AAMA CMA Practice Test
American Association of Medical Assistants: Certified Medical Assistant
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AAMA CMA Information
Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) Certification
The Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certification is a credential awarded by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) to individuals who have demonstrated expertise in the medical assisting field. To earn this certification, candidates must complete a medical assisting program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES). Following the completion of their education, candidates must pass the CMA Certification Exam, which assesses their knowledge and skills in various areas such as clinical and administrative procedures, medical laws and ethics, and patient care.
Obtaining the CMA certification offers numerous benefits to medical assistants. It serves as a mark of excellence and commitment to the profession, which can enhance job prospects and career advancement opportunities. Certified Medical Assistants are often preferred by employers because they have verified their competency through a rigorous certification process. Additionally, CMAs typically earn higher salaries compared to their non-certified counterparts and may have access to a broader range of job opportunities in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, and private practices.
The maintenance of the CMA certification requires ongoing education and professional development. Certified Medical Assistants must recertify every 60 months by either retaking the CMA Certification Exam or earning continuing education units (CEUs). This requirement ensures that CMAs remain current with the evolving practices and advancements in the medical field, thereby maintaining high standards of patient care and professional competency. By committing to lifelong learning, CMAs continue to uphold the integrity and reputation of their certification, contributing to the overall quality of healthcare services.
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Free AAMA CMA Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Clinical CompetencyGeneralAdministrative
The large intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of water from indigestible food matter.
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False
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True
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the large intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of water from indigestible food matter. This is a fundamental aspect of the digestive process, as the large intestine reclaims water before waste is eliminated from the body. Understanding this function is important for recognizing and addressing digestive problems related to hydration and bowel movements.
Ask Bash
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What are the main functions of the large intestine besides water absorption?
How does dehydration affect the function of the large intestine?
What digestive problems can arise from improper large intestine function?
A patient with chronic kidney disease is being educated on managing their condition through dietary changes. Which of the following dietary adjustments is most appropriate for this patient?
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Avoid all dairy products to reduce the load on kidney processing.
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Increase the intake of potassium-rich foods to replace what is lost through dialysis.
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Limit protein intake and monitor potassium, phosphorus, and sodium levels.
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Increase protein intake to support kidney function and repair.
Answer Description
Patients with chronic kidney disease typically need to limit their protein intake to decrease the burden on the kidneys, which are responsible for filtering waste products from protein metabolism. They also need to monitor their intake of potassium, phosphorus, and sodium, as their kidneys can no longer regulate these minerals effectively. However, the answer highlighting the reduction in protein intake is the most directly related to the provided scenario, assuming the patient's renal function is compromised. Excessive protein can lead to a buildup of waste products in the blood, further damaging the kidneys. It's important to note that different stages of kidney disease will require varying dietary adjustments, and a dietitian should personalize these recommendations.
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Why is it important for patients with chronic kidney disease to limit protein intake?
What are the roles of potassium, phosphorus, and sodium in kidney disease management?
How do dietary changes differ across the stages of chronic kidney disease?
If a patient requires specialized treatment not offered at your current healthcare facility, what is the BEST approach for a Medical Assistant to ensure proper coordination of care?
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Provide a referral to the appropriate specialist, schedule the referral appointment, and confirm the patient's understanding of the next steps.
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Notify the healthcare team about the need for specialized treatment without directly engaging with the patient.
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Document the need for specialized care in the patient's medical record and assume they will follow up on this information.
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Schedule a follow-up appointment at the current healthcare facility to reassess the patient's need for specialized care in the future.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to provide a referral to the appropriate specialist and confirm the patient's understanding of the next steps. This ensures continuity of care by guiding the patient to an appropriate provider who can address their specific healthcare needs. It is also important to engage the patient in the process to ensure they are aware of and understand the reasons for the referral. While notifying the healthcare team and documenting in the patient's record are necessary actions, they do not encompass the complete coordination process like the correct answer does. Simply scheduling a follow-up appointment is not sufficient if the follow-up care required is with a different specialist outside of the Medical Assistant's current healthcare facility.
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What steps should I take when referring a patient to a specialist?
Why is patient engagement important in care coordination?
What are the roles of healthcare team communication in referral processes?
During a minor surgical procedure, the healthcare provider asks you to hand them an instrument for clamping blood vessels to stop bleeding. Which of the following instruments should you provide?
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Tweezers
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Needle holders
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Scalpels
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Hemostats
Answer Description
Hemostats are the correct instrument to provide when a healthcare provider asks for an instrument to clamp blood vessels. Hemostats are specifically designed to control bleeding by clamping blood vessels. Needle holders are used to hold needles during suturing, while scalpels are used for cutting tissue, and tweezers are used for grasping small objects, none of which are appropriate for clamping blood vessels.
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What are hemostats used for in surgery?
Can you explain the functions of needle holders and when they are used?
What differentiates scalpels from hemostats in surgical procedures?
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for voluntary control of body movements.
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True
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False
Answer Description
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary body functions, such as heart rate, blood flow, breathing, and digestion. It operates independently of voluntary control. Voluntary control of body movements is the function of the somatic nervous system, not the autonomic nervous system.
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What is the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
What is the somatic nervous system?
How do the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems differ?
When performing a subcutaneous immunotherapy procedure on a patient with documented seasonal allergies, what is the immediate action a medical assistant should take if the patient starts to exhibit symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing and widespread hives?
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Provide an antihistamine and wait for improvement
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Ask the patient to drink water and rest in a comfortable position
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Administer epinephrine and call for emergency medical services
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Have the patient lie down and elevate their feet
Answer Description
In cases of anaphylaxis, it is vital to provide emergency treatment right away. Administering epinephrine is the most effective method for counteracting the severe allergic reaction and maintaining airway patency until emergency services arrive.
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What is anaphylaxis and what causes it?
What is epinephrine and why is it used in anaphylaxis?
What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis I should look for?
A patient's mailing address, insurance policy number, and date of birth must always be verified with the patient or their representative at the time of registration to maintain billing accuracy.
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The statement is correct
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The statement is incorrect
Answer Description
Verifying a patient's mailing address, insurance policy number, and date of birth at the time of registration ensures that the provided information is current and correct. This is essential because any discrepancies in these details can lead to claim denials or billing issues. It is imperative to regularly update the patient's records to reflect any changes and to verify their accuracy, as this minimizes the risk of errors in the billing process.
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Why is it important to verify a patient's mailing address?
How can discrepancies in insurance policy numbers affect billing?
What are the consequences of not verifying a patient's date of birth?
A 68-year-old patient presents to the clinic with complaints of heart palpitations and light-headedness. Upon taking the patient's vital signs, you notice an irregular heart rate with occasional rapid rhythms. Based on these symptoms, which of the following actions should the medical assistant take first?
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Schedule the patient for a follow-up appointment to discuss palpitations
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Notify the provider immediately
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Record an EKG and wait for the provider to review it before taking further action
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Reassure the patient that heart palpitations are common and not typically urgent
Answer Description
The correct answer is Notify the provider immediately because the symptoms suggest a potential cardiac arrhythmia, which may need prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications. Recording the EKG for the provider is indeed an important step but is secondary to alerting the provider about the patient's urgent symptoms. Scheduling a follow-up appointment is premature without the provider's assessment of the situation. Reassuring the patient that the symptoms are common and not urgent would be inappropriate and potentially dangerous, as dismissing potentially serious cardiac symptoms could lead to a delay in necessary treatment.
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What is a cardiac arrhythmia?
Why is it important to notify the provider immediately for these symptoms?
What steps are involved in performing an EKG?
The use of a 1:10 bleach solution is recommended for disinfecting surfaces potentially contaminated with Clostridioides difficile.
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False
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True
Answer Description
Although bleach is an effective disinfectant against many pathogens, the particular strain Clostridioides difficile, commonly referred to as C. diff, is known for its resistance to many conventional cleaning agents. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends using an Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered disinfectant with a C. diff claim or a dilute bleach solution, typically 1:10 (one part bleach to nine parts water), for surfaces potentially contaminated with C. diff spores. The correct answer is true; a 1:10 bleach solution is indeed recommended for this use, highlighting the importance of knowing specific disinfection protocols for different types of pathogens.
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What is Clostridioides difficile and why is it important to disinfect against it?
What is the significance of using a 1:10 bleach solution specifically?
What are some other recommended disinfectants for C. diff besides bleach?
During a patient's examination, which of the following should be included in the documentation under objective data?
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The patient's expression of feeling anxious about the examination results.
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Observation of 2+ pitting edema on the patient's lower extremities.
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The patient's description of a headache that began this morning.
Answer Description
In documenting objective data during an examination, it is essential to include measurable or observable information such as physical examination findings. Options detailing symptoms or feelings reported by the patient would be documented under subjective data, not objective. Observing edema during a physical exam is a measure of fluid accumulation that is directly observed by the healthcare provider and therefore is the correct inclusion for objective data documentation.
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What exactly is objective data in medical documentation?
How is subjective data different from objective data?
Why is it important to differentiate between objective and subjective data?
During an asthma attack, administering a beta-agonist medication typically results in constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle.
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True
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False
Answer Description
The statement is false. Beta-agonist medications, such as albuterol, are commonly used during asthma attacks because they cause bronchodilation, not constriction. They work by binding to beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, leading to muscle relaxation and widening of the airways. This action helps to relieve symptoms of an asthma attack, such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle is the problem during an asthma attack, not the desired effect of treatment.
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What are beta-agonist medications and how do they work?
What is bronchodilation, and why is it important for asthma management?
What are some common side effects of beta-agonist medications?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of using standard precautions in a healthcare setting?
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To comply with biohazard waste disposal regulations exclusively
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To sterilize the healthcare environment and eliminate all microbial life
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To prevent transmission of potential pathogens from patient to patient
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To minimize the risk of transmission of microorganisms to and from healthcare workers and patients
Answer Description
Standard precautions are designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection. These precautions apply to all patients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status, in any setting where healthcare is delivered. The use of gloves, hand hygiene, and protective attire are part of this practice and are critical in minimizing potential exposures.
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What are standard precautions in healthcare?
Why is hand hygiene important in standard precautions?
What types of personal protective equipment (PPE) are typically used?
A physician needs to prescribe a medication that falls under the category requiring the most stringent regulations for a non-emergency situation. Which method of prescription delivery aligns with the federal guidelines for such medications?
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The provider issues the prescription through an approved electronic prescribing system with a secure digital signature.
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A verbal order is given over the phone, with a notation made in the patient's medical record.
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The patient receives a carbon copy of the initial prescription form to present to the pharmacist.
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The provider's office sends a prescription to the pharmacy via a non-secure email as a scanned PDF.
Answer Description
The most stringent regulations apply to medications that have a high potential for abuse and dependence, known as Schedule II controlled substances. The federal guidelines require that these prescriptions be provided to the pharmacy in a written format with the provider's actual signature or through an approved electronic prescribing system that includes a digital signature. Emergency situations allow for verbal prescriptions, but this scenario specifies a non-emergency situation, therefore, an electronic prescription with a digital signature would be appropriate, assuming the system is DEA-compliant. In all other cases presented in the incorrect answers, the methods do not meet the regulatory standards for the category of drug specified.
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What are Schedule II controlled substances?
What is an approved electronic prescribing system?
Why are verbal orders not appropriate for non-emergency situations involving controlled substances?
During a routine physical examination, a 45-year-old patient complains of tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following palpation techniques should be used to further evaluate the possibility of appendicitis?
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Perform serial palpation at 5-minute intervals to identify changes in the level of tenderness over time.
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Begin gentle, graded palpation in the area adjacent to the tender region, progressing carefully towards the point of maximum tenderness.
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Immediately use rebound tenderness technique over the painful region to confirm the presence of appendicitis.
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Apply deep pressure palpation directly over the site of pain to accurately assess the underlying structures.
Answer Description
Gentle, graded palpation is necessary to assess areas of tenderness and possible inflammation without causing excessive discomfort or further injury to the patient. Starting palpation away from the painful area helps to relax the patient and makes it easier to identify the exact point of maximal tenderness. Deep palpation or vigorous palpation of the tender area could exacerbate the pain and may potentially cause harm, especially if the appendix is inflamed and at risk of rupture. Therefore, employing a gentle, graded approach is most appropriate. Serial palpation at intervals is not a technique for exploring acute tenderness as it refers to repeated examinations over time, not assessing tenderness progressively. Moreover, using rebound tenderness as a part of palpation technique is helpful but is not the initial palpation technique used for assessment; it is rather a sign elicited after careful palpation.
Ask Bash
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What is graded palpation and why is it important in this context?
What are the signs of appendicitis that a healthcare provider should look for during palpation?
What is rebound tenderness and when is it used in the assessment of abdominal pain?
As a medical assistant, you notice that a patient appears withdrawn and has recently expressed feelings of hopelessness during their visit. When screening for risk factors associated with self-harm, which of the following actions should you prioritize to best align with the established protocols?
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Advise the patient to seek counseling without further consultation from the provider.
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Document your observations in the patient's record and continue with routine tasks.
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Wait until the end of the day to discuss the patient's behavior with the healthcare team.
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Inform the provider immediately about your observations and concerns.
Answer Description
The best answer is to inform the provider immediately. This is the most critical action to take when a patient shows signs of hopelessness or other suicide risk factors, as it allows the healthcare provider to conduct a thorough assessment and make appropriate interventions. Waiting until the end of the day or documenting your observations without informing the provider can lead to delays in potentially life-saving care. While documenting in the patient's record is important, it should not take precedence over promptly informing the provider.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common signs that indicate a patient may be at risk for self-harm?
What protocols exist for medical assistants when a patient shows signs of self-harm risk?
Why is it important to inform the provider immediately instead of delaying or documenting first?
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