AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.
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Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
A patient diagnosed with diabetes consistently justifies his non-adherence to dietary guidelines by saying the guidelines are too restrictive and unrealistic. This patient is most likely employing which psychological concept as a coping strategy?
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Regression
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Projection
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Suppression
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Rationalization
Answer Description
Rationalization is a defense mechanism where an individual justifies or makes excuses for behaviors or feelings in an attempt to self-justify actions that may be considered inappropriate or unacceptable, thus avoiding the true reasons behind the behavior. In the healthcare setting, recognizing rationalization can help medical assistants to better understand patient behavior and address non-compliance with care plans in a supportive manner.
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What is rationalization in psychology?
How can healthcare professionals address rationalization in patients?
What are some other defense mechanisms similar to rationalization?
Which of the following methods is the BEST practice for disposing of paper documents containing Protected Health Information (PHI) in a medical office?
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Incinerating the documents
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Shredding the documents before recycling
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Throwing the documents in the trash bin
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Placing the documents directly into the recycling bin
Answer Description
Shredding paper documents is the best practice because it physically destroys the PHI, making it irrecoverable and thus maintaining confidentiality. Incineration is also an effective method but is less practical for office settings. Recycling without shredding and throwing documents in the trash do not protect the information and could lead to unauthorized access, breaching HIPAA regulations.
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What does PHI stand for and why is it important?
What is HIPAA and how does it relate to disposing of PHI?
What are other acceptable methods for ensuring safe disposal of PHI?
What is the primary purpose of placing a patient in the lithotomy position during an Obstetric/Gynecologic examination?
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To provide optimal access to the pelvic organs for examination or procedure.
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To prepare the patient for an upper extremity intravenous infusion or blood draw.
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To facilitate deep breathing and relaxation of the abdominal muscles during an abdominal assessment.
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To reduce lower back pain by allowing for a neutral spine position during the examination.
Answer Description
The lithotomy position is used primarily for pelvic examinations, including pap smears, pelvic exams, and obstetric procedures, because it provides optimal access to the pelvic organs. This position involves the patient lying on their back with knees bent, hips rotated outward, and feet placed in stirrups. Other positions may be used for different types of examinations or procedures and do not offer the same level of access for Obstetric/Gynecologic assessments.
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What are some specific procedures where the lithotomy position is commonly used?
What are the benefits of using the lithotomy position compared to other positions?
Are there any potential risks or discomforts associated with the lithotomy position?
A medical assistant is instructed to collect a random urine specimen from a patient for a routine urinalysis. What is the most appropriate next step for the medical assistant to perform?
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Instruct the patient to clean the genital area with an antiseptic wipe prior to collection.
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Collect all urine the patient excretes over the next 24-hour period.
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Provide the patient with a clean, labeled container and instructions for collecting the specimen.
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Perform a straight catheterization procedure to obtain the urine specimen from the bladder.
Answer Description
For collecting a random urine specimen, the medical assistant should first provide the patient with a clean, labeled container and clear instructions on how to collect the sample, ensuring that it is not contaminated. This includes washing hands prior to collection and collecting midstream urine. The other options are specific to other types of urine collection methods (e.g., midstream clean catch requires specific cleaning of the genital area, timed collections require urine to be collected over a period such as 24 hours, and catheterization is an invasive method used only when the patient is unable to provide a sample themselves).
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What is a random urine specimen and how is it different from other types?
Why does the medical assistant need to use a clean, labeled container for urine collection?
What specific instructions should be given to the patient for collecting a urine specimen?
Which method is most effective in reducing the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted infections while discussing preventive measures with a patient?
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Suggest relying on natural immunity as the primary preventive measure against STIs.
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Encourage the use of barrier methods during each sexual encounter.
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Identify strategies to boost overall immune system health as the main counseling topic.
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Promote abstinence as the only necessary discussion point for STI prevention.
Answer Description
Using barrier methods, such as condoms, is recognized as the most effective way to reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections during sexual activity. While abstinence completely eliminates the risk of STIs, it may not be a practical or acceptable option for all patients, and discussing it may not align with the preventive measures that are part of patient education. Immunizations and antiviral medications are important in the context of specific infections but do not provide broad prevention against all STIs like barrier methods do.
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What are barrier methods and how do they work?
Why is relying on natural immunity not an effective preventive measure for STIs?
Why is abstinence considered an effective STI prevention method, yet not practical for all patients?
A regular patient scheduled for a routine follow-up fails to arrive at the designated appointment time and does not provide prior notice. As a medical administrative assistant, what is the most appropriate initial action to take regarding this no-show?
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Immediately charge a no-show fee to the patient's account.
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Send a letter to the patient informing them of a discontinued care due to non-attendance.
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Call the patient to inquire about the missed appointment and reschedule.
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Document the no-show in the patient's medical record.
Answer Description
The correct response is to document the no-show in the patient's medical record as it is necessary to maintain an accurate account of the patient's appointment history. It helps in identifying patterns of non-attendance and may also have implications for billing and future scheduling. Calling the patient to schedule a new appointment, considering charging a no-show fee, and sending a letter to the patient about the missed appointment are subsequent steps after the no-show has been documented. It is essential not to jump to conclusions or take punitive measures without first recording the incident accurately.
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Why is it important to document a no-show in the patient's medical record?
What are the potential consequences for a patient who frequently misses appointments?
What steps should be taken after documenting a patient's no-show?
During a visit, a patient diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus was provided with a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion pump. The medical assistant needs to select the appropriate HCPCS Level II code for the supply item. Which code should be used to accurately bill for this device?
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A4605
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A4209
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K0553
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E0784
Answer Description
The correct answer accurately identifies 'A4605' for the insulin infusion pump as the code for a Diabetes management supply, specifically a supply for external drug infusion pump, short term (less than a month), silicone catheter. It is crucial to choose the code that closely matches the description of the supplied item, in this instance, considering the type of diabetes, the fact that it is an insulin infusion pump, and that it's clearly designated as a short-term usage item. The incorrect answers, although related to diabetes supplies, do not match the description of a short-term insulin infusion pump supply.
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What is HCPCS Level II and why is it important?
What does A4605 specifically refer to?
Why is it important to distinguish between different HCPCS codes?
How often should a medical assistant advise a patient with Type 1 diabetes to check their blood glucose levels?
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Only when experiencing symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemia
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Once a month during a visit to the healthcare provider
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Once a week
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At least three to four times a day
Answer Description
Patients with Type 1 diabetes may require insulin to manage their blood glucose levels. It is essential for these patients to monitor their blood glucose levels multiple times a day. Frequent monitoring allows them to adjust their insulin doses properly and maintain their blood sugar within their target range. This helps prevent the acute complications of diabetes, such as hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar). Less frequent monitoring might not provide enough information for effective glucose control and could lead to unmanaged swings in blood glucose levels.
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Why is it important for Type 1 diabetes patients to check their blood glucose levels multiple times a day?
What are the symptoms of hypo- and hyperglycemia that a patient with Type 1 diabetes should watch for?
How does insulin therapy work for patients with Type 1 diabetes and its relation to blood glucose monitoring?
A provider orders an imaging study for a patient who reports chronic headaches and occasional dizziness. To obtain detailed images of the brain to rule out structural causes, which of the following imaging studies should the medical assistant prepare the patient for that will best provide the needed information?
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Ultrasound
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Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
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Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
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X-ray
Answer Description
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) offers the best detailed imaging of the brain's structure, making it the ideal choice for investigating potential causes of chronic headaches and dizziness that may be related to structural issues in the brain. While CT scans also provide detailed images, an MRI is more sensitive to changes in the soft tissue, which makes it more suitable for brain imaging in this case. An X-ray is typically used for imaging bones and would not provide the same level of detail for brain structures. An Ultrasound is not the method of choice for brain imaging due to the skull obstructed sound waves and is more commonly used for abdominal and pelvic exams.
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What are the advantages of MRI over CT scans for brain imaging?
What specific conditions can an MRI identify that might explain chronic headaches and dizziness?
Are there any risks or considerations for patients undergoing an MRI?
A 54-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, wheezing, and a known history of asthma. The provider orders a medication to relieve the patient's acute bronchospasm. Which of the following medications should be prepared for immediate administration?
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Fluticasone
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Epinephrine
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Albuterol
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Montelukast
Answer Description
Albuterol is a bronchodilator used in treating acute asthma attacks by relaxing the muscles of the airway and increasing the flow of air to the lungs. Epinephrine, while also used in respiratory emergencies, is typically administered for severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, and not specifically indicated for a less severe asthma attack where albuterol is usually the first line of treatment. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term management of asthma and to prevent bronchoconstriction, but it is not used for immediate relief. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used to manage the symptoms of asthma over the long term and is also not suitable for rapid relief during an acute episode.
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What is albuterol and how does it work?
What are the differences between albuterol and epinephrine?
When should medications like montelukast and fluticasone be used?
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a surgical scrub?
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To ensure that the surgical instruments are properly handled during a surgical procedure
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To thoroughly clean and reduce the number of microorganisms on the hands and forearms before a surgical procedure
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To sterilize the hands and forearms completely before any patient examination
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To maintain personal hygiene of medical staff after performing surgery
Answer Description
The surgical scrub is a procedure performed to remove microorganisms and transient flora from the hands and forearms, using antiseptic soap and water or an alcohol-based hand scrub, to reduce the risk of post-operative infections.
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What are microorganisms and why is it important to reduce them before surgery?
What techniques are commonly used during a surgical scrub?
How does a surgical scrub differ from regular handwashing?
A patient presents with multiple injuries at varying stages of healing. When questioned about the cause of these injuries, the patient gives vague explanations and appears to avoid eye contact. Which of the following actions by the medical assistant is most appropriate for screening and detecting potential domestic violence?
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Pressure the patient for more information regarding the origin of the injuries.
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Ignore the signs and avoid further questioning to preserve the patient's privacy.
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Ask the patient if they feel safe in their relationships and at home.
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Offer the patient a list of generic community resources without addressing the injuries.
Answer Description
The medical assistant should ask the patient about safety in their relationships and home environment as it is an open-ended question that addresses the issue directly without making assumptions. This approach allows individuals to disclose information in their own words and may help them feel more comfortable discussing sensitive issues in a non-threatening environment. Offering generic resources or ignoring the signs may neglect the patient's immediate needs, and pressuring for information can make the patient less likely to disclose.
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What are the common signs of domestic violence that a medical assistant should recognize?
Why is it important for medical assistants to ask open-ended questions when screening for domestic violence?
What resources can be provided to a patient who is a potential victim of domestic violence?
During your routine quality control checks in a clinic laboratory, you notice that the control value for a glucose test is repeatedly falling outside the acceptable range. According to CLIA regulations and good practice, what is the most appropriate next step to take?
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Adjust the acceptable range parameters for the glucose test to include the outlier control values.
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Run additional controls to see if the results fall within the acceptable range before taking any further action.
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Continue to test patient specimens and mark the control values as exceptions in the records.
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Troubleshoot the test system to identify and correct the problem, run new controls, and document all actions taken.
Answer Description
When control values for a laboratory test fall outside the acceptable range, it suggests a potential issue with the test system, which must be addressed before patient specimens can be reliably tested. Validating the accuracy and reliability of the test through troubleshooting, correcting any problems, and documenting the actions taken are key steps to maintaining compliance with CLIA regulations and ensuring the confidence in patient test results. Running additional controls would be appropriate after addressing the potential issue and would not be the immediate next step. Continuing to test patient specimens without addressing the outlier control value risks reporting inaccurate results, and changing the acceptable range parameters would not resolve the underlying problem.
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What are CLIA regulations?
What are the consequences of running patient specimens without addressing control value issues?
What does the troubleshooting process involve when facing quality control issues?
Items to be sterilized in an autoclave must be completely dry before the process begins.
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Items must be completely dry before sterilization in an autoclave.
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Items do not need to be completely dry before sterilization in an autoclave.
Answer Description
Items should not be completely dry before being placed in an autoclave. They require a small amount of moisture because the autoclave uses pressurized steam to achieve sterilization. Without the presence of moisture, the steam cannot effectively penetrate and sterilize items. However, excessive amounts of moisture can lead to inefficient sterilization and should be avoided.
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Why is moisture important for the autoclave sterilization process?
What happens if items are too dry before autoclaving?
How do I know if items are adequately moist before autoclaving?
During a pediatric exam, which position is often used to facilitate the examination of the head, neck, and chest in young infants?
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Supine
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Prone
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Seated
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Knee-chest
Answer Description
The supine position is often used for examining infants as it allows easy access to the head, neck, and anterior chest region. This position is where the child lies on their back, which is suitable for most pediatric exams, especially for young infants. The prone position would be used for the examination of the infant's back and hips, while the seated position is usually for older children capable of supporting themselves in a seated posture. The knee-chest position is generally used for rectal examinations and is not the primary choice for the examination of the head, neck, and chest.
Ask Bash
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Why is the supine position preferred for examining infants?
What is the difference between the supine and prone positions in pediatric exams?
When might a healthcare provider choose to use the knee-chest position with infants?
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