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ISC2 Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) Practice Test

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ISC2 Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) Information

Overview of the CGRC Certification

The ISC2 Certified in Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) credential replaced the Certified Authorization Professional (CAP) title on 15 February 2023 to better reflect the knowledge and skills demanded of modern GRC practitioners. CGRC holders are expected to integrate governance, risk management and regulatory compliance across multiple frameworks—capabilities now recognized by employers worldwide, including the U.S. Department of Defense, which lists the certification under DoDM 8140.03 workforce requirements. To earn the credential you must pass the exam and document at least two years of paid, cumulative work experience in one or more of the seven CGRC domains; candidates lacking the experience can become an Associate of ISC2 while they accrue it.

Exam Format and Content

The computer-based CGRC exam lasts three hours and presents 125 multiple-choice or advanced-item questions. A scaled score of 700 out of 1,000 is required to pass. Content is distributed across seven domains—such as Security and Privacy Governance, Risk Management and Compliance Program (16 %), Implementation of Security and Privacy Controls (17 %) and Compliance Maintenance (13 %)—reflecting the 2024 job-task-analysis update. In the Americas the registration fee is US $599, and testing is delivered exclusively through Pearson VUE centers. Understanding both the weighting and the time limit lets you allocate study hours and develop pacing strategies that mirror the real exam.

The Power of Practice Exams

Timed, high-quality practice exams are one of the quickest ways to convert reading into exam-day readiness. They reveal whether your conceptual understanding holds up under a three-hour clock, spotlight weak domains early, and acclimate you to ISC2’s scenario-driven questioning style. ISC2 recommends using practice assessments to verify comprehension and identify gaps—not to memorize answers—because the real CGRC exam rewards depth of understanding over rote recall. Many candidates track scores by domain until they consistently exceed the 700-point benchmark, using post-test reviews to drill into missed concepts and refine time management.

Putting It All Together: A Strategic Study Plan

Map the exam outline to a calendar that back-loads heavier-weighted domains and includes weekly practice-test checkpoints. Blend modalities: official ISC2 Online Self-Paced or Instructor-Led training, white-papers and control catalogs keep the material fresh and contextual. Adaptive platforms can personalize that journey by flagging knowledge gaps and shortening review cycles, letting you spend more time where it matters. In the final weeks, rotate full-length practice exams with focused drills, refine your test-taking routine (breaks, hydration, mindfulness) and book the real exam when your timed practice scores stabilize above target. This metrics-driven approach not only boosts the odds of a first-time pass but also builds the confidence to apply GRC principles on the job.

ISC2 Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) Logo
  • Free ISC2 Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited time
  • Security and Privacy Governance, Risk Management, and Compliance Program
    Scope of the System
    Selection and Approval of Framework, Security, and Privacy Controls
    Implementation of Security and Privacy Controls
    Assessment/Audit of Security and Privacy Controls
    System Compliance
    Compliance Maintenance
Question 1 of 20

During RMF Step 5 you are advising an Authorizing Official on whether to accept residual risk for an agency's new payment portal that will store cardholder primary account numbers. The system owner proposes leaving the data unencrypted because the assessed likelihood of compromise is low and encryption will delay deployment. Which explanation best justifies rejecting this risk-acceptance request?

  • OMB Circular A-123 requires financial risks to be transferred through insurance or contractual clauses, so acceptance is not an available option.

  • NIST SP 800-37 expressly prohibits accepting any residual confidentiality risk that is rated moderate or higher, mandating additional mitigation.

  • Storing unencrypted PAN violates PCI DSS, which requires cardholder data to be unreadable at rest, so the risk cannot be accepted regardless of cost or schedule pressures.

  • FIPS 199 still needs to be applied to categorize the system; without that step no residual risk decision can be made, so acceptance is premature rather than impermissible.

Question 2 of 20

An agency system recently received a three-year Authorization to Operate. To keep senior organizational officials informed of the system's ongoing compliance posture during continuous monitoring, which artifact should the security team routinely update and forward to them?

  • A current network boundary diagram for the information system

  • The original Security Assessment Report produced for the authorization decision

  • An updated Plan of Action and Milestones showing remediation status

  • The system's Configuration Management Plan describing baseline control settings

Question 3 of 20

During preparation for a controls assessment of a cloud-hosted payroll system, the assessor begins gathering documentation to establish preliminary evidence of compliance. Which document should be examined first because it fully describes the system environment and the planned security controls?

  • Latest automated configuration baseline snapshot of production servers

  • Signed Authorization to Operate letter issued by the Authorizing Official

  • Current Plan of Action and Milestones detailing outstanding findings

  • System Security Plan for the payroll system

Question 4 of 20

You are performing a final review of an authorization package before sending it to the authorizing official. Several minor editorial issues exist, but you also notice that two control weaknesses described in the Security Assessment Report (SAR) are missing from the Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M). Which of the following omissions is most likely to delay the authorization decision if it is not corrected?

  • Correcting the cover page to list the accurate system name and version.

  • Reformatting section headings so all documents follow the current style guide.

  • Ensuring each SAR-identified control deficiency is entered in the POA&M with a remediation plan and milestones.

  • Updating the SSP so it references the latest hardware and software inventory baseline.

Question 5 of 20

While planning a security assessment of the organization's new payroll platform, the lead assessor must invite all key stakeholders to the kickoff meeting. Which stakeholder is chiefly accountable for day-to-day management and life-cycle decisions of the information system and therefore must attend?

  • Information owner

  • Independent auditor or assessor

  • System owner

  • Chief information security officer (CISO)

Question 6 of 20

After performing an ISO/IEC 27001 risk assessment, the ISMS team selects a subset of Annex A controls tailored to its environment. Before seeking certification, which required document must list every selected control, indicate whether it is implemented or not, and provide a justification for any controls the organization chooses to exclude?

  • Risk Treatment Plan

  • Control Implementation Matrix

  • Statement of Applicability

  • Security Test and Evaluation Report

Question 7 of 20

During control tailoring for a moderate-impact federal system that will create and email Controlled Technical Information (CTI), a form of CUI, you must ensure every electronic file is automatically tagged with the required CUI banner whenever it is created, stored, or transmitted. Which NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5 control or control enhancement should you allocate to satisfy this requirement?

  • PL-4 Rules of Behavior

  • MP-3 Media Marking

  • SC-12 Cryptographic Key Establishment and Management

  • AC-16(1) Security and Privacy Attributes | Automated Marking

Question 8 of 20

During scoping for a compliance assessment, your team debates including the externally hosted CRM SaaS that exchanges customer PII with on-premises systems. Which factor provides the strongest justification for keeping the SaaS in scope?

  • Collecting audit evidence from a SaaS vendor will lengthen the project schedule.

  • The service processes and stores regulated customer data integral to business workflows.

  • Its servers are physically located outside the corporate data center.

  • The SaaS provider, not the organization, owns and manages the underlying hardware.

Question 9 of 20

While finalizing a system's risk response plan, the security team needs a place to log each security control deficiency that senior management has decided to accept for now, as well as any weaknesses that are only partly remediated so they remain visible until closed. In which document or section should these unresolved items be recorded for ongoing tracking and oversight?

  • Executive summary of the assessment report

  • Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)

  • Communication matrix in the risk response plan

  • Testing methodology annex

Question 10 of 20

An initial assessment report identifies a critical vulnerability in a vendor-supplied data-integration appliance. Replacing the appliance is not feasible this quarter, so you propose tightening firewall rules and deploying a host-based IPS until a patch is released. Which risk-response category best describes this approach?

  • Avoid the risk by discontinuing use of the vulnerable appliance immediately.

  • Mitigate the risk by reducing its likelihood or impact through additional controls.

  • Accept the risk and take no further action until the vendor releases a patch.

  • Transfer the risk by purchasing or expanding a cyber-insurance policy.

Question 11 of 20

Your organization is deploying a new cloud-hosted payroll application. During planning you note that authentication, account management, and audit logging will all be provided by the existing enterprise identity-and-access management service that supports many other systems. In the system security plan, how should these inherited safeguards be categorized?

  • Common controls

  • Hybrid controls

  • System-specific controls

  • Discretionary controls

Question 12 of 20

Your agency categorizes a new national-security system as high-impact across confidentiality, integrity, and availability. When building the security plan, which approach correctly applies NIST SP 800-53B requirements for establishing the high-impact control baseline?

  • Implement all controls and enhancements in the high baseline, removing only those formally tailored out and documented.

  • Deploy only the controls shared by all three baselines, adding the rest during continuous monitoring.

  • Apply only catalog controls designated as priority 1 (P1) for high-impact systems.

  • Start with the low-impact baseline and customize it because the high rating is driven solely by confidentiality.

Question 13 of 20

Your agency is preparing to retire a legacy payroll application that handled large volumes of PII. Under the Disposal phase activities defined in NIST SP 800-64 Revision 2, which step must the team perform first before creating the formal disposal or transition plan and before any sanitization, archiving, or de-installation tasks begin?

  • Identify and inventory every component and data set that will be removed from service.

  • Create and approve a detailed system disposal/transition plan describing sanitization and shutdown activities.

  • Sanitize all storage media using an approved multi-pass overwrite or physical destruction method.

  • Export audit logs and configuration files to a long-term archival repository.

Question 14 of 20

Your audit team has documented objectives, scope, resources, methods, schedule, and logistics for a federal information system assessment. According to NIST guidance, what action must you take to formally finalize the assessment plan before fieldwork begins?

  • Obtain documented approval of the assessment plan from the authorizing official and system owner

  • Purchase vulnerability-scanning licenses and create tester accounts

  • Incorporate preliminary findings from previous assessments into the plan

  • Hold a kickoff meeting to brief assessors on rules of engagement

Question 15 of 20

After selecting the NIST SP 800-53 moderate baseline for a new cloud-hosted system, the risk assessment reveals that administrators will sometimes perform remote maintenance from personally owned laptops on untrusted networks. To apply an appropriate security practice as a control enhancement, which additional requirement should be documented in the System Security Plan (SSP)?

  • Disable automatic session timeouts to prevent disruption of long-running administrative tasks.

  • Require multifactor authentication for all privileged remote sessions.

  • Reduce audit log retention from 90 to 30 days to minimize storage costs.

  • Permit the use of legacy SSH version 1 clients for backward compatibility.

Question 16 of 20

While documenting the System Security Plan for a newly deployed cloud-based case-management system, the security architect must define the system's authorization boundary. Which element is most essential to capture in that boundary description to meet RMF requirements?

  • An appendix outlining the data-retention schedule for each record type handled by the system

  • The organization's enterprise-wide privacy policy and related procedures

  • A roster of users who have privileged roles within the case-management application

  • A comprehensive inventory of all hardware, software, and network interfaces that store, process, or transmit the system's information

Question 17 of 20

For a federal cloud-hosted financial system, after controls implementation the assessment reveals two moderate and one high residual risks. The system owner insists on going live next week. To secure stakeholder concurrence with the proposed risk acceptance, what should the CGRC professional do next?

  • List the residual risks on the POA&M and move the system to production without further approvals.

  • Update the contract to transfer the high risk to the cloud service provider and skip internal authorization.

  • Lower the high residual risk to moderate in the SSP so it falls within organizational tolerance and proceed.

  • Draft a formal risk-acceptance memorandum and obtain signatures from the authorizing official and business owner, then add it to the authorization package.

Question 18 of 20

Following security categorization, a U.S. federal agency wants to align its selected safeguards with an international standard that lists specific information security controls and offers implementation guidance to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability for each information type. Which ISO/IEC 27000-series standard should the team consult?

  • ISO/IEC 27005 - Information security risk management

  • ISO/IEC 27000 - Information security management systems - Overview and vocabulary

  • ISO/IEC 27002 - Code of practice for information security controls

  • ISO/IEC 27001 - Information security management systems - Requirements

Question 19 of 20

When compiling the initial assessment report for a newly audited payment platform, you must include a risk mitigation summary for every critical vulnerability found. Which of the following best satisfies this requirement in the initial report phase?

  • A brief description of potential control or process improvements that could lower the likelihood or impact of the risk

  • A finalized remediation project plan with budgets, timelines, and assigned personnel

  • The formally accepted residual risk score after mitigation activities are completed

  • Documented proof that remediation tasks are finished and retested for effectiveness

Question 20 of 20

An EU customer writes to your compliance team stating that their mailing address on file is outdated and asks you to update it and include their new apartment number. Under GDPR, which specific data subject right are they exercising?

  • Right to erasure (right to be forgotten)

  • Right to object to processing

  • Right to rectification

  • Right to data portability