to monitor patients on anticoagulant therapy, specifically warfarin. This is important for ensuring the patient's blood is not too thin (which could lead to bleeding complications) or too thick (which could lead to clotting complications). Management of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients involves monitoring blood glucose levels and adjusting doses of hypoglycemic medications, not INR levels.
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What is the purpose of the International Normalized Ratio (INR)?
How does the INR differ from other tests for monitoring anticoagulation?
What are the common medications used to manage hyperglycemia in diabetic patients?
What is essential for a medical assistant to do when handling patient information to uphold confidentiality and privacy according to HIPAA guidelines?
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Leave patient information on the counter as long as it's within the office space
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Not report accidental disclosure of patient information to a supervisor since it was a mistake
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Discuss patient information only with individuals who are authorized to have access to it
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Discuss patient conditions openly in public areas as long as the patient's name is not mentioned
Answer Description
It is essential to only discuss patient information with individuals who are authorized to have access to it. This is to maintain the confidentiality and privacy of the patient as mandated by HIPAA. Discussing patient information with unauthorized individuals, leaving patient information visible to unauthorized individuals, or not reporting a breach of confidentiality are all actions that violate HIPAA regulations and compromise patient privacy.
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What does HIPAA stand for and what is its purpose?
What are the consequences of violating HIPAA guidelines?
What constitutes authorized individuals for discussing patient information?
A patient approaches the front desk requesting to inspect their medical records. They express some concerns about potential errors they want to review. According to HIPAA regulations, what is the most appropriate response?
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Inform the patient that medical records can only be inspected by their current healthcare provider for continuity of care purposes.
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Tell the patient that their records cannot be inspected because the risk of a privacy breach is too high.
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Inform the patient of the procedure to request and inspect their records, including any potential costs for copying.
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Advise the patient that they can only inspect their records if they provide a reason deemed valid by the office manager.
Answer Description
Patients have the right under HIPAA to inspect and obtain a copy of their health information. The medical office should have a process in place to allow this while ensuring the protection of other patients' privacy. The correct response is to inform the patient of the procedure to request access to their records officially and let them know how their request will be processed, including the possibility of minimal costs for copying. Denying the patient's request without allowing proper procedure or providing unfounded excuses are not compliant with HIPAA regulations.
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What does HIPAA stand for and why is it important?
What is the procedure for patients to request their medical records?
What are patients' rights regarding their medical records under HIPAA?
Patient portals are designed to grant patients access to select portions of their electronic health records, including scheduling appointments, viewing laboratory results, and messaging healthcare providers.
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The statement is false
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The statement is true
Answer Description
Patient portals play a key role in modern healthcare by empowering patients with direct access to certain aspects of their health information and communication with their care providers. They enhance patient engagement, improve satisfaction, and can lead to better health outcomes by facilitating easier access to medical information and services.
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What features are commonly available on patient portals?
How do patient portals improve patient engagement?
What measures are taken to ensure patient privacy on portals?
Which of the following scenarios requires a patient's authorization to release their medical information?
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A lawyer requests a patient's records for a lawsuit unrelated to the patient's care.
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A nurse shares a patient's status update with other members of the healthcare team for treatment purposes.
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A physician discards outdated medical records in a HIPAA-compliant manner.
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A billing department submits a patient's health claim to their insurance company for payment.
Answer Description
A patient's authorization is generally required to release medical information for reasons other than treatment, payment, or health care operations. In the scenario where a lawyer requests a patient's records for a lawsuit, the patient must provide authorization, as this use is not for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations. Discarding of records is done in accordance with privacy regulations on disposal and does not inherently require patient authorization. Sharing information for the treatment purpose between healthcare providers and for payment activities such as billing insurance are permissible without explicit patient authorization under HIPAA.
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What is HIPAA and why is it important?
What does it mean for a release of information to be HIPAA-compliant?
Can patients revoke an authorization for release of their medical information?
A patient comes in for a scheduled evaluation and management visit, which has a set fee. During the visit, the physician decides to perform a minor surgical procedure that was not previously scheduled. How should these charges be posted?
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Combine the fees for both services into one single charge that encompasses the entire visit.
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Post the scheduled evaluation and management visit charge only, assuming the minor procedure is included.
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Post both the scheduled evaluation and management visit charge and the separate charge for the minor surgical procedure.
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Only post the charge for the minor surgical procedure, as it was the more significant service provided.
Answer Description
Whenever a patient receives additional services that were not included in the initial schedule, each service should be posted separately to ensure that the practice is accurately compensated for all rendered services. In this case, both the evaluation and management visit charge and the minor surgical procedure charge need to be independently posted to the patient's account. This is important not just for the practice's revenue, but also to provide an accurate financial record and to prevent any potential confusion during the billing process or insurance claims.
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Why is it important to post both charges separately?
What constitutes a minor surgical procedure?
What are the potential consequences of incorrectly posting charges?
A patient with hypertension who is keeping track of sodium intake asks for assistance with interpreting the nutritional label on a canned soup. The label states that the soup contains 900 mg of sodium per serving, and the daily value percentage next to it is 39%. Based on this information, what is the best advice you can provide the patient regarding the consumption of this soup?
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This soup is within the recommended limits for your condition, so it's safe to consume.
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With 39% of the daily value for sodium per serving, this soup is high in sodium, and you should limit or avoid it to manage your hypertension.
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Since the soup only contains 900 mg of sodium, it's a low-sodium choice suitable for your diet.
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You can consume this soup, but make sure to balance your other meals to stay within your daily sodium goals.
Answer Description
The best advice in this situation would be to consider the product's sodium content to be high. The FDA considers 5% or less of the daily value to be low and 20% or more to be high for nutrients like sodium. Since 39% is nearly double the 20% threshold, the soup contains a high amount of sodium per serving. Therefore, a patient with hypertension should limit or avoid this high-sodium food to manage their blood pressure effectively.
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What does the daily value percentage mean on a nutritional label?
How can a patient with hypertension determine their daily sodium limit?
What are some low-sodium alternatives to canned soup?
Which of the following organisms is classified as a protozoan parasite that can cause infection in humans?
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Escherichia coli
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Staphylococcus aureus
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Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
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Giardia lamblia
Answer Description
Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that can cause giardiasis in humans, an infection of the small intestine. This parasite is typically transmitted through water contaminated with the feces of infected individuals or animals. Understanding the nature and transmission of such infectious agents is crucial in clinical settings to prevent and manage disease outbreaks.
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What are protozoan parasites?
How does Giardia lamblia infect humans?
What are the symptoms of giardiasis?
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