00:20:00

ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Practice Test

Use the form below to configure your ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Practice Test. The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Information

Overview of the ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Exam

The ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification is an entry-level credential designed for individuals looking to establish careers in cybersecurity. It is ideal for beginners or those transitioning into the field with little to no prior experience. The CC exam assesses fundamental knowledge in areas such as network security, risk management, access control, and incident response. As cybersecurity threats continue to rise, earning this certification demonstrates your understanding of essential concepts and your commitment to protecting digital systems.

The ISC2 CC exam includes multiple-choice and multiple-response questions, focusing on foundational security principles. Passing the exam requires a thorough understanding of core cybersecurity concepts. It is widely recognized as a stepping stone toward more advanced certifications, such as the CISSP. Candidates who earn this certification gain a strong foundation that can lead to entry-level positions, further specialized training, and career advancement within the cybersecurity field.

Why Taking Practice Exams is Crucial

Preparing for the ISC2 CC exam requires dedication and a focused study plan. One of the most effective methods to prepare is taking practice exams. These not only test your knowledge but also familiarize you with the format and style of actual exam questions. Understanding how questions are phrased and learning to identify the best answers helps reduce anxiety and build confidence for exam day.

Practice exams highlight your strengths and expose areas where you may need more study, allowing you to focus on those topics and improve your understanding. They simulate the exam experience under timed conditions, helping you better manage time and increase accuracy during the real test. Regularly working through practice exams makes it easier to retain knowledge and apply it effectively. Integrating practice exams into your study plan is a critical step toward successfully earning the ISC2 CC certification.

Tips for Success on the ISC2 CC Exam

Efficient preparation for the ISC2 CC exam starts with understanding the exam objectives and gathering study materials that cover all topics comprehensively. Study guides, flashcards, and online courses tailored to the CC syllabus are excellent tools to reinforce your knowledge. Make sure to allocate time each day for consistent study, breaking down topics into manageable sections.

In addition to studying, practicing hands-on exercises and scenarios can help improve your comprehension of real-world security situations. Combine this with regular practice exams to fine-tune your testing strategies. Staying consistent and focused throughout your preparation will increase your chances of passing the ISC2 CC exam and earning the certification.

ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Logo
  • Free ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited time
  • Security Principles
    Business Continuity, Disaster Recovery & Incident Response Concepts
    Access Control Concepts
    Network Security
    Security Operations
Question 1 of 20

Which statement best explains why an organization installs closed-circuit television (CCTV) inside a restricted server room as a monitoring control?

  • It verifies an individual's fingerprint or iris pattern before unlocking the server-room door.

  • It captures and stores visual footage so security personnel can detect incidents in real time and review evidence afterward.

  • It inspects data packets entering the network to prevent malware from reaching critical servers.

  • It blocks unauthorized entry by physically restraining doors with electromagnetic locks and barriers.

Question 2 of 20

Which mechanism primarily verifies that data has not been altered during storage or transmission, thereby supporting the integrity principle of information assurance?

  • Encryption of the data at rest

  • Requiring multi-factor authentication for users

  • Implementing redundant hardware components

  • Hashing (creating and comparing message digests)

Question 3 of 20

In the context of an organization's risk management process, how is risk most commonly and formally defined?

  • The total number of security incidents logged during a specified reporting period.

  • The dollar amount paid to transfer liability to a cyber-insurance provider.

  • The presence of any unpatched vulnerability in an information system.

  • The probability that a threat will exploit a vulnerability and cause negative impact to assets.

Question 4 of 20

In an on-premises server room, which practice most clearly demonstrates the concept of redundancy aimed at maintaining high availability during a power disruption?

  • Arranging equipment in a hot-aisle/cold-aisle pattern to improve cooling efficiency

  • Deploying a single next-generation firewall at the edge of the network

  • Color-coding and labeling network patch cables for easier maintenance

  • Connecting critical servers to two separate uninterruptible power supplies on different electrical circuits

Question 5 of 20

Which of the following combinations would satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication when logging into a secure system?

  • Retina scan and fingerprint scan

  • Password and answer to a security question

  • Smart card and fingerprint scan

  • Password and personal identification number (PIN)

Question 6 of 20

Which type of malicious code can autonomously replicate and propagate across networks without attaching itself to an existing program or requiring user action?

  • Trojan horse

  • Ransomware

  • Virus

  • Worm

Question 7 of 20

To proactively reduce the chance of a successful network attack, an organization schedules an automated process that inspects every host for missing patches, misconfigurations, and known Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). Which preventive measure does this describe?

  • Penetration testing

  • Log monitoring

  • Vulnerability scanning

  • Packet filtering

Question 8 of 20

An organization installs its core switches and servers in a separate, locked equipment closet rather than keeping them in open office space. What primary risk is this physical control designed to reduce?

  • Electromagnetic interference from nearby electronic devices

  • Voltage spikes caused by external power surges

  • Software exploits targeting switch firmware

  • Unauthorized physical theft or tampering with networking equipment

Question 9 of 20

Under ISC2's categories of security controls, which option represents a physical control intended to protect access to organizational assets?

  • A policy requiring complex passwords on all user accounts

  • Annual security awareness training for all employees

  • Firewall rules that block unauthorized IP addresses

  • Closed-circuit television cameras installed at data center entrances

Question 10 of 20

Which type of document is typically used by two organizations to outline shared security responsibilities for a facility but is generally viewed as a non-binding statement of intent rather than a legally enforceable contract?

  • Memorandum of understanding

  • Memorandum of agreement

  • Service-level agreement

  • Statement of work

Question 11 of 20

An organization wants a control that directly prevents entry by keeping a door secured until valid credentials are presented. Which measure best satisfies this need as a locking mechanism rather than a monitoring or deterrent control?

  • Reflective window film that obscures interior assets from outside view

  • A motion-activated alarm that sounds when the door is opened

  • An electronic card reader that disengages a door strike after a valid badge swipe

  • A closed-circuit television camera covering the doorway

Question 12 of 20

During system hardening, what is the primary reason for creating a security baseline for a newly deployed server?

  • To define an approved reference configuration that later changes and audits can be measured against.

  • To collect real-time system event logs for intrusion detection purposes.

  • To generate and store the disk-encryption keys used during secure boot.

  • To automatically install every available software update without administrator approval.

Question 13 of 20

In the incident response lifecycle, at what phase does the team conduct a retrospective to capture lessons learned and update procedures for future events?

  • Detection and analysis

  • Containment

  • Post-incident activity (lessons learned)

  • Preparation

Question 14 of 20

An organization discovers malware rapidly replicating on its internal network. Which response action belongs to the containment phase of the incident response process?

  • Hold a debrief meeting to discuss lessons learned.

  • Identify the vulnerability that allowed the malware to enter.

  • Patch all systems and reimage compromised servers.

  • Disconnect infected hosts from the network to stop further propagation.

Question 15 of 20

What class of malicious software relies on deceiving users into installing it by posing as a legitimate utility, then silently opens a hidden backdoor once the program is executed?

  • Trojan

  • Logic bomb

  • Computer worm

  • Side-channel attack

Question 16 of 20

Under standard physical-access policy, which person should security staff treat as unauthorized and therefore refuse entry to a secure server room?

  • A network administrator whose role includes server-room access and whose badge is validated

  • A facilities engineer on the maintenance roster who has been issued a temporary server-room badge

  • A delivery courier who arrives unescorted and has no badge or clearance

  • An external auditor with written authorization who is accompanied by an approved escort

Question 17 of 20

Within a crime-prevention-through-environmental-design (CPTED) program, which action best supports natural surveillance by improving sight lines around a facility?

  • Trim overgrown shrubs and hedges that obscure building entrances

  • Install biometric fingerprint readers on interior office doors

  • Issue smart card badges to all employees and visitors

  • Replace traditional metal keys with electronic cipher locks

Question 18 of 20

Within a typical Disaster Recovery Plan, what section provides tailored instructions enabling each business unit to resume operations according to its unique requirements after a disruption?

  • Executive summary outlining overall objectives

  • Department-specific recovery plans tailored to business units

  • Inventory of off-site backup media

  • Call tree for notifying stakeholders

Question 19 of 20

To minimize exposure to network attacks, administrators often apply the principle of least privilege on a perimeter firewall by implementing which default policy before adding specific allow rules?

  • Deny only UDP traffic while allowing all other protocols by default

  • Allow traffic from any external host that is on a predefined trusted list by default

  • Allow all traffic originating inside the network by default

  • Deny all traffic by default and explicitly permit required flows

Question 20 of 20

Why is it important for an organization to maintain a well-defined incident response capability even when it already employs strong preventive security controls?

  • It eliminates the necessity for separate business continuity and disaster recovery plans.

  • It guarantees full compliance with every applicable law and regulation without additional measures.

  • It removes the need for employees to receive ongoing security awareness training.

  • It allows swift detection, containment, and recovery when inevitable security incidents occur, minimizing operational and reputational damage.