Multistate Bar Examination Practice Test
NCBE MBE
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Multistate Bar Examination Information
National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE) Multistate Bar Examination (MBE)
The Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) is a standardized test developed by the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE). It is a key component of the bar exam in most U.S. jurisdictions and assesses fundamental legal principles and reasoning skills. The MBE is designed to evaluate a candidate’s ability to apply legal principles and analyze fact patterns across multiple areas of law.
Exam Overview
The MBE consists of 200 multiple-choice questions administered over two three-hour sessions on a single day. Of these, 175 questions are scored, while 25 are unscored pretest questions. The test is divided into two parts: 100 questions in the morning session and 100 in the afternoon. The exam is typically offered twice a year, in February and July. The score required to pass varies by jurisdiction.
Exam Content
The MBE covers seven key areas of law: constitutional law, contracts, criminal law and procedure, evidence, real property, torts, and civil procedure. Constitutional law focuses on governmental powers and individual rights. Contracts assess contract formation, performance, breach, and remedies. Criminal law and procedure cover general principles, specific crimes, and constitutional protections. Evidence tests knowledge of relevance, hearsay, and trial procedures. Real property includes ownership, rights, and transfers. Torts cover liability, negligence, and defenses. Civil procedure examines jurisdiction, pretrial procedures, and trial rules.
Who Should Take This Exam?
The MBE is required for most individuals seeking admission to the bar in the United States. It is typically taken by law school graduates as part of their state’s bar examination process. Some jurisdictions require additional state-specific testing alongside the MBE. Candidates should check with their jurisdiction’s bar admissions office for specific requirements.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the official NCBE MBE Subject Matter Outline and study materials provided by bar preparation programs. Practice exams can help assess knowledge and improve timing. Many candidates use commercial bar review courses, flashcards, and question banks for additional preparation. Studying legal concepts and practicing under timed conditions can help build test-taking skills.
Summary
The NCBE Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) is a critical component of the bar exam in most U.S. jurisdictions. It assesses core legal knowledge and analytical reasoning across seven areas of law. Proper preparation, including practice exams and bar review courses, is essential for success.

Free Multistate Bar Examination Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Civil ProcedureConstitutional LawContractsCriminal Law and ProcedureEvidenceReal PropertyTorts
A tenant and landlord entered into a one-year lease for an apartment. Six months into the lease, the tenant moved to another state due to a new job opportunity and informed the landlord that they would no longer be living in the apartment. The tenant returned the keys to the landlord and stated in writing that they would not be paying rent for the remainder of the term. The landlord refused to mitigate damages by finding a replacement tenant and instead let the apartment sit vacant. After the lease ended, the landlord demanded payment from the tenant for the remaining six months of rent under the lease.
Is the tenant obligated to pay the remaining rent?
Yes, because the tenant vacated the property without fulfilling the lease term.
No, because the landlord’s failure to accept the tenant’s keys amounted to a constructive termination of the lease.
No, because the landlord failed to make reasonable efforts to re-let the apartment.
Yes, because the written notice of abandonment did not release the tenant from liability.
Answer Description
The correct answer is based on the principle that, under modern landlord-tenant law, a landlord has a duty to mitigate damages when a tenant abandons the lease early. The landlord must make reasonable efforts to re-let the property instead of letting it sit empty to recover unpaid rent. This approach is consistent with the equitable principle of limiting windfall recoveries.
Incorrect answers often fail to consider this duty. For instance, while a landlord has remedies to recover unpaid rent, these are contingent upon demonstrating efforts to mitigate losses. Arguments about 'surrender' could confuse candidates, but formal surrender requires the landlord's agreement to terminate the lease, which did not happen here. Similarly, broad statements that the tenant is 'fully liable' disregard the modern law of mitigation obligations.
Ask Bash
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What does the landlord's duty to mitigate damages involve?
What is considered 'reasonable effort' to re-let an apartment?
What happens if the landlord successfully re-lets the apartment?
A city council passes an ordinance prohibiting individuals from distributing flyers promoting any event on public sidewalks, claiming that this restriction reduces litter from discarded flyers. A local activist challenges the ordinance, claiming it violates their rights under the First Amendment. Is the ordinance constitutional?
The ordinance is unconstitutional because certain types of city regulation of public sidewalks are prohibited by the Commerce Clause.
The ordinance is constitutional because it regulates conduct (distribution of materials) and not speech.
The ordinance is unconstitutional because a ban on distributing flyers in a public forum without sufficient justification violates the First Amendment.
The ordinance is constitutional because reducing litter is a legitimate government objective, and cities may regulate the use of sidewalks.
Answer Description
The ordinance is unconstitutional because a ban on distributing flyers in a traditionally public forum like sidewalks imposes a content-based restriction that infringes on First Amendment rights. While the government has a legitimate interest in reducing litter, the ordinance is not narrowly tailored to meet this goal. Broad prohibitions on expressive activities require strict scrutiny and need to show they are the least restrictive means to achieve the objective, which this ordinance fails to do. Cities could adopt content-neutral measures, such as increased trash receptacles or targeted enforcement of littering laws. Other options are incorrect because they misunderstand the distinction between content-based and content-neutral restrictions or misapply constitutional principles. For instance, regulation of expressive conduct can still constitute a restriction on speech, and the Commerce Clause is irrelevant in this scenario because the city's restriction does not impact interstate commerce.
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What does 'strict scrutiny' mean in First Amendment cases?
What is a 'public forum' under the First Amendment?
How could the city achieve its goal of reducing litter without violating the First Amendment?
Jamie sells a designer handbag to Taylor, claiming it was obtained through legitimate means from a reputable store. In reality, the handbag was unlawfully taken from Jamie's friend. Taylor completed the purchase under the impression that the handbag was legally acquired. Which of the following accurately describes Taylor's potential criminal responsibility?
Taylor is not charged with an offense since the transaction was between private individuals.
Taylor is charged with receiving stolen goods despite believing the handbag was legitimately obtained.
Taylor is charged with theft due to her intention to use the handbag without compensating the owner.
Taylor is not charged with receiving stolen goods because she proceeded under the belief that the handbag was legitimate.
Answer Description
Taylor is not charged with receiving stolen goods because she proceeded under the belief that the handbag was legitimately obtained. Criminal liability for receiving stolen goods typically requires that the receiver knew the property was stolen. The other options incorrectly attribute liability without the necessary intent or misrepresent the nature of the crime.
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What does 'receiving stolen goods' mean in criminal law?
What does intent mean in the context of criminal responsibility?
Does a private transaction between individuals remove criminal liability?
A delivery driver consistently ignores local traffic regulations by exceeding speed limits and not adhering to designated delivery routes. As a result, the driver causes an accident. Which of the following best illustrates how rules derived from statutes or custom establish the standard of care in this scenario?
The delivery driver drove in heavy traffic conditions without additional precautions.
The delivery driver violated local traffic laws, which establish the standard of care for drivers in that jurisdiction.
The delivery driver chose a faster route to improve efficiency in the industry.
The delivery driver believed that speed limits were guidelines and not enforceable rules.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the delivery driver violated local traffic laws, which establish the standard of care for drivers in that jurisdiction. Local traffic laws are statutory rules that define the expected behavior of drivers. By exceeding speed limits and ignoring designated routes, the driver failed to meet these established standards, resulting in negligence. The other options do not directly relate to statutory or customary rules that set the standard of care. Choosing a faster route to improve efficiency does not necessarily breach any specific laws, driving in heavy traffic without additional precautions lacks a direct connection to statutory standards, and believing speed limits are guidelines overlooks the enforceable nature of these laws.
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What is the standard of care in negligence cases?
How do statutory rules influence the standard of care?
What is the role of custom in establishing the standard of care?
In a civil lawsuit, the plaintiff requests the defendant to produce certain electronic documents during the discovery phase. The defendant refuses, claiming that the request is overly broad and imposes an undue burden. What is the most appropriate action for the plaintiff to take to obtain these documents?
File for summary judgment based on the defendant's refusal
File a motion to compel the defendant to produce the requested documents
Request a protective order to limit the scope of the discovery
Proceed to trial without the contested documents
Answer Description
Filing a motion to compel is the appropriate action for the plaintiff. This motion asks the court to order the defendant to comply with the discovery request. Ignoring the refusal would leave the plaintiff without the needed documents, filing for summary judgment is premature before obtaining discovery, and requesting a protective order is typically sought by the party resisting the discovery, not the one seeking it.
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What is a motion to compel in civil litigation?
What does 'undue burden' mean in the context of discovery?
How does the court decide whether to grant a motion to compel?
A corporation headquartered in State X is sued by a company based in State Y for breach of contract. The lawsuit is filed in a State X state court, but the defendant seeks to remove the case to federal court. Which of the following conditions would allow the federal court to properly exercise jurisdiction?
The parties mutually consent to remove the case to federal court and file a formal agreement.
The amount in controversy falls below the jurisdictional threshold, even though the corporations are incorporated in different states.
The amount in controversy is greater than $75,000, and the two corporations are incorporated and headquartered in different states.
The corporations are incorporated and headquartered in the same state; the lawsuit involves a discussion of federal contract regulations.
Answer Description
Federal courts assert jurisdiction under 'diversity jurisdiction' if the parties are citizens of different states (complete diversity is required) and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000. The correct answer satisfies both conditions, showcasing valid diversity jurisdiction. Other options fail because one does not meet the monetary requirement, another incorrectly applies federal question jurisdiction, and the last misinterprets the effect of mutual consent, which cannot independently confer federal jurisdiction.
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What is 'diversity jurisdiction' in federal courts?
Why does the amount in controversy need to exceed $75,000 for diversity jurisdiction?
Can parties consent to federal jurisdiction through mutual agreement?
Three siblings inherit a family vacation home as tenants in common. They all wish to terminate their co-ownership without selling the property. Which type of partition should they pursue?
Partition by merger, where the co-owners' interests merge into a single ownership.
Partition in kind, which involves physically dividing the property among the co-owners.
Partition by sale, which involves selling the property and dividing the proceeds among the co-owners.
Partition by abstraction, a non-recognized legal method of dividing property.
Answer Description
Partition in kind involves physically dividing the property among the co-owners, allowing each sibling to take ownership of a specific portion of the property. This is appropriate when the property can be fairly and feasibly divided without requiring a sale. Partition by sale would not be suitable since the siblings do not wish to sell the property. The other options listed are either not recognized legal terms or do not apply to the scenario.
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What does it mean to be tenants in common?
When is partition in kind preferred over partition by sale?
Are there any limitations or challenges to pursuing a partition in kind?
GlobalTech, a software company incorporated in Nevada, frequently sells its products online to customers across multiple states, including Illinois. Although GlobalTech does not have a physical presence in Illinois, it maintains an Illinois-based customer support center and actively markets its products to Illinois residents. An Illinois resident, Jane Doe, files a lawsuit in Illinois state court against GlobalTech for defective software. GlobalTech argues that the Illinois court does not have personal jurisdiction over it. Which of the following best describes the court’s likely authority to hear the case?
The Illinois court has personal jurisdiction if Jane Doe can prove GlobalTech has assets in Illinois.
The Illinois court can hear the case because the sale was made online to an Illinois resident.
The Illinois court has personal jurisdiction over GlobalTech because it actively markets and supports its products in Illinois.
The Illinois court does not have personal jurisdiction because GlobalTech is incorporated in Nevada and has no physical presence in Illinois.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the Illinois court has personal jurisdiction over GlobalTech because the company's active marketing and customer support in Illinois establish sufficient minimum contacts. This satisfies the requirements for personal jurisdiction under the Due Process Clause. The other options incorrectly limit jurisdiction based on incorporation state, physical presence, or improperly interpret online sales alone.
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What are minimum contacts in the context of personal jurisdiction?
Why does active marketing impact personal jurisdiction?
Does operating online affect a court’s decision on personal jurisdiction?
In a civil trial, the plaintiff seeks to introduce evidence of the defendant's prior dishonesty to impeach the defendant's credibility. Under the rules of evidence, which of the following is most accurate regarding the admissibility of character evidence for truthfulness?
A party introduces character evidence for truthfulness, and the opposing party introduces specific instances of conduct to challenge it.
Evidence of a witness's character for truthfulness is admissible when the witness discusses their own character.
Character evidence of truthfulness is admissible to strengthen a witness's credibility in relevant proceedings.
Character evidence for truthfulness is introduced during cross-examination according to applicable rules and limitations.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains that a party can introduce character evidence for truthfulness and the opposing party can challenge it by introducing specific instances of conduct, aligning with the rules of evidence. The other options are incorrect because they either allow unrestricted introduction of character evidence, limit admissibility unfairly, or fail to correctly describe the rebuttal process.
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What are the rules governing the use of character evidence for truthfulness in civil trials?
What constitutes 'specific instances of conduct,' and how are they used to challenge character evidence?
Why can't character evidence for truthfulness be introduced without limits?
A plaintiff filed a lawsuit against a defendant in federal court for breach of contract. After trial, the court entered a judgment in favor of the plaintiff, awarding monetary damages. However, the court has not yet ruled on the defendant’s motion for attorney’s fees, which was filed before the judgment. The defendant wishes to file an appeal at this point. Would the defendant’s appeal comply with the final judgment rule?
No, because the issue of attorney’s fees still needs to be decided.
Yes, because attorney’s fees are considered separate from the judgment.
Yes, because the judgment addresses the main claim in the case.
No, because filing an appeal requires a specific court directive in this situation.
Answer Description
Under the final judgment rule, a case is appealable only when the court has resolved all claims and issues for all parties, leaving no remaining matters except for the enforcement of the judgment. Here, the judge has not yet decided the defendant’s motion for attorney’s fees, which constitutes a pending issue and prevents the case from being fully resolved. Therefore, an appeal is premature, and the defendant must wait until the judgment is final. The incorrect answers misinterpret the relationship between the attorney’s fees motion and the judgment or incorrectly assume that partial resolutions allow for immediate appeals.
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What is the final judgment rule?
Why are attorney’s fees considered part of the final judgment?
Are there exceptions to the final judgment rule?
A manufacturer entered into a contract to produce 1,000 specialized widgets for a buyer, with delivery scheduled by December 31. The widgets require a specific, rare metal that, as both parties knew, was sourced exclusively from a single foreign country. On December 1, the U.S. government unexpectedly issued a total and immediate embargo on all imports from that country, citing national security concerns. No alternative source for the metal exists. What is the manufacturer's legal position regarding its obligation to deliver the widgets?
The manufacturer is liable for breach of contract and resulting damages.
The manufacturer's duty to perform is discharged due to impossibility.
The manufacturer must locate a substitute material under the doctrine of commercial impracticability.
The contract is voidable at the manufacturer's discretion because of the embargo.
Answer Description
The manufacturer's duty to perform is discharged under the doctrine of impossibility, which is a form of impracticability. According to the Restatement (Second) of Contracts § 264, if a party's performance is made impracticable by a supervening governmental regulation or order, the non-occurrence of which was a basic assumption of the contract, the duty is discharged. Here, the unforeseen government embargo made it objectively impossible to acquire the necessary materials, thus discharging the manufacturer's duty. The manufacturer is not in breach, the contract is not merely voidable, and the doctrine of commercial impracticability is less precise than impossibility where performance is not just burdensome but objectively impossible.
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What is the doctrine of impossibility in contract law?
How does governmental action, like the embargo in this scenario, trigger impossibility?
How does impossibility differ from commercial impracticability?
A person decides to commit a burglary and agrees with another individual to assist in carrying out the crime. Both individuals take steps to plan the crime, but they abandon their plan before carrying out the burglary. What offense, if any, have they most likely committed based on these facts?
Attempt
No offense was committed
Conspiracy
Solicitation
Answer Description
The correct answer is conspiracy because an agreement between two or more individuals, combined with an overt act toward furthering the criminal objective (such as planning the crime), constitutes the offense of conspiracy, even if the ultimate crime is not completed. The other answers are incorrect because an attempt requires a substantial step toward completing the crime, which did not occur here; solicitation occurs when a person asks or encourages another to commit a crime without necessarily reaching mutual agreement; and mere abandonment of the plan does not negate conspiracy once the required elements are met.
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What is the key difference between conspiracy and attempt?
What is an overt act in the context of conspiracy?
Does abandoning the plan eliminate the conspiracy charge?
A 12-year-old child riding a bicycle accidentally swerved onto the sidewalk and collided with a pedestrian, causing injuries. The pedestrian sues the child for negligence. Which standard should the court apply in determining whether the child was negligent?
An objective standard that measures the conduct against societal expectations, without personal characteristics being taken into account
A standard that is less strict, accounting for the child's young age and lack of legal accountability
The standard of care typically expected of a reasonably prudent adult in similar circumstances
The standard of care typically expected of a child of the same age, intelligence, and experience in similar circumstances
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the child's actions will be evaluated against the standard of care that would be expected of a child of similar age, intelligence, and experience in like circumstances. Tort law acknowledges that children are not capable of meeting the standard of care expected of a reasonably prudent adult, and instead applies a standard tailored to their developmental level. The other options incorrectly assert that a uniform adult standard or a lenient forgiveness-based standard would apply, neither of which aligns with established legal principles. In addition, the idea of an objective standard without regard for personal characteristics misrepresents the inherently subjective nature of how courts assess a child's behavior. The law adapts to account for the limitations of minors unless they engage in inherently adult activities, such as driving a car.
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When might a child be held to an adult standard of care in negligence cases?
Why does the law take a child’s age, intelligence, and experience into account in negligence cases?
Are there circumstances where liability might not be imposed on very young children in negligence cases?
In a federal civil trial, after the jury has entered a verdict in favor of the plaintiff, the defendant files a motion for judgment as a matter of law. What standard does the court apply to decide whether to grant the defendant's motion?
The court will grant the motion if the defendant can prove the plaintiff did not meet the burden of proof.
The court will grant the motion if the evidence does not support a reasonable conclusion in favor of the plaintiff.
The court will grant the motion if there is conflicting evidence regarding the plaintiff's claims.
The court will grant the motion if the jury's verdict was not unanimous.
Answer Description
When reviewing a motion for judgment as a matter of law, the court assesses whether the evidence presented allows a reasonable jury to have reached the plaintiff's verdict. The motion is granted if the evidence is insufficient to support the jury's decision, indicating that no reasonable jury could have found in favor of the plaintiff based on the submitted evidence.
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What does 'judgment as a matter of law' mean in a federal civil trial?
What is the difference between a 'motion for judgment as a matter of law' and a 'motion for a new trial'?
What is meant by 'sufficient evidence' when courts decide motions like this?
A manufacturer based in State A produces and sells an industrial cleaning product. A business in State B purchases the product and uses it at its location, where a customer claims to have been injured by exposure to the chemicals. The injured customer files a lawsuit in State B, naming the manufacturer as the defendant and alleging negligence. The manufacturer has not traveled to or physically entered State B but regularly markets its product to businesses there and derives significant revenue from sales within the state. Does State B’s court have personal jurisdiction over the manufacturer?
Yes, because generating revenue from a state contributes to establishing minimum contacts when paired with purposeful business activity.
Yes, because the manufacturer marketed and sold its product in State B, meeting the criteria for minimum contacts.
No, because the manufacturer has not traveled to or physically entered State B.
No, because the personal injury claim does not directly relate to the manufacturer’s business transaction.
Answer Description
State B’s court would have personal jurisdiction over the manufacturer because the manufacturer purposefully availed itself of the privilege of conducting business in State B. Under the principle set forth in International Shoe Co. v. Washington, personal jurisdiction can exist if the defendant has 'minimum contacts' with the forum state, and the exercise of jurisdiction does not violate traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice. Marketing and selling products in State B, and deriving significant revenue from those activities, establish these 'minimum contacts.' While revenue generation alone is insufficient for personal jurisdiction, the connection between the manufacturer's activity in the state (targeted sales) and the plaintiff's claim (negligence related to the product) satisfies the requirement. The incorrect answers either misrepresent the importance of physical presence or misstate the relevance of the identity of the plaintiff or revenue as standalone factors in determining jurisdiction.
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What does 'minimum contacts' mean in the context of personal jurisdiction?
Why does the manufacturer’s marketing activity meet the criteria for personal jurisdiction?
Does physical presence in a state always determine personal jurisdiction?
Which of the following punishments would most likely be considered cruel and unusual under the Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution?
Sentencing a 14-year-old to life imprisonment without parole for a non-homicidal offense
Imposing the death penalty for premeditated murder with due procedural safeguards
Fining a corporation at a significant monetary level for environmental violations
Requiring repeat offenders to perform community service for minor traffic violations
Answer Description
A punishment is considered cruel and unusual under the Eighth Amendment if it is disproportionate to the offense, barbaric, or violates society's evolving standards of decency. Punishing a minor, such as a 14-year-old, with life imprisonment without the possibility of parole for non-homicide crimes has been deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court, as it fails to account for the diminished culpability of juveniles and societal standards. On the other hand, capital punishment for murder is constitutionally permissible under specific circumstances if procedural safeguards are met, and a fine that aligns with the financial impact of a violation generally does not qualify as cruel or unusual.
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Why is sentencing a juvenile to life without parole considered cruel and unusual?
What does 'evolving standards of decency' mean in the context of the Eighth Amendment?
How does the Eighth Amendment distinguish proportional punishments from cruel or unusual ones?
A non-profit organization files a lawsuit in federal court against a state government, alleging that the state has failed to uphold specific federal civil rights protections. The state argues that the lawsuit is barred by the Eleventh Amendment due to state sovereign immunity. Under which condition can the federal court proceed with the lawsuit despite the state's claim of immunity?
If the state's actions are authorized or ratified by its representatives.
If the lawsuit also includes claims against federal officials alongside the state.
If Congress has enacted legislation under its constitutional enforcement powers that permits such lawsuits.
If the non-profit organization can demonstrate direct involvement of state officials in the alleged violation.
Answer Description
The lawsuit can proceed if Congress has enacted legislation under its constitutional enforcement powers that allow such lawsuits against the state. This legislative action effectively overrides the state's sovereign immunity in this context. The other options are incorrect because proving direct involvement of state officials, state authorization, or including federal officials do not bypass the sovereign immunity without congressional authorization.
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What is state sovereign immunity under the Eleventh Amendment?
How can Congress override state sovereign immunity?
Why does proving state officials' involvement not bypass Eleventh Amendment immunity?
David is standing on a sidewalk about 50 feet from an intersection when he sees a delivery truck negligently strike a pedestrian, causing the pedestrian severe bodily injuries. David himself is never in danger of being hit, but he clearly sees the collision and immediately suffers serious emotional distress that later manifests in physical symptoms. David has never met the pedestrian and has no familial or other close relationship with her.
If David brings a negligence action against the truck driver seeking damages for his emotional distress, how is a court applying the modern majority (bystander) rule most likely to decide?
Yes, because David personally and contemporaneously observed the accident.
Yes, because David's emotional distress produced documented physical symptoms.
No, because David was not closely related to the injured pedestrian.
No, because negligent infliction of emotional distress is never recognized unless the plaintiff also suffers a physical impact.
Answer Description
Under the modern majority approach to bystander negligent infliction of emotional distress, a plaintiff who is outside the zone of physical danger may recover only if (1) the plaintiff is a close family member of the person physically injured, (2) the plaintiff was present and perceived the event, and (3) the plaintiff suffers serious emotional harm. Because David has no close familial relationship with the pedestrian, he fails the first requirement. His contemporaneous perception and severe distress are insufficient by themselves, so recovery will be denied.
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What does the 'modern majority rule' mean in bystander negligent infliction of emotional distress cases?
Why is a close familial relationship required for recovery under the modern majority rule?
How does the modern majority rule differ from the 'zone of danger' rule?
A witness is called to testify about a car accident they heard about from their neighbor, claiming that the neighbor described the accident in vivid detail. The opposing counsel objects, arguing the testimony lacks personal knowledge. Which of the following reasons would BEST explain why the objection should be sustained?
The neighbor's description of the accident may be unreliable.
The witness did not directly observe the car accident.
The witness's account does not include technical expertise.
The testimony could confuse the jury with secondhand information.
Answer Description
The best explanation for sustaining the objection is that testimony offered in a court of law generally requires the witness to have direct, personal knowledge of the event being testified to, as prescribed by the Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE 602). Personal knowledge ensures the credibility and reliability of the testimony by restricting it to what the witness has directly observed or experienced. Here, the witness's testimony about the accident is based solely on what their neighbor said, not on their own observations. This makes the testimony inadmissible under the rules of personal knowledge. Other answers are incorrect because they either misapply the rules of evidence, focus on irrelevant factors, or incorrectly interpret the objection's basis.
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Why does FRE 602 require personal knowledge from a witness?
What is hearsay, and how does it relate to this objection?
Are there any exceptions to the personal knowledge rule?
Alice and Bob enter into a written contract for the sale of a vintage car. The contract specifies the price and the condition of the car but does not mention any after-sales support. After the sale, Alice claims that Bob verbally promised to provide maintenance services for six months. Bob refuses to honor this alleged promise. Can Alice use her verbal promise to enforce the maintenance services?
No, because maintenance services are not a significant term in the contract.
Yes, because verbal agreements can supplement written contracts.
No, because the parol evidence rule prohibits using external evidence to change the written terms.
Yes, if Alice can prove that Bob had the intent to include maintenance services.
Answer Description
Under the parol evidence rule, once a written contract is intended to be a complete and final representation of the parties' agreement, external evidence such as verbal promises cannot be used to alter or add terms. Since the maintenance services were not included in the written contract, Alice cannot enforce the verbal promise.
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What is the parol evidence rule?
Are there exceptions to the parol evidence rule?
What does 'final and complete representation' of a contract mean?
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