00:15:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Your company has a policy that requires all stored user passwords to be protected. Which method would be MOST appropriate to use when storing these passwords to maintain security while allowing user authentication to continue to work effectively?

  • Storing passwords in plaintext

  • Hashing passwords

  • Encrypting passwords with a symmetric key

  • Encoding passwords with Base64

Question 2 of 15

Which of the following best describes the role of national considerations in an organization's security program management and oversight?

  • Guidelines set forth by global nongovernmental organizations

  • Ensuring compatibility with international standards such as ISO/IEC 27001

  • Following internal policies and procedures developed by the organization

  • Adherence to country-specific legal and regulatory requirements

Question 3 of 15

What is the primary importance of incorporating security requirements into the procurement process for new IT systems and services?

  • To ensure security controls are integrated into the design and contractual obligations from the beginning, reducing overall risks

  • To merely comply with external audit requirements, with minimal focus on actual security postures

  • To avoid the need for any further security assessments or monitoring once the system is deployed

  • To transfer the responsibility for security from the organization to the external vendor

Question 4 of 15

Your organization is looking to improve its incident response capabilities by implementing security automation. As the security manager, you need to decide which aspect of the incident response process would most benefit from automation. Given the goal to reduce response times and human error, which would be the most effective use of automation?

  • Automating communication with the media regarding details of the incident.

  • Automating decision-making on how to handle every aspect of the incident response.

  • Automating the entire post-incident report generation without human review.

  • Automating the initial incident triage to categorize and prioritize incidents based on predefined rules and criteria.

Question 5 of 15

A security manager is establishing a formal security program. The manager needs to create a high-level document that defines the organization's security goals and mandates the creation of more detailed documents, such as a Disaster Recovery Plan and an Incident Response Plan. Which of the following governance documents should the manager create FIRST to serve this purpose?

  • Information Security Policy

  • Incident Response Plan

  • Business Continuity Plan

  • Acceptable Use Policy

Question 6 of 15

Which of the following best defines the role of an owner within the context of systems and data governance?

  • An individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of assets.

  • Teams responsible for performing regular audits and compliance checks on data management practices.

  • Personnel who physically interact with the data on a daily basis, ensuring its accuracy and integrity.

  • Third-party service providers who process data on behalf of the data owner or controller.

Question 7 of 15

As part of its business operations, a company must store customers' personal information. The company understands that a data breach is a significant risk. If a breach occurred, the company could not afford the financial loss. Therefore, it has decided to purchase cybersecurity insurance to cover potential damages. Which risk management strategy is the company using?

  • Acceptance

  • Mitigation

  • Transference

  • Avoidance

Question 8 of 15

Your company has issued laptops to its employees for remote work. During a routine security audit, you identify that these laptops come with pre-installed software from the manufacturer that is not being used by the employees. What concerns should you have regarding this software from a security perspective?

  • This software can take up disk space, but it does not pose any security concerns.

  • The software could be useful for productivity, hence poses no significant risk.

  • The employees may use this software regularly, which could lead to potential data leaks.

  • This software may contain vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers because they often go unmanaged and unpatched.

Question 9 of 15

What best describes the use of multiple cloud service providers to distribute assets, applications, and resources?

  • Cloud service brokerage is a third-party offering that manages the use, performance, and delivery of cloud services, and negotiates relationships between cloud providers and consumers.

  • A multi-cloud system refers to the distribution across different cloud providers for enhanced flexibility and mitigation of risks.

  • A single-tenant infrastructure is one where the organization uses a single cloud provider's services for hosting all resources.

  • A hybrid cloud system combines private computing resources with public services but does not necessarily involve multiple cloud service providers.

Question 10 of 15

A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?

  • Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.

  • A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.

  • Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.

  • Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.

Question 11 of 15

What type of attack involves an adversary intentionally causing a system to revert to a less secure state or protocol to exploit the vulnerabilities associated with it?

  • Phishing

  • Replay attack

  • Downgrade attack

  • Buffer overflow

Question 12 of 15

You have ordered a penetration test on the company's website from a third-party IT security consultant. Your web administration team has created a stand-alone test network to ensure the penetration test does not cause issues on the live website. Other than the IP address of the web server, you have not provided the penetration testers with any other information. What type of test best describes this scenario?

  • Integration

  • Stand-alone

  • Black-box

  • White-box

Question 13 of 15

During a routine audit, the IT team discovers a piece of code embedded in the company's payroll system that is set to activate and erase employee records on a particular date. What type of malicious software has been deployed?

  • Logic bomb

  • Spyware

  • Trojan horse

  • Ransomware

Question 14 of 15

A financial institution wants to ensure their online banking services remain accessible to customers even if a cyberattack disrupts their main operational site. Which strategy should they implement to maintain service availability under such circumstances?

  • Enforce strict firewall policies to prevent unauthorized access.

  • Deploy an IDS to monitor and detect malicious network activity.

  • Establish a geographically separated hot site for operational continuity.

  • Perform weekly backups of critical data to secure storage.

Question 15 of 15

A company is experiencing compliance issues due to inconsistent application of security settings across its servers. To address this, management has decided to implement secure baselines for all server configurations. What is the MOST effective action to ensure all servers adhere to the established secure baseline?

  • Deploy configuration management tools to ensure secure settings.

  • Establish regularly scheduled security updates for all servers.

  • Provide training for IT staff on the importance of secure server configurations.

  • Conduct manual reviews of server configurations on a quarterly basis.