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Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Practice Test

NCBE MPRE

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Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Information

The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE), administered by the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE), is a vital step on the path to becoming a licensed attorney in the United States. Although often overshadowed by the more comprehensive bar exam, the MPRE plays a role in ensuring that prospective lawyers understand the ethical and professional responsibilities associated with legal practice. Whether you’re a law student planning ahead or a candidate preparing to sit for the test, understanding the MPRE’s purpose, format, and significance can help demystify the process and enhance your readiness.

What Is the MPRE and Why Does It Matter?

The MPRE is designed to measure a candidate’s understanding of established standards related to a lawyer’s professional conduct. It is not a test of state-specific ethics rules but is based largely on the American Bar Association’s (ABA) Model Rules of Professional Conduct and the ABA Model Code of Judicial Conduct. These frameworks form the basis of legal ethics in nearly every U.S. jurisdiction, making the MPRE a universal assessment of a lawyer’s professional responsibility.

Most jurisdictions require a passing MPRE score as a prerequisite to sitting for the bar exam or gaining admission to the bar. Only Wisconsin and Puerto Rico currently waive this requirement, and California and Maryland have their own standards. Because professional ethics are at the heart of the legal profession—where client trust, judicial integrity, and fair representation are paramount—the MPRE ensures that all aspiring attorneys have a baseline understanding of these principles before practicing law.

Who Should Take the MPRE and When?

The MPRE is typically taken by law students after they have completed a course in Professional Responsibility, often during their second or third year of law school. While there are no formal prerequisites in terms of coursework, having a solid foundation in the ethical rules and legal standards that govern professional conduct is strongly recommended before sitting for the exam.

Each jurisdiction sets its own deadline for when the MPRE must be passed in relation to the bar exam, so timing is crucial. For many, taking the MPRE at least a year before the bar exam offers peace of mind and allows time to retake it if needed. Since it is offered three times per year—in March, August, and November—students have flexibility in scheduling the exam around their studies and internships.

MPRE Format and Structure

The MPRE consists of 60 multiple-choice questions, 50 of which are scored and 10 unscored pretest items used to evaluate future questions. Test takers have two hours to complete the exam, and it is administered digitally at Pearson VUE testing centers nationwide.

Questions cover a variety of ethical scenarios and may involve judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, and law firm settings. The key topics tested include:

  • Regulation of the Legal Profession
  • Client-Lawyer Relationship
  • Conflicts of Interest
  • Competence, Legal Malpractice, and Civil Liability
  • Litigation and Other Advocacy Duties
  • Client Confidentiality
  • Judicial Conduct

While the questions are multiple-choice, they often involve nuanced fact patterns that test an individual’s judgment and ability to apply rules appropriately. For this reason, memorization of rules alone is not sufficient—understanding context and how rules interact is critical.

MPRE Scoring and Passing Requirements

MPRE scores range from 50 to 150, with the national median score typically falling around 100. Each jurisdiction sets its own passing score, usually between 75 and 86. For example, New York and California require a minimum passing score of 85, while some states require only 75.

Scores are scaled based on question difficulty, meaning that a raw score of correct answers is adjusted depending on the test version’s complexity. This ensures fairness across different administrations of the exam.

It’s important to note that jurisdictions generally require a candidate to achieve a passing MPRE score within a specific time frame relative to their bar application. Failing to meet this requirement can delay bar admission even if a candidate passes the bar exam itself.

Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Logo
  • Free Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • Regulation of the legal profession
    The client-lawyer relationship
    Client confidentiality
    Conflicts of interest
    Competence, legal malpractice, and other civil liability
    Litigation and other forms of advocacy
    Transactions and communications with persons other than clients
    Different roles of the lawyer
    Safekeeping funds and other property
    Communications about legal services
    Lawyers’ duties to the public and the legal system
    Judicial conduct
Question 1 of 20

An attorney receives a lump sum payment intended for one client, but another party claims they are also entitled to a portion of the funds. What is the attorney's best course of action?

  • Transfer a portion of the funds to the client who first claimed entitlement.

  • Hold the funds in the attorney's personal account until the dispute is resolved.

  • Place the funds into a separate trust account to address the dispute.

  • Deposit the funds into the general client trust account and await further instructions.

Question 2 of 20

A local official directs a judge to accelerate an ongoing proceeding, hinting that continued community funding depends on cooperating. Which solution would be the best way for the judge to uphold independence and impartiality?

  • Agree to adjust the schedule in response to the official’s request

  • Hold the local official in contempt

  • Decline to change the proceeding timeline due to outside pressure and conduct the matter as originally planned

  • Publicly announce compliance with the local official’s direction to secure funding

Question 3 of 20

An attorney focuses on estate planning. A court has assigned the attorney to represent a person in a criminal matter. The attorney is hesitant due to the nature of the case and personal scheduling concerns. Which statement accurately describes the attorney’s obligation?

  • The attorney may refuse after informing the court of a preference for a different practice area

  • The attorney should accept if there is no significant risk of inadequate representation and no serious burden

  • The attorney can refuse for reasons related to scheduling inconveniences

  • The attorney can accept provided the court agrees to adjust the attorney’s regular caseload

Question 4 of 20

During settlement negotiations in a breach-of-contract lawsuit, an attorney representing the plaintiff makes two separate statements to defense counsel:

  1. "My client will not settle this case for less than $100,000," even though the client has already authorized the attorney to accept $75,000.

  2. "We have retained an expert whose draft report states that the defendant's product was defective," even though the attorney has not hired any expert and no such report exists.

Under the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct, which of these statements, if any, violates the attorney's duty of truthfulness in statements to others?

  • Both statements violate the duty of truthfulness.

  • Only the first statement violates the duty of truthfulness.

  • Neither statement violates the duty of truthfulness.

  • Only the second statement violates the duty of truthfulness.

Question 5 of 20

An attorney is involved in a private organization’s effort to change zoning regulations. One of the attorney’s current clients stands to lose a significant advantage if these regulations succeed. Which approach is most appropriate? Possible answers:

  • Withdraw from representing the client upon noticing any conflict of interest

  • Discuss the potential consequences of the proposed changes with the client and consider the client’s perspective

  • End involvement in the law reform initiative to protect the client’s interests

  • Continue with the reform effort without disclosing sensitive information to the client

Question 6 of 20

An attorney represents a company seeking a critical permit from a city official. The client proposes hosting a major fundraiser for that official, referencing the attorney's involvement, as an incentive for quicker processing. The attorney is asked whether this plan is permissible. Which choice aligns best with professional responsibilities?

  • The attorney can support the client's plan if the official explicitly states that the fundraising will not impact the permit.

  • The attorney can allow the fundraiser if it is publicized in a transparent manner, without confidential details related to the permit.

  • The attorney should encourage the fundraiser but refuse involvement.

  • The attorney should refuse involvement in a fundraiser that ties a contribution to favorable action by the official.

Question 7 of 20

A government attorney prosecuting a complex theft case obtains a report that indicates another suspect may have committed the offense. The report appears to undermine the government’s case, though its accuracy is not fully confirmed. What must the government attorney do?

  • Disregard the report due to incomplete verifications

  • Inform defense counsel about the report and provide it as soon as it is identified

  • Reveal the document through the normal course and scope of the lawsuit, such as in discovery or initial disclosures

  • Wait to present the report after the defense finishes its case

Question 8 of 20

An attorney is preparing a legal brief to submit to the court on behalf of a client. Which of the following actions best complies with the attorney’s obligation regarding meritorious claims and contentions?

  • Including claims that have been investigated to save time.

  • Including claims the client has expressed interest in making.

  • Including claims that the attorney believes have a chance of success.

  • Including various claims to cover different potential outcomes.

Question 9 of 20

While preparing to move forward against a defendant for illegal substance distribution, DA (District Attorney) Morgan receives new lab data showing the material seized might not contain prohibited elements. Morgan has not informed defense counsel. Which statement best reflects Morgan’s responsibilities?

  • Morgan can dismiss the investigative report if state agents see the updated testing as unproven

  • Morgan can decide not to offer the new lab report unless the defense specifically demands it

  • Morgan is responsible for revealing the new lab results and reevaluating whether the charges remain viable

  • Morgan can rely on the initial test and wait until post-conviction proceedings to address conflicting findings

Question 10 of 20

Attorney Johnson is negotiating on behalf of her client to purchase a small business. During discussions, she informs the seller that her client has immediate access to the necessary funds to complete the purchase. In reality, the client is in the process of securing financing and has not yet confirmed fund availability. Which statement best describes Attorney Johnson's communication?

  • Attorney Johnson can assume the client will secure the funds in time and communicate this expectation.

  • Attorney Johnson is permitted to provide estimates without verifying their accuracy.

  • Attorney Johnson has made a misleading statement by asserting the client’s immediate access to funds without confirmation.

  • Attorney Johnson’s statement is acceptable as long as the client intends to secure the necessary financing.

Question 11 of 20

Claire is a licensed attorney in State X. A regional bar committee recommended that her license be suspended after an administrative hearing. She appealed to another body. Which entity is recognized as having authority to issue a binding decision regarding her license in that state?

  • The highest court in that state

  • The governor

  • The bar association

  • The legislature

Question 12 of 20

Rosa is representing Dev in a contract dispute. The opposing counsel contacts Rosa to propose a meeting to explore settlement possibilities. Rosa thinks the suggestion might lead to an unfavorable offer, so she chooses not to share it with Dev. Which statement best describes Rosa’s responsibilities?

  • Negotiation tactics are the sole determination of the individual attorney.

  • Rosa should inform Dev of the settlement suggestion so Dev can consider and decide how to proceed

  • Rosa is permitted to withhold any details about settlement unless there is a definitive proposal from the opposing side

  • Rosa can continue litigation without telling Dev if she decides a meeting on settlement is not worthwhile

Question 13 of 20

A client provides an attorney with advanced payments for filing costs and advises that these funds be stored in a distinct account that pays interest to the client. The attorney considers placing them in a general account along with fees received from other clients for convenience. Which choice reflects the most proper way to handle these funds?

  • Use the funds for the next billing statement before costs are incurred

  • Invest the funds in the attorney’s private brokerage portfolio

  • Deposit the funds in a personal account while adjusting the firm’s ledger

  • Place the funds in a dedicated account, separate from the law firm’s operating funds

Question 14 of 20

A judge is invited to join a local sports show to discuss team performances. The judge receives a small stipend for each appearance and avoids topics tied to ongoing or later legal matters. Which statement best reflects the proper standard for this outside activity?

  • The judge’s involvement is suitable while maintaining public confidence in independence.

  • Participating in a different location addresses conflict concerns but does not resolve broader ethics implications.

  • Attending a local sports show will show favoritism toward a team and therefore is inappropriate.

  • Receiving a stipend heightens impartiality concerns because compensation influences a judge’s neutrality.

Question 15 of 20

A judge realizes that a close family member is representing one of the parties in a case currently before them. What is the most appropriate action for the judge to take?

  • Recuse themselves from the case to avoid any potential conflict of interest.

  • Inform the parties of the relationship but proceed with the case.

  • Delegate the case to another judge without notifying the parties.

  • Continue presiding over the case since there is no direct evidence of bias.

Question 16 of 20

Chase consults Leah, an attorney, about a business matter. Leah offers legal advice and says she will begin preparing documents for him. The following day, Leah sends a draft for Chase’s review, even though they have not signed any agreement or exchanged a fee. What is the effect of these steps on whether a professional relationship has formed?

  • They do not have a professional bond because no payment took place.

  • They have a professional bond since the attorney offered legal guidance and began drafting documents.

  • They do not have a professional bond because there is no signed fee agreement.

  • They do not have a professional bond unless Chase consented in writing.

Question 17 of 20

An attorney received a client’s litigation file well before a date set by the court. The attorney worked on other matters and sent the required documents after that date had passed, which prevented the client from pursuing the case. Which choice best describes the attorney’s actions?

  • The attorney decided to work on the matter after completing a backlog

  • The attorney followed the intake procedure for new files

  • The attorney did not address the official date, leaving the client unable to proceed

  • The attorney relied on updates from the client to manage scheduling

Question 18 of 20

During a trial, an attorney realizes that a statute they cited as supporting their argument has been overturned by a higher court. What should the attorney do to uphold their duty of candor to the tribunal?

  • Inform the court that the statute has been overturned and modify the argument appropriately.

  • Ignore the change and proceed to advocate.

  • Withdraw your oral motion or argument.

  • Continue using the statute to support the argument, believing it still holds persuasive value.

Question 19 of 20

A department head at a firm learns that an associate has repeatedly ignored client messages. The supervisor also noticed the associate struggling to manage priorities. Which choice best addresses how the department head should perform their role?

  • The department head should immediately terminate the associate.

  • The department head disclaims responsibility by attributing the issue to the associate’s poor organization.

  • The department head closely supervises the associate’s assignments to prevent future missed communications.

  • The department head creates practical safeguards and initiates corrective steps once the problem surfaces.

Question 20 of 20

An attorney has been reported for consistently failing to communicate with clients about the status of their cases, leading to client dissatisfaction. After an investigation, the disciplinary board determines that these failures were unintentional but indicate a lack of professionalism. What is the most appropriate disciplinary action for the board to take?

  • Suspend the attorney’s license for one year.

  • Dismiss the complaint without further action.

  • Reprimand the attorney and require completion of additional ethics education.

  • Disbar the attorney from practicing law.