CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1102)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1101 (Core 1)
- 220-1102 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1102
The CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1102 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1102, alongside the 220-1101, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
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Free CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Operating SystemsSecuritySoftware TroubleshootingOperational Procedures
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An unauthorized user observing system security procedure such as typing in a password or pin code is known as:
Spyware
Shoulder Surfing
Phishing
A Worm
Answer Description
Shoulder surfing is a common tactic to gain information by standing near a person as they talk on the phone, fill out a form, or type in their password.
Ask Bash
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What are some techniques to prevent shoulder surfing?
How does shoulder surfing differ from phishing?
What should you do if you suspect you are being shoulder-surfed?
Which command-line tool is used to display the currently active TCP/IP connections on Microsoft Windows?
netstat
Answer Description
netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). Used without parameters, this command displays active TCP connections.
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What does TCP/IP stand for, and why is it important?
What are the different sections of information displayed by the netstat command?
How can I use netstat to troubleshoot network issues?
You are tasked with testing a new software update in a controlled environment before a full deployment. Which best practice should be conducted to minimize the risk of impacting the production systems?
Conduct a risk analysis
Perform sandbox testing
Directly implement the change in the production environment
Submit a change request form
Answer Description
Sandbox testing involves setting up an isolated environment that replicates the production setup. This allows you to test new updates, changes, or software without affecting the live environment. Using sandbox testing helps ensure that any issues are identified and resolved before implementing changes in the production environment. Other practices, like performing risk analysis and submitting change request forms, are equally important but come into play at different stages of the change management process.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is sandbox testing and how is it different from other testing environments?
What are the benefits of conducting a risk analysis before software deployment?
What is a change request form, and why is it important in the change management process?
Alex, a technician, would like to map a network drive when he starts up his computer in the morning. Which of the following commands would he use to accomplish this task?
NETSTAT
NET
NSLOOKUP
NBTSTAT
Answer Description
The NET command in Windows provides many options, including the NET USE command tool. The NET USE command will show and configure mapped network drives from a shared resource like a NAS or a storage server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the NET command do in Windows?
What is the NET USE command specifically used for?
Can you explain what NAS means?
During onboarding at a new company, you receive a laptop and are asked to sign an agreement that spells out what you may and may not do with that device and other company resources. Which acronym best describes this policy document?
SLA
SOP
AUP
SOW
Answer Description
An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a document organizations require users to acknowledge before granting access to company devices, networks, or data. It clearly states allowed and prohibited activities-for example, that users must obey the law and avoid visiting banned websites-so the organization can enforce security and compliance.
Ask Bash
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What does AUP stand for and what are its main components?
What are the consequences of violating an AUP?
Can you give examples of common topics covered in an AUP?
When formatting a new USB flash drive for a client, the client requests the maximum possible file size for single file storage on that device. Given the client’s request, which filesystem should you advise against using?
exFAT
FAT32
APFS
NTFS
Answer Description
Be sure to read this one carefully! It asks which you would advice against using.
FAT32 is a filesystem with a maximum file size limit of 4 GB, which is less than what clients requiring storage of larger individual files would need. NTFS and exFAT do not have this 4 GB limitation and can store files much larger than 4 GB, thus making them more appropriate choices for storing large individual files.
Ask Bash
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What are the advantages of using NTFS over FAT32 for file storage?
What is the difference between exFAT and FAT32?
What types of filesystems are recommended for different storage needs?
What type of OS installation type updates an OS and can keep existing files, applications and settings?
Repair installation
Clean install
None of these options
In-place upgrade
Answer Description
An in-place upgrade is an installation type that updates an existing operating system while keeping things like files, applications and settings from the existing operating system.
Ask Bash
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What is an in-place upgrade and how does it work?
What are the benefits of an in-place upgrade compared to a clean install?
What situations would necessitate considering alternatives to an in-place upgrade?
In a small office/home office (SOHO) environment, the network administrator is configuring the office wireless router to secure the network against external threats. Which of the following actions would BEST increase the security of the network?
Disabling UPnP on the router
Disabling SSID broadcast
Changing the router's service set identifier (SSID)
Setting up port forwarding/mapping to unspecified services
Answer Description
Disabling Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) on a wireless router can significantly enhance the security of a network. UPnP can be exploited by malware to open ports without a user's knowledge, potentially allowing external threats to penetrate the network. Therefore, disabling it reduces the risks of such vulnerabilities. Changing the SSID does not inherently secure the network—this action just changes the network name. While disabling SSID broadcast may somewhat obscure the network from casual discovery, it is not a robust security measure as SSID can be discovered by more determined attackers using simple tools. Port forwarding/mapping is typically used to allow external devices to access services within the private network and is not a method to enhance network security.
Ask Bash
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What is UPnP and how does it pose a security risk?
What are some best practices for securing a wireless network?
What is the importance of SSID in wireless networking?
A technician is performing a malware removal process on a PC running Windows 10. As part of the best practice procedures for malware removal, they need to disable System Restore. Which of the following describes the correct sequence to achieve this?
Open Control Panel, navigate to System and Security, select System, click on the System protection link, and adjust the settings under the Protection Settings dialog.
In the search bar, type 'Restore' and select 'Create a restore point,' then under System Protection, use the slider to set the disk space usage for System Restore to zero.
Open Settings, go to Update & Security, select Backup, and turn off the toggle for Back up using File History to disable System Restore.
Right-click on the taskbar, open Task Manager, go to the Startup tab, and disable System Restore from the list of startup items.
Answer Description
The correct way to disable System Restore involves accessing the System Properties dialog, which is accessed via the Control Panel. From there, navigating to the 'System Protection' tab and choosing the appropriate drive configurations ensures that System Restore can be turned off for specific drives, where changes are confirmed by applying the modifications. This process is essential for ensuring that malware does not remain in the system by eliminating the possibility of reverting to a system state that might still be infected.
Ask Bash
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What is System Restore and why is it important in malware removal?
What are restore points, and how can they affect my computer?
How can I access the System Properties dialog to disable System Restore?
During a maintenance review, a technician finds that an automation script allocates large data structures but never explicitly frees the memory after each run. If this script continues to run on a schedule without modification, which of the following problems is MOST likely to occur?
Overall CPU utilization will permanently drop, leading to slower processing but no stability issues.
The script file will be automatically quarantined by antivirus software due to excessive memory use.
The system's available memory will steadily decrease, eventually degrading performance or causing crashes.
Disk fragmentation will rapidly increase because unreleased memory blocks are written to disk.
Answer Description
Failing to release memory after it is no longer needed results in a memory leak. Each time the script runs, additional RAM is consumed but not returned to the operating system; over time the available memory shrinks. As free memory becomes scarce, the OS must page to disk more frequently, overall performance degrades, and the system can eventually freeze or crash. Antivirus actions, CPU throttling, or disk fragmentation are not typical direct consequences of a memory leak.
Ask Bash
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What are memory leaks and how do they occur?
How can developers prevent memory leaks in scripts?
What are the signs of system instability due to memory leaks?
A user within the organization is consistently receiving data-usage limit notifications on their mobile device towards the end of each billing cycle. The IT policy enforces restrictions on streaming media and large downloads over cellular data. The employee confirms adherence to these policies and there have been no new applications installed. What is the MOST likely reason for these notifications and what should the technician investigate FIRST?
Perform an immediate update of all applications on the device, assuming that outdated apps are causing the excess data usage.
Conduct a thorough malware scan, suspecting a malware infection is the cause of increased data usage.
Investigate detailed cellular data usage in the device settings to identify which applications or services are using the most data.
Enforce a stricter data plan for the user's device to prevent them from exceeding the organizational data-usage limit.
Answer Description
If the employee is adhering to usage policies and has not installed new applications, then the most likely reason for the data overages could be background data usage by applications or system services. Investigating the detailed cellular data usage in the device settings is the logical first step as it can reveal which applications or system services are using unexpected amounts of data despite the user's activities. An application update might not directly correlate to data usage limits, and malware is less likely without new application installations or other symptoms. Changing the user's data plan does not address the root cause and should be considered after other troubleshooting steps.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'background data usage' mean?
How can I check which apps are using the most data on my device?
What are some common apps that tend to use excessive data?
Which acronym best describes patient data stored in a hospital's database?
PII
PPP
PHI
PCI
Answer Description
Patient data within a hospital is specifically categorized as Protected Health Information (PHI), which is regulated in the U.S. by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). While PHI is a type of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), the term 'PHI' is the most precise description in a healthcare context because it pertains directly to medical information. Payment Card Industry (PCI) data relates to credit card details, not general patient health records. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is a networking protocol and is not relevant to data classification.
Ask Bash
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What does PHI stand for and why is it important?
What is the difference between PHI and PII?
What kind of information falls under the PCI standard?
You have been instructed to configure a database server running Windows Server 2022 to alert technicians when the server's processor or memory is running above 75% capacity. Which of the following technologies will help you achieve this?
Task Manager
Task Scheduler
System Configuration
Performance Monitor
Answer Description
Performance monitor is a Windows tool that can be used to monitor and log a system's health and status in real time. Task Manager can display similar information but does not log and should only be used as a quick reference.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Performance Monitor?
How do I set up alerts in Performance Monitor?
What are the differences between Performance Monitor and Task Manager?
A technician needs to provide assistance to a remote client who is not very technologically savvy. The client requires a software installation and some configuration changes. Which remote access technology would BEST suit this scenario, ensuring ease of use for the client and allowing the technician to perform the necessary tasks?
Virtual Network Computer (VNC)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Microsoft Remote Assistance (MSRA)
Secure Shell (SSH)
Answer Description
Using Microsoft Remote Assistance (MSRA), the technician can request to control the client's computer with the client's permission and demonstrate the proper installation and configuration process. The client will only need to accept the invitation, making it straightforward for users without extensive technical knowledge. Other options, like VPNs and SSH, require more client involvement and knowledge, and are therefore not the best fit for this scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Microsoft Remote Assistance and how does it work?
Why are VPNs and SSH less suitable for non-technical clients?
What are the security implications when using Microsoft Remote Assistance?
A user's Windows 10 computer is experiencing difficulty connecting to network printers. Other network resources are accessible, but the printers keep appearing offline. Other users are able to use the printers without issue. Which of the following is the BEST step to take first?
Restart the 'Print Spooler' service
Reinstall the printer drivers
Check the network cables connected to the printers
Restart the 'Network List' service
Answer Description
Restarting the 'Print Spooler' service is often the best initial step to resolve issues related to network printers appearing offline. This service manages print jobs and restarting it can clear any stuck jobs or refresh the connection to network printers. Checking cables from the printers or reinstalling printer drivers might also help but are usually secondary steps after ensuring the services are running correctly.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the 'Print Spooler' service and why is it important?
What other steps can be taken if restarting the Print Spooler doesn't resolve the issue?
What are some common reasons a printer can appear offline?
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