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Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Practice Test (SC-900)

Use the form below to configure your Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Practice Test (SC-900). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

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Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals SC-900 Information

About the Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam (SC-900)

The Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) certification is an entry-level credential designed to validate a candidate's foundational knowledge of Microsoft's security, compliance, and identity (SCI) solutions. This certification is the starting point for individuals interested in understanding how to protect data and manage users and resources within Microsoft 365 and Azure environments. The exam is not just for aspiring IT professionals; it is also targeted toward business stakeholders, students, and new or existing IT professionals who want to familiarize themselves with the fundamentals of SCI across cloud-based and related Microsoft services. Although there are no formal prerequisites, a basic understanding of Microsoft 365 and Azure services is recommended.

The SC-900 exam covers four main domains: the concepts of security, compliance, and identity; the capabilities of Microsoft Entra (formerly Azure Active Directory); the capabilities of Microsoft's security solutions; and the capabilities of Microsoft's compliance solutions. Candidates will be tested on their understanding of core concepts like the Zero Trust model, the shared responsibility model, and defense-in-depth. The exam questions will also assess knowledge of specific Microsoft tools and services, including Microsoft Defender for Cloud, Microsoft Sentinel, and Microsoft Purview. The exam itself typically consists of 40-60 questions, which may include multiple-choice and scenario-based formats, and requires a score of 700 or greater to pass.

Using Practice Exams in Your Preparation

A crucial component of preparing for the SC-900 exam is taking practice tests. These assessments are an excellent way to review the material you've learned and get a feel for the real exam environment. One of the primary benefits of using practice exams is enhancing your time management skills, which is a significant factor in Microsoft certification exams. They also provide an opportunity for revision, helping you to consolidate complex topics. By simulating the actual exam, practice tests help identify your strengths and weaknesses, allowing you to focus your study efforts more effectively and boost your confidence.

Our assessments are created by the same team that develops the certification exams, ensuring they are closely aligned with the exam's content and difficulty. You can take these practice tests multiple times, and each attempt can help you become more familiar with the question formats. Upon completion, you receive a score report that provides the correct answers, rationales, and links to additional learning resources, helping you to fill any knowledge gaps.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals SC-900 Logo
  • Free Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals SC-900 Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • Describe the concepts of security, compliance, and identity
    Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Entra
    Describe the capabilities of Microsoft security solutions
    Describe the capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions
Question 1 of 20

A company must store user passwords in its database so that it can verify them during sign-in, but no one, including administrators, should be able to retrieve the original passwords. Which security technique best meets this requirement?

  • Transport Layer Security (TLS) to encrypt the network connection

  • Asymmetric encryption with an algorithm such as RSA

  • Hashing with a one-way algorithm such as SHA-256

  • Symmetric encryption with an algorithm such as AES

Question 2 of 20

Your security team wants to proactively investigate adversary infrastructure by searching for domains, IP addresses, or file hashes linked to known threat actors. They also need contextual information such as actor profiles and related vulnerabilities, all from within the Microsoft Defender portal. Which Microsoft Defender XDR capability should they use?

  • Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

  • Microsoft Defender Threat Intelligence

  • Microsoft Sentinel

  • Microsoft Defender for Office 365

Question 3 of 20

You need to explain to a colleague how Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) differs from on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). Which statement correctly describes a key structural difference between the two directory services?

  • Azure AD authenticates users only with Kerberos tickets, while AD DS supports modern protocols such as OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect.

  • AD DS natively supports multiple tenants within a single forest, but each Azure AD directory can host only one tenant.

  • Azure AD always relies on on-premises domain controllers for every sign-in, so it cannot operate independently in the cloud.

  • AD DS organizes objects in hierarchical forests, domains, and organizational units, whereas Azure AD provides a flat, cloud-based directory in which all users and groups reside at the tenant level.

Question 4 of 20

Your organization needs to automatically detect and block the transmission of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers, when users send email messages. In the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, which Microsoft 365 location can you include in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy to achieve this requirement?

  • Azure Blob Storage containers

  • Azure Virtual Network traffic flows

  • GitHub Enterprise repositories

  • Exchange Online mailboxes

Question 5 of 20

To detect pass-the-hash attacks within your organization, you plan to deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity. Which data does Defender for Identity primarily analyze so it can identify suspicious authentication and lateral-movement activities?

  • Network traffic and security event logs from on-premises Active Directory domain controllers

  • Email message headers and metadata in Exchange Online

  • Change events in Azure Resource Manager deployments

  • Azure Active Directory sign-in and audit logs only

Question 6 of 20

When you publish sensitivity labels through a sensitivity label policy in Microsoft Purview, which optional policy setting helps prevent users from accidentally downgrading or removing a label that is already applied to a document or email?

  • Show label names in additional languages selected by the user

  • Require users to provide a justification before they remove a label or choose a less restrictive label

  • Automatically delete items that have the label after a specified retention period

  • Block users from downloading labeled files from SharePoint Online and OneDrive

Question 7 of 20

You are new to Microsoft Sentinel and want to be alerted when a specific security event occurs across your Azure and on-premises logs. Which Sentinel capability allows you to create queries that run on a schedule and generate incidents when their conditions are met?

  • Analytics rules

  • Workbooks

  • Data connectors

  • Playbooks

Question 8 of 20

A company wants to identify potential credential-based attacks by analyzing authentication traffic from its on-premises Active Directory. Within Microsoft Defender XDR, which individual service provides this capability?

  • Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps

  • Microsoft Sentinel

  • Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

  • Microsoft Defender for Identity

Question 9 of 20

Within the Microsoft Purview portal, which capability helps you evaluate your organization's alignment with standards such as ISO 27001 by assigning improvement actions and calculating an overall percentage-based compliance score?

  • Advanced eDiscovery

  • Information protection scanner

  • Compliance Manager

  • Insider Risk Management

Question 10 of 20

Your organization already ingests security logs into Microsoft Sentinel. Security operations now want Sentinel to run Logic Apps that automatically isolate suspicious virtual machines, disable compromised user accounts, and send instant notifications whenever a high-severity incident is created. Which concept within a SIEM/SOAR platform does this scenario illustrate?

  • Security information and event management (SIEM)

  • Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)

  • Cloud security posture management (CSPM)

  • User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

Question 11 of 20

Your company needs a Microsoft Azure service that can centrally store application secrets, encryption keys, and TLS/SSL certificates while enforcing strict access control and auditing, without you having to deploy or manage any underlying hardware. Which Azure service should you recommend?

  • Azure DDoS Protection

  • Azure Firewall

  • Azure Key Vault

  • Microsoft Defender for Cloud

Question 12 of 20

An organization wants a certifiable, internationally recognized framework that specifies requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). Which framework should it adopt as part of its governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) program?

  • ISO/IEC 27001

  • CIS Critical Security Controls

  • NIST Cybersecurity Framework

  • General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Question 13 of 20

A security analyst is introducing the Microsoft Defender portal (security.microsoft.com) to a new team member. Which of the following tasks can be performed directly in this portal?

  • View and investigate incidents that combine alerts from email, endpoints, and identities

  • Configure inbound and outbound network rules for Azure Firewall

  • Purchase and assign additional Microsoft 365 licenses to users

  • Create and manage Conditional Access policies for user sign-ins

Question 14 of 20

Your company wants to allow administrators to perform occasional RDP and SSH sessions to virtual machines hosted in an Azure virtual network. Security policy states that VM public IP addresses must not be assigned and administrators must not install any VPN client software. Which Azure service should you deploy to meet these requirements?

  • Azure Application Gateway

  • Azure Bastion

  • Azure VPN gateway

  • Azure Firewall

Question 15 of 20

A compliance administrator needs a single web interface where they can both create Microsoft 365 sensitivity labels and examine identified content in Content explorer. Which portal should they open to perform both tasks?

  • Service Trust Portal

  • Microsoft 365 admin center

  • Microsoft Purview compliance portal

  • Microsoft Defender portal

Question 16 of 20

A company is evaluating several Microsoft cloud offerings and asks where user identities will be stored and authenticated. When describing Microsoft Entra ID to them, which statement best summarizes its role in the Microsoft cloud ecosystem?

  • A cloud database service for storing application data such as tables and documents.

  • A cloud-hosted network security appliance that inspects and filters internet traffic at the edge.

  • A virtual machine platform that lets you run Windows or Linux servers on demand.

  • A centralized cloud identity and access management service that stores users and grants authentication and authorization to Microsoft 365, Azure, and many SaaS apps.

Question 17 of 20

You are explaining Microsoft Entra ID identity types to a colleague. They need an identity that represents an application running on a virtual machine so it can authenticate to other Azure resources without user interaction. Which identity type in Microsoft Entra ID meets this requirement?

  • Device identity

  • External (guest) user identity

  • Workload identity

  • User identity

Question 18 of 20

Your organization wants to automatically identify software vulnerabilities and configuration weaknesses on its Windows client and Windows Server devices. Security administrators also need an exposure score and prioritized remediation guidance surfaced directly in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. Which Microsoft Defender for Endpoint capability meets these requirements?

  • Live response

  • Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

  • Attack surface reduction rules

  • Threat and vulnerability management

Question 19 of 20

Your company hosts a web application on Azure virtual machines inside a single virtual network. You must restrict inbound traffic to TCP port 443 from the corporate IP range and deny all outbound traffic to the internet except HTTP/HTTPS. Which Azure service should you use to enforce these rules at the subnet or NIC level?

  • Azure DDoS Protection Standard

  • Azure Firewall

  • Web Application Firewall on Azure Application Gateway

  • Network security group

Question 20 of 20

Your organization wants to automatically detect high-risk sign-ins in Microsoft Entra ID and require affected users to change their passwords before they can access resources. Which Entra capability should you configure?

  • Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

  • Access reviews in Microsoft Entra ID Governance

  • Microsoft Entra ID Protection risk policies

  • Conditional Access policies