Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Practice Test
NCBE MPRE
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Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Information
The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE), administered by the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE), is a vital step on the path to becoming a licensed attorney in the United States. Although often overshadowed by the more comprehensive bar exam, the MPRE plays a role in ensuring that prospective lawyers understand the ethical and professional responsibilities associated with legal practice. Whether you’re a law student planning ahead or a candidate preparing to sit for the test, understanding the MPRE’s purpose, format, and significance can help demystify the process and enhance your readiness.
What Is the MPRE and Why Does It Matter?
The MPRE is designed to measure a candidate’s understanding of established standards related to a lawyer’s professional conduct. It is not a test of state-specific ethics rules but is based largely on the American Bar Association’s (ABA) Model Rules of Professional Conduct and the ABA Model Code of Judicial Conduct. These frameworks form the basis of legal ethics in nearly every U.S. jurisdiction, making the MPRE a universal assessment of a lawyer’s professional responsibility.
Most jurisdictions require a passing MPRE score as a prerequisite to sitting for the bar exam or gaining admission to the bar. Only Wisconsin and Puerto Rico currently waive this requirement, and California and Maryland have their own standards. Because professional ethics are at the heart of the legal profession—where client trust, judicial integrity, and fair representation are paramount—the MPRE ensures that all aspiring attorneys have a baseline understanding of these principles before practicing law.
Who Should Take the MPRE and When?
The MPRE is typically taken by law students after they have completed a course in Professional Responsibility, often during their second or third year of law school. While there are no formal prerequisites in terms of coursework, having a solid foundation in the ethical rules and legal standards that govern professional conduct is strongly recommended before sitting for the exam.
Each jurisdiction sets its own deadline for when the MPRE must be passed in relation to the bar exam, so timing is crucial. For many, taking the MPRE at least a year before the bar exam offers peace of mind and allows time to retake it if needed. Since it is offered three times per year—in March, August, and November—students have flexibility in scheduling the exam around their studies and internships.
MPRE Format and Structure
The MPRE consists of 60 multiple-choice questions, 50 of which are scored and 10 unscored pretest items used to evaluate future questions. Test takers have two hours to complete the exam, and it is administered digitally at Pearson VUE testing centers nationwide.
Questions cover a variety of ethical scenarios and may involve judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, and law firm settings. The key topics tested include:
- Regulation of the Legal Profession
- Client-Lawyer Relationship
- Conflicts of Interest
- Competence, Legal Malpractice, and Civil Liability
- Litigation and Other Advocacy Duties
- Client Confidentiality
- Judicial Conduct
While the questions are multiple-choice, they often involve nuanced fact patterns that test an individual’s judgment and ability to apply rules appropriately. For this reason, memorization of rules alone is not sufficient—understanding context and how rules interact is critical.
MPRE Scoring and Passing Requirements
MPRE scores range from 50 to 150, with the national median score typically falling around 100. Each jurisdiction sets its own passing score, usually between 75 and 86. For example, New York and California require a minimum passing score of 85, while some states require only 75.
Scores are scaled based on question difficulty, meaning that a raw score of correct answers is adjusted depending on the test version’s complexity. This ensures fairness across different administrations of the exam.
It’s important to note that jurisdictions generally require a candidate to achieve a passing MPRE score within a specific time frame relative to their bar application. Failing to meet this requirement can delay bar admission even if a candidate passes the bar exam itself.

Free Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Regulation of the legal professionThe client-lawyer relationshipClient confidentialityConflicts of interestCompetence, legal malpractice, and other civil liabilityLitigation and other forms of advocacyTransactions and communications with persons other than clientsDifferent roles of the lawyerSafekeeping funds and other propertyCommunications about legal servicesLawyers’ duties to the public and the legal systemJudicial conduct
An attorney receives a lump sum payment intended for one client, but another party claims they are also entitled to a portion of the funds. What is the attorney's best course of action?
Transfer a portion of the funds to the client who first claimed entitlement.
Hold the funds in the attorney's personal account until the dispute is resolved.
Place the funds into a separate trust account to address the dispute.
Deposit the funds into the general client trust account and await further instructions.
Answer Description
Placing the disputed funds into a separate trust account to address the dispute ensures that the funds are preserved and managed appropriately until the rightful ownership is determined. This approach complies with professional responsibility rules by preventing commingling and safeguarding client property. Other options either allow potential misuse of funds or do not adequately protect the interests of all parties involved.
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Why is a separate trust account necessary in handling disputed funds?
What professional responsibility rules apply to handling client funds?
What might happen if the attorney placed the funds in their personal account?
A local official directs a judge to accelerate an ongoing proceeding, hinting that continued community funding depends on cooperating. Which solution would be the best way for the judge to uphold independence and impartiality?
Agree to adjust the schedule in response to the official’s request
Hold the local official in contempt
Decline to change the proceeding timeline due to outside pressure and conduct the matter as originally planned
Publicly announce compliance with the local official’s direction to secure funding
Answer Description
Declining external demands preserves independence and demonstrates that the judge’s decisions arise from the law rather than outside influence. Changing the schedule to accommodate an external request opens the door to undue influence. Publicly declaring compliance creates the appearance of subservience to non-judicial concerns.
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What does judicial independence mean in this context?
Why is declining external pressure the correct choice?
What are the potential consequences of publicly announcing compliance with external pressure?
An attorney focuses on estate planning. A court has assigned the attorney to represent a person in a criminal matter. The attorney is hesitant due to the nature of the case and personal scheduling concerns. Which statement accurately describes the attorney’s obligation?
The attorney may refuse after informing the court of a preference for a different practice area
The attorney should accept if there is no significant risk of inadequate representation and no serious burden
The attorney can refuse for reasons related to scheduling inconveniences
The attorney can accept provided the court agrees to adjust the attorney’s regular caseload
Answer Description
Attorneys have a duty to serve when appointed if representation is feasible without substantial risk of inadequate performance or overwhelming burden. Personal preference or moderate scheduling conflicts do not justify turning away an appointment. Positioning acceptance on unrelated factors is not consistent with professional responsibilities.
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Why are attorneys required to accept court appointments in some cases?
What qualifies as a 'significant risk of inadequate representation'?
Can an attorney request to be removed from an appointed case, and if so, under what circumstances?
During settlement negotiations in a breach-of-contract lawsuit, an attorney representing the plaintiff makes two separate statements to defense counsel:
"My client will not settle this case for less than $100,000," even though the client has already authorized the attorney to accept $75,000.
"We have retained an expert whose draft report states that the defendant's product was defective," even though the attorney has not hired any expert and no such report exists.
Under the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct, which of these statements, if any, violates the attorney's duty of truthfulness in statements to others?
Both statements violate the duty of truthfulness.
Only the first statement violates the duty of truthfulness.
Neither statement violates the duty of truthfulness.
Only the second statement violates the duty of truthfulness.
Answer Description
Model Rule 4.1 prohibits knowingly making a false statement of material fact to a third person. In negotiations, statements about a party's willingness to compromise or its bargaining position are generally treated as permissible "puffery" and are not material facts. Therefore, the first statement-overstating the client's bottom-line demand-is typically allowed. The second statement invents an expert and a report that do not exist; that is a knowing misrepresentation of a material fact and violates Rule 4.1. Consequently, only the second statement breaches the rule. The other answer options are incorrect because they either treat permissible puffery as misconduct or fail to recognize the fabrication of evidence as impermissible.
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Why is 'puffery' generally permissible during negotiations under the ABA Model Rules?
What distinguishes a 'material fact' from other types of information under ABA Model Rule 4.1?
Are there other examples of false statements that could violate Rule 4.1 during negotiations?
An attorney is involved in a private organization’s effort to change zoning regulations. One of the attorney’s current clients stands to lose a significant advantage if these regulations succeed. Which approach is most appropriate? Possible answers:
Withdraw from representing the client upon noticing any conflict of interest
Discuss the potential consequences of the proposed changes with the client and consider the client’s perspective
End involvement in the law reform initiative to protect the client’s interests
Continue with the reform effort without disclosing sensitive information to the client
Answer Description
Attorneys are permitted to participate in initiatives aimed at shaping policy, but they should not overlook potential harms to a client. The preferred approach respects both advocacy responsibilities and the need to keep clients sufficiently informed. The less effective options either deprive the client of important information, withdraw from services at the slightest sign of conflict, or prematurely end the attorney’s reform work without considering balanced solutions.
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What does a 'conflict of interest' mean in legal practice?
Why is it important to discuss potential consequences with the client in this scenario?
Can an attorney ever withdraw from representation due to a potential conflict of interest?
An attorney represents a company seeking a critical permit from a city official. The client proposes hosting a major fundraiser for that official, referencing the attorney's involvement, as an incentive for quicker processing. The attorney is asked whether this plan is permissible. Which choice aligns best with professional responsibilities?
The attorney can support the client's plan if the official explicitly states that the fundraising will not impact the permit.
The attorney can allow the fundraiser if it is publicized in a transparent manner, without confidential details related to the permit.
The attorney should encourage the fundraiser but refuse involvement.
The attorney should refuse involvement in a fundraiser that ties a contribution to favorable action by the official.
Answer Description
Professional rules prohibit efforts that attach a government official's favorable action to monetary or fundraising benefits. The best option acknowledges that a lawyer is obligated to avoid giving or facilitating gifts suggesting a quid pro quo or creating an appearance of impropriety. By declining to be part of a proposal that uses financial contributions to sway an official, the lawyer respects the ethical limits on influencing government authority. Other answers excuse or justify the fundraiser, overlooking the prohibition on exchanging financial favors for official decisions.
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What is quid pro quo in the context of professional responsibility?
Why are attorneys prohibited from participating in activities that create an appearance of impropriety?
What ethical rules govern interactions between attorneys and government officials?
A government attorney prosecuting a complex theft case obtains a report that indicates another suspect may have committed the offense. The report appears to undermine the government’s case, though its accuracy is not fully confirmed. What must the government attorney do?
Disregard the report due to incomplete verifications
Inform defense counsel about the report and provide it as soon as it is identified
Reveal the document through the normal course and scope of the lawsuit, such as in discovery or initial disclosures
Wait to present the report after the defense finishes its case
Answer Description
Ethics rules require prosecutors to disclose evidence that may indicate the defendant is not guilty. A prosecutor’s obligation is to seek justice, not merely to win. The option involving prompt disclosure follows this principle. Answers suggesting concealment or waiting for trial violate the ethical duty to ensure fairness and to provide exculpatory information in a timely manner.
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What is exculpatory evidence?
What is the Brady Rule?
Why must timely disclosure of evidence be prioritized?
An attorney is preparing a legal brief to submit to the court on behalf of a client. Which of the following actions best complies with the attorney’s obligation regarding meritorious claims and contentions?
Including claims that have been investigated to save time.
Including claims the client has expressed interest in making.
Including claims that the attorney believes have a chance of success.
Including various claims to cover different potential outcomes.
Answer Description
Including claims that the attorney believes have a chance of success ensures that the claims are founded on a reasonable basis, fulfilling the obligation to present meritorious claims. The other options involve including claims without sufficient merit or proper assessment, which does not meet the required standard.
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What constitutes a 'meritorious claim' in legal practice?
Why is it unethical for an attorney to include claims the client is interested in without proper investigation?
How can an attorney determine if a claim has a reasonable basis for success?
While preparing to move forward against a defendant for illegal substance distribution, DA (District Attorney) Morgan receives new lab data showing the material seized might not contain prohibited elements. Morgan has not informed defense counsel. Which statement best reflects Morgan’s responsibilities?
Morgan can dismiss the investigative report if state agents see the updated testing as unproven
Morgan can decide not to offer the new lab report unless the defense specifically demands it
Morgan is responsible for revealing the new lab results and reevaluating whether the charges remain viable
Morgan can rely on the initial test and wait until post-conviction proceedings to address conflicting findings
Answer Description
Government lawyers disclose information that challenges their case to maintain fairness. Withholding new lab data that undermines the basis for prosecution violates ethical rules. Prosecutors must reconsider the strength of the charges and share relevant information so the accused can prepare a defense.
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Why does a prosecutor need to disclose evidence that hurts their case?
What happens if a prosecutor withholds evidence like the lab results in this case?
What steps should the prosecutor take after receiving conflicting lab results?
Attorney Johnson is negotiating on behalf of her client to purchase a small business. During discussions, she informs the seller that her client has immediate access to the necessary funds to complete the purchase. In reality, the client is in the process of securing financing and has not yet confirmed fund availability. Which statement best describes Attorney Johnson's communication?
Attorney Johnson can assume the client will secure the funds in time and communicate this expectation.
Attorney Johnson is permitted to provide estimates without verifying their accuracy.
Attorney Johnson has made a misleading statement by asserting the client’s immediate access to funds without confirmation.
Attorney Johnson’s statement is acceptable as long as the client intends to secure the necessary financing.
Answer Description
The correct answer identifies that Attorney Johnson’s statement is misleading because she has not verified the availability of funds, which violates the duty of truthfulness in statements to others.
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What is the duty of truthfulness in statements to others?
Why is misleading about fund availability considered a violation?
What is the difference between acceptable negotiation tactics and misleading statements?
Claire is a licensed attorney in State X. A regional bar committee recommended that her license be suspended after an administrative hearing. She appealed to another body. Which entity is recognized as having authority to issue a binding decision regarding her license in that state?
The highest court in that state
The governor
The bar association
The legislature
Answer Description
The highest court holds recognized authority to manage licensure and discipline of attorneys. Other bodies can investigate or recommend discipline, but the highest court issues the binding order. The legislature creates general laws but does not handle direct regulation or discipline of individual attorneys. The governor does not hold recognized authority to supervise attorney licensing matters. The bar association can recommend sanctions but does not impose a suspension with binding effect.
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Why does the highest court have authority over attorney licensure and discipline?
What role does the bar association play in attorney discipline?
Can the legislature or governor ever intervene in attorney discipline matters?
Rosa is representing Dev in a contract dispute. The opposing counsel contacts Rosa to propose a meeting to explore settlement possibilities. Rosa thinks the suggestion might lead to an unfavorable offer, so she chooses not to share it with Dev. Which statement best describes Rosa’s responsibilities?
Negotiation tactics are the sole determination of the individual attorney.
Rosa should inform Dev of the settlement suggestion so Dev can consider and decide how to proceed
Rosa is permitted to withhold any details about settlement unless there is a definitive proposal from the opposing side
Rosa can continue litigation without telling Dev if she decides a meeting on settlement is not worthwhile
Answer Description
Lawyers are required to keep clients informed about developments that could significantly affect the client's interests. Information about a potential settlement is often considered an important option. The lawyer can advise the client regarding the advantages or disadvantages, but not disclosing the option entirely restricts the client’s choice. Refusing to pass along proposals because the lawyer deems them unappealing keeps clients from evaluating and deciding their own course of action.
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Why is it important for lawyers to inform clients about settlement proposals?
What does ‘keeping the client informed’ mean in legal representation?
Can a lawyer decide to withhold certain information from a client? If so, when?
A client provides an attorney with advanced payments for filing costs and advises that these funds be stored in a distinct account that pays interest to the client. The attorney considers placing them in a general account along with fees received from other clients for convenience. Which choice reflects the most proper way to handle these funds?
Use the funds for the next billing statement before costs are incurred
Invest the funds in the attorney’s private brokerage portfolio
Deposit the funds in a personal account while adjusting the firm’s ledger
Place the funds in a dedicated account, separate from the law firm’s operating funds
Answer Description
Professional rules recommend that money entrusted by a client be kept apart from the attorney’s personal or operating accounts. A dedicated account prevents accidental or intentional commingling of client funds and ensures clear records. An attorney should not store the client’s money in a personal account, invest it for the attorney’s benefit, or use it to pay invoices unless the fees have been earned. A separate account aligns with the lawyer’s responsibility to safeguard client property and maintain accurate bookkeeping.
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What is commingling of funds in legal practice?
What is an IOLTA account, and how does it work?
What are the risks of not keeping client funds in a separate account?
A judge is invited to join a local sports show to discuss team performances. The judge receives a small stipend for each appearance and avoids topics tied to ongoing or later legal matters. Which statement best reflects the proper standard for this outside activity?
The judge’s involvement is suitable while maintaining public confidence in independence.
Participating in a different location addresses conflict concerns but does not resolve broader ethics implications.
Attending a local sports show will show favoritism toward a team and therefore is inappropriate.
Receiving a stipend heightens impartiality concerns because compensation influences a judge’s neutrality.
Answer Description
Financial arrangements demand scrutiny to preserve confidence in a judge’s impartiality. The first statement recognizes a modest payment but highlights the need to maintain independence. The second statement focuses on location but overlooks overall ethics considerations. The third statement presumes compensation itself shifts neutrality, ignoring cases where modest stipends do not compromise public trust.
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What ethical guidelines must judges follow when engaging in outside activities?
Why is receiving a modest stipend not considered a violation of judicial ethics?
How does a judge maintain public confidence while engaging in outside activities?
A judge realizes that a close family member is representing one of the parties in a case currently before them. What is the most appropriate action for the judge to take?
Recuse themselves from the case to avoid any potential conflict of interest.
Inform the parties of the relationship but proceed with the case.
Delegate the case to another judge without notifying the parties.
Continue presiding over the case since there is no direct evidence of bias.
Answer Description
The judge should recuse themselves from the case to prevent any appearance of bias or conflict of interest, thereby maintaining the integrity of the judicial process. Continuing to hear the case or delegating it without proper notification does not adequately address the potential for bias.
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Why is judicial recusal important in cases of potential bias?
What are some examples of situations where a judge must recuse themselves?
What happens after a judge recuses themselves from a case?
Chase consults Leah, an attorney, about a business matter. Leah offers legal advice and says she will begin preparing documents for him. The following day, Leah sends a draft for Chase’s review, even though they have not signed any agreement or exchanged a fee. What is the effect of these steps on whether a professional relationship has formed?
They do not have a professional bond because no payment took place.
They have a professional bond since the attorney offered legal guidance and began drafting documents.
They do not have a professional bond because there is no signed fee agreement.
They do not have a professional bond unless Chase consented in writing.
Answer Description
An attorney-client relationship can come into existence when a lawyer provides legal advice and undertakes activities on a client’s behalf. Leah took specific actions, indicating she was representing Chase and that Chase relied on her guidance. Other answers suggest that a fee agreement or payment is essential, which is not accurate under professional responsibility rules. A formal contract or payment is not required to establish the relationship.
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Why is a formal fee agreement not required to establish an attorney-client relationship?
What are some key indicators that an attorney-client relationship has been formed?
What ethical obligations arise for an attorney once a professional relationship is formed?
An attorney received a client’s litigation file well before a date set by the court. The attorney worked on other matters and sent the required documents after that date had passed, which prevented the client from pursuing the case. Which choice best describes the attorney’s actions?
The attorney decided to work on the matter after completing a backlog
The attorney followed the intake procedure for new files
The attorney did not address the official date, leaving the client unable to proceed
The attorney relied on updates from the client to manage scheduling
Answer Description
Lawyers are expected to manage their workload effectively. The correct option reflects that missing the specified date stopped the client’s ability to proceed. Other responses either shift focus to different issues or suggest the attorney effectively handled the matter, which did not occur given the late filing.
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What does it mean for an attorney to manage their workload effectively?
Why are court deadlines so critical in legal practice?
What professional responsibility rules apply when an attorney misses a deadline?
During a trial, an attorney realizes that a statute they cited as supporting their argument has been overturned by a higher court. What should the attorney do to uphold their duty of candor to the tribunal?
Inform the court that the statute has been overturned and modify the argument appropriately.
Ignore the change and proceed to advocate.
Withdraw your oral motion or argument.
Continue using the statute to support the argument, believing it still holds persuasive value.
Answer Description
The attorney should inform the court that the statute has been overturned and adjust their argument accordingly. This action ensures honesty and transparency, aligning with the duty of candor to the tribunal. Failing to disclose the change or continuing to rely on the invalidated statute would violate ethical obligations.
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What is the duty of candor to the tribunal?
What is the significance of an overturned statute in legal arguments?
What are the consequences of failing the duty of candor in court?
A department head at a firm learns that an associate has repeatedly ignored client messages. The supervisor also noticed the associate struggling to manage priorities. Which choice best addresses how the department head should perform their role?
The department head should immediately terminate the associate.
The department head disclaims responsibility by attributing the issue to the associate’s poor organization.
The department head closely supervises the associate’s assignments to prevent future missed communications.
The department head creates practical safeguards and initiates corrective steps once the problem surfaces.
Answer Description
The best option establishes that a supervisory lawyer implements measures to guide compliance and intervenes when an issue is recognized. Proposing that the department head avoids responsibility overlooks the fundamental requirement of supervision. Suggesting that the department head personally manages all assignments incorrectly implies a more onerous obligation than what the rules require, which focus on systems and interventions when problems arise.
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What is the supervisory lawyer's main responsibility regarding compliance under professional rules?
What are practical safeguards a supervisory lawyer could implement?
Why does closely supervising all assignments exceed the required obligations?
An attorney has been reported for consistently failing to communicate with clients about the status of their cases, leading to client dissatisfaction. After an investigation, the disciplinary board determines that these failures were unintentional but indicate a lack of professionalism. What is the most appropriate disciplinary action for the board to take?
Suspend the attorney’s license for one year.
Dismiss the complaint without further action.
Reprimand the attorney and require completion of additional ethics education.
Disbar the attorney from practicing law.
Answer Description
Reprimanding the attorney and requiring additional ethics training is appropriate for unintentional but unprofessional behavior. Suspension or disbarment would be excessive for non-malicious misconduct, and dismissing the complaint would not address the professionalism issues identified.
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What does it mean to reprimand an attorney in a disciplinary context?
Why is additional ethics education often required in disciplinary actions?
Why wouldn’t suspension or disbarment be appropriate for unintentional misconduct?
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