ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Practice Test
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ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Information
Overview of the ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Exam
The ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification is an entry-level credential designed for individuals looking to establish careers in cybersecurity. It is ideal for beginners or those transitioning into the field with little to no prior experience. The CC exam assesses fundamental knowledge in areas such as network security, risk management, access control, and incident response. As cybersecurity threats continue to rise, earning this certification demonstrates your understanding of essential concepts and your commitment to protecting digital systems.
The ISC2 CC exam includes multiple-choice and multiple-response questions, focusing on foundational security principles. Passing the exam requires a thorough understanding of core cybersecurity concepts. It is widely recognized as a stepping stone toward more advanced certifications, such as the CISSP. Candidates who earn this certification gain a strong foundation that can lead to entry-level positions, further specialized training, and career advancement within the cybersecurity field.
Why Taking Practice Exams is Crucial
Preparing for the ISC2 CC exam requires dedication and a focused study plan. One of the most effective methods to prepare is taking practice exams. These not only test your knowledge but also familiarize you with the format and style of actual exam questions. Understanding how questions are phrased and learning to identify the best answers helps reduce anxiety and build confidence for exam day.
Practice exams highlight your strengths and expose areas where you may need more study, allowing you to focus on those topics and improve your understanding. They simulate the exam experience under timed conditions, helping you better manage time and increase accuracy during the real test. Regularly working through practice exams makes it easier to retain knowledge and apply it effectively. Integrating practice exams into your study plan is a critical step toward successfully earning the ISC2 CC certification.
Tips for Success on the ISC2 CC Exam
Efficient preparation for the ISC2 CC exam starts with understanding the exam objectives and gathering study materials that cover all topics comprehensively. Study guides, flashcards, and online courses tailored to the CC syllabus are excellent tools to reinforce your knowledge. Make sure to allocate time each day for consistent study, breaking down topics into manageable sections.
In addition to studying, practicing hands-on exercises and scenarios can help improve your comprehension of real-world security situations. Combine this with regular practice exams to fine-tune your testing strategies. Staying consistent and focused throughout your preparation will increase your chances of passing the ISC2 CC exam and earning the certification.

Free ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited time
- Security PrinciplesBusiness Continuity, Disaster Recovery & Incident Response ConceptsAccess Control ConceptsNetwork SecuritySecurity Operations
Which statement best explains why an organization installs closed-circuit television (CCTV) inside a restricted server room as a monitoring control?
It verifies an individual's fingerprint or iris pattern before unlocking the server-room door.
It captures and stores visual footage so security personnel can detect incidents in real time and review evidence afterward.
It inspects data packets entering the network to prevent malware from reaching critical servers.
It blocks unauthorized entry by physically restraining doors with electromagnetic locks and barriers.
Answer Description
CCTV is classified as a monitoring control because its cameras continuously watch and electronically record activity within a protected area. Live feeds let security staff detect suspicious behavior as it happens, and stored footage supplies visual evidence for later investigation or prosecution. By itself, CCTV does not grant or deny entry (that is done by locks or authentication devices), enforce network policies, or verify biometric traits; instead, it provides real-time observation and historical documentation of physical events.
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How does CCTV differ from other physical security controls like locks or biometric devices?
Can CCTV cameras prevent unauthorized entry to a server room?
Why is CCTV considered a monitoring control and not an access control?
Which mechanism primarily verifies that data has not been altered during storage or transmission, thereby supporting the integrity principle of information assurance?
Encryption of the data at rest
Requiring multi-factor authentication for users
Implementing redundant hardware components
Hashing (creating and comparing message digests)
Answer Description
Hashing algorithms transform data into a fixed-length value (hash or message digest). Any change to the original data produces a different hash, allowing recipients or systems to detect unauthorized modification and thus preserve integrity. Encryption focuses on keeping data confidential, redundancy supports availability by providing alternate resources, and multi-factor authentication confirms identity rather than data accuracy.
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What is hashing and how does it ensure data integrity?
How does hashing differ from encryption?
What are some common applications of hashing beyond verifying integrity?
In the context of an organization's risk management process, how is risk most commonly and formally defined?
The total number of security incidents logged during a specified reporting period.
The dollar amount paid to transfer liability to a cyber-insurance provider.
The presence of any unpatched vulnerability in an information system.
The probability that a threat will exploit a vulnerability and cause negative impact to assets.
Answer Description
Risk is not simply any vulnerability, incident count, or insurance cost. Rather, it represents the chance that a threat actor will successfully exploit a specific vulnerability and, as a result, harm the organization's assets, operations, or individuals. This definition highlights two key dimensions-likelihood (probability of exploitation) and impact (negative consequence). Security incidents, unpatched systems, or insurance premiums may relate to cybersecurity but do not, by themselves, represent the complete concept of risk as used in a formal risk assessment.
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What is the difference between a threat and a vulnerability?
How do you calculate risk in a formal risk management process?
What is the importance of addressing both likelihood and impact in risk assessment?
In an on-premises server room, which practice most clearly demonstrates the concept of redundancy aimed at maintaining high availability during a power disruption?
Arranging equipment in a hot-aisle/cold-aisle pattern to improve cooling efficiency
Deploying a single next-generation firewall at the edge of the network
Color-coding and labeling network patch cables for easier maintenance
Connecting critical servers to two separate uninterruptible power supplies on different electrical circuits
Answer Description
Redundancy involves duplicating critical components so that the failure of one does not interrupt operations. Using two independent uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) that can each support the same set of servers means power will continue even if one UPS fails. Merely labeling cables, configuring HVAC airflow, or installing a single next-generation firewall do not duplicate a critical function; they improve organization, cooling efficiency, or security but leave no backup component ready to take over immediately if the primary one stops working.
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What is the primary purpose of redundancy in an IT system?
How does an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) contribute to system redundancy?
What is the difference between redundancy and high availability?
Which of the following combinations would satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication when logging into a secure system?
Retina scan and fingerprint scan
Password and answer to a security question
Smart card and fingerprint scan
Password and personal identification number (PIN)
Answer Description
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires credentials from at least two distinct factor categories: something you know, something you have, or something you are. A smart card represents something you have, while a fingerprint is something you are. Using both meets the MFA definition. The other choices pair factors from the same category-either two knowledge factors (password and PIN, password and security question) or two biometric factors (retina scan and fingerprint)-so they do not constitute MFA.
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What are the three authentication factor categories in MFA?
Why don't two biometric factors count as MFA?
How does a smart card work as an authentication factor?
Which type of malicious code can autonomously replicate and propagate across networks without attaching itself to an existing program or requiring user action?
Trojan horse
Ransomware
Virus
Worm
Answer Description
A worm is a self-contained piece of malware that can copy itself from one system to another without any need to piggy-back on another file or wait for a user to run it. This autonomous replication distinguishes worms from viruses, which must infect host files to spread. Trojans, in contrast, masquerade as legitimate software and rely on users to install or run them; they do not self-replicate. Ransomware is malware that encrypts or blocks access to data until a ransom is paid, but it also lacks the automatic self-propagating property that defines a worm. Therefore, the worm is the only option that fulfills the description of independent, self-replicating network propagation.
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How does a worm propagate across networks?
What is the difference between worms and viruses in terms of replication?
How can networks be protected against worms?
To proactively reduce the chance of a successful network attack, an organization schedules an automated process that inspects every host for missing patches, misconfigurations, and known Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). Which preventive measure does this describe?
Penetration testing
Log monitoring
Vulnerability scanning
Packet filtering
Answer Description
Regular vulnerability scanning uses automated tools to probe systems and network devices for known weaknesses such as outdated software, unpatched flaws, or improper configurations. Finding these issues early allows defenders to correct them before attackers can exploit them, making vulnerability scanning a key preventive control. Penetration testing is a deeper, often manual, simulation of real attacks and is usually performed less frequently. Log monitoring focuses on detecting events that have already occurred rather than uncovering latent weaknesses. Packet filtering refers to enforcing firewall rules to block or permit traffic; it does not actively look for host vulnerabilities.
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What is vulnerability scanning?
How is vulnerability scanning different from penetration testing?
What are CVEs and how do they relate to vulnerability scanning?
An organization installs its core switches and servers in a separate, locked equipment closet rather than keeping them in open office space. What primary risk is this physical control designed to reduce?
Electromagnetic interference from nearby electronic devices
Voltage spikes caused by external power surges
Software exploits targeting switch firmware
Unauthorized physical theft or tampering with networking equipment
Answer Description
Placing essential network devices in a secured closet limits who can physically reach them. By restricting physical access, the organization greatly lowers the likelihood that an unauthorized person can steal, damage, or manipulate the hardware-actions that could disrupt operations or compromise data. While the control may indirectly help with issues such as power or electromagnetic interference, its main purpose is to prevent intentional or accidental physical tampering or theft. Software vulnerabilities and power fluctuations are addressed through different technical and electrical safeguards, not by locking the equipment location.
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How does restricting physical access prevent tampering or theft?
What are other physical controls organizations can implement to protect equipment?
How is software security different from physical security for protecting equipment?
Under ISC2's categories of security controls, which option represents a physical control intended to protect access to organizational assets?
A policy requiring complex passwords on all user accounts
Annual security awareness training for all employees
Firewall rules that block unauthorized IP addresses
Closed-circuit television cameras installed at data center entrances
Answer Description
Closed-circuit television (CCTV) equipment is a tangible mechanism that helps deter and record unauthorized entry, so it is classified as a physical security control. Security awareness training and password complexity rules are written directives that guide behavior, making them administrative controls. Firewall rule sets are hardware or software mechanisms that limit network traffic, placing them in the technical control category. Because only the CCTV system involves a concrete, physical barrier or detection device, it is the correct choice.
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What are physical security controls in cybersecurity?
How does CCTV function as a physical security control?
What is the difference between administrative, technical, and physical controls?
Which type of document is typically used by two organizations to outline shared security responsibilities for a facility but is generally viewed as a non-binding statement of intent rather than a legally enforceable contract?
Memorandum of understanding
Memorandum of agreement
Service-level agreement
Statement of work
Answer Description
A memorandum of understanding (MOU) records the intentions and shared responsibilities of the parties, such as how they will handle physical and environmental security in a jointly used data center. Because an MOU usually expresses cooperation goals without imposing strict legal obligations, it is considered non-binding. A memorandum of agreement (MOA) tends to be more formal and can carry legal force, a service-level agreement (SLA) specifies performance metrics for provided services, and a statement of work (SOW) details project tasks and deliverables.
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What is the difference between a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) and a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)?
Can an MOU include security responsibilities for facilities? If so, how does it help?
How does an MOU differ from a Service-Level Agreement (SLA)?
An organization wants a control that directly prevents entry by keeping a door secured until valid credentials are presented. Which measure best satisfies this need as a locking mechanism rather than a monitoring or deterrent control?
Reflective window film that obscures interior assets from outside view
A motion-activated alarm that sounds when the door is opened
An electronic card reader that disengages a door strike after a valid badge swipe
A closed-circuit television camera covering the doorway
Answer Description
A badge-activated card reader that releases an electric door strike is an example of an electronic lock. It physically keeps the door closed until proper authentication occurs, thereby preventing unauthorized entry. A CCTV camera only records activity and serves as a detective control. A motion-activated alarm detects and alerts but does not stop entry. Reflective window film obstructs viewing and acts chiefly as a deterrent, not as a lock.
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How does an electronic card reader control access?
What is the difference between preventive, detective, and deterrent controls?
Why is a CCTV camera considered a detective control and not a preventive one?
During system hardening, what is the primary reason for creating a security baseline for a newly deployed server?
To define an approved reference configuration that later changes and audits can be measured against.
To collect real-time system event logs for intrusion detection purposes.
To generate and store the disk-encryption keys used during secure boot.
To automatically install every available software update without administrator approval.
Answer Description
A security baseline is a documented set of approved configuration settings that represent the minimum acceptable security posture for a system. Administrators use this baseline as a reference point: any future modification can be compared against it to verify that the system remains within the organization's approved, secure configuration. It does not automate patch installation, generate encryption keys, or perform event logging-those tasks are handled by other tools and processes.
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What is system hardening?
Why is a security baseline important in system hardening?
What tools can help create and measure a security baseline?
In the incident response lifecycle, at what phase does the team conduct a retrospective to capture lessons learned and update procedures for future events?
Detection and analysis
Containment
Post-incident activity (lessons learned)
Preparation
Answer Description
The lessons-learned retrospective occurs during the post-incident activity phase. After systems are restored, the team reviews what happened, documents findings, and recommends improvements to policies, controls, and the incident response plan. Preparation, detection and analysis, and containment focus on readiness, identifying the incident, and limiting its spread; none of them center on formalizing lessons learned.
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What is the incident response lifecycle?
What happens during a post-incident activity phase?
How does the lessons-learned process improve cybersecurity?
An organization discovers malware rapidly replicating on its internal network. Which response action belongs to the containment phase of the incident response process?
Hold a debrief meeting to discuss lessons learned.
Identify the vulnerability that allowed the malware to enter.
Patch all systems and reimage compromised servers.
Disconnect infected hosts from the network to stop further propagation.
Answer Description
During containment, responders act immediately to stop an incident from spreading or worsening. Physically or logically isolating infected hosts halts further malware propagation, buying time for eradication and recovery steps. Investigating the entry point is part of analysis, patching and re-imaging fall under eradication and recovery, and the debrief occurs during post-incident activities-none of which are objectives of the containment phase.
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What is the containment phase in the incident response process?
Why is identifying vulnerabilities not part of the containment phase?
How is eradication different from containment in incident response?
What class of malicious software relies on deceiving users into installing it by posing as a legitimate utility, then silently opens a hidden backdoor once the program is executed?
Trojan
Logic bomb
Computer worm
Side-channel attack
Answer Description
Malware that masquerades as harmless or useful software to trick users into installing it is known as a Trojan. Once launched, a Trojan does not attempt to replicate or spread by itself; instead, it carries out the hidden payload such as opening a backdoor that allows an attacker remote access. A computer worm, by contrast, is self-replicating and travels across networks without user assistance. A logic bomb is dormant code that activates only when specific conditions are met, and a side-channel attack gathers information from hardware leakages like timing or power use rather than installing software. Therefore, only a Trojan fits the scenario described.
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What is a Trojan horse in cybersecurity?
How does a Trojan differ from a computer worm?
What is a backdoor in the context of a Trojan?
Under standard physical-access policy, which person should security staff treat as unauthorized and therefore refuse entry to a secure server room?
A network administrator whose role includes server-room access and whose badge is validated
A facilities engineer on the maintenance roster who has been issued a temporary server-room badge
A delivery courier who arrives unescorted and has no badge or clearance
An external auditor with written authorization who is accompanied by an approved escort
Answer Description
The delivery courier arrives without a badge, clearance, or an approved escort and therefore lacks any form of authorization. By contrast, the other individuals all have explicit permission-whether through role-based rights, a temporary access badge, or written authorization plus an approved escort-and may enter under policy.
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Why is a badge important for physical access control?
What is role-based access control and how does it apply to physical security?
What should security staff do if someone arrives without proper authorization?
Within a crime-prevention-through-environmental-design (CPTED) program, which action best supports natural surveillance by improving sight lines around a facility?
Trim overgrown shrubs and hedges that obscure building entrances
Install biometric fingerprint readers on interior office doors
Issue smart card badges to all employees and visitors
Replace traditional metal keys with electronic cipher locks
Answer Description
Natural surveillance seeks to maximize visibility so legitimate users can easily observe suspicious activity. Trimming overgrown shrubs near entrances removes visual obstructions, extending lines of sight from windows and walkways. Biometric readers, smart card badges, and electronic cipher locks are access-control or authentication tools; they do not significantly affect visibility of surrounding areas, so they relate to other security control categories rather than environmental design for natural surveillance.
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What is Natural Surveillance in CPTED?
Why are access control measures not part of natural surveillance?
How do trimmed shrubs and hedges improve security?
Within a typical Disaster Recovery Plan, what section provides tailored instructions enabling each business unit to resume operations according to its unique requirements after a disruption?
Executive summary outlining overall objectives
Department-specific recovery plans tailored to business units
Inventory of off-site backup media
Call tree for notifying stakeholders
Answer Description
A Disaster Recovery Plan should break down recovery guidance by business unit so that each department has procedures that reflect its own systems, priorities, and dependencies. These department-specific recovery plans ensure that finance, human resources, manufacturing, and other units can restore their critical functions quickly and in the correct order. An executive summary only gives high-level context, a call tree focuses on notification, and an inventory of off-site backup media merely lists storage resources-none of these offers unit-level operational instructions.
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What is a Disaster Recovery Plan?
Why are department-specific recovery plans important?
How does a department-specific recovery plan differ from an executive summary in a DRP?
To minimize exposure to network attacks, administrators often apply the principle of least privilege on a perimeter firewall by implementing which default policy before adding specific allow rules?
Deny only UDP traffic while allowing all other protocols by default
Allow traffic from any external host that is on a predefined trusted list by default
Allow all traffic originating inside the network by default
Deny all traffic by default and explicitly permit required flows
Answer Description
A default-deny (or implicit deny) policy means the firewall blocks all traffic unless an explicit rule permits it. This minimizes attack surfaces because unsolicited or misconfigured traffic is discarded automatically. Simply denying only UDP, allowing all internal traffic, or trusting certain external IP ranges by default still leaves unnecessary openings that attackers can exploit. Starting with deny-all and then adding narrowly scoped permit rules best enforces least privilege.
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What is the principle of least privilege in cybersecurity?
How does a perimeter firewall function to secure a network?
What are the differences between an implicit deny and explicit allow policy?
Why is it important for an organization to maintain a well-defined incident response capability even when it already employs strong preventive security controls?
It eliminates the necessity for separate business continuity and disaster recovery plans.
It guarantees full compliance with every applicable law and regulation without additional measures.
It removes the need for employees to receive ongoing security awareness training.
It allows swift detection, containment, and recovery when inevitable security incidents occur, minimizing operational and reputational damage.
Answer Description
No preventive security program can block every possible threat, so incidents will still occur. A formal incident response capability enables an organization to detect events quickly, limit damage through rapid containment, and coordinate recovery and communication efforts that protect data, operations, and reputation. Relying on prevention alone is insufficient, and incident response does not eliminate the need for user training or broader continuity and recovery planning. While incident response supports regulatory compliance, it does not automatically satisfy all obligations. Instead, its primary value is reducing impact and downtime after an unavoidable security event.
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What are the key components of an incident response plan?
How does incident response differ from disaster recovery?
Why can’t preventive security controls alone ensure complete protection?
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