CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Your company has a policy that requires all stored user passwords to be protected. Which method would be MOST appropriate to use when storing these passwords to maintain security while allowing user authentication to continue to work effectively?
Storing passwords in plaintext
Hashing passwords
Encrypting passwords with a symmetric key
Encoding passwords with Base64
Answer Description
Hashing is the most appropriate method for storing passwords securely. It converts the password into a fixed-size string of characters that is difficult to reverse-engineer. In the event of a data breach, hashed passwords are not readily usable by attackers, unlike if they were stored in plaintext. Hashing is a one-way function, which is why it is suitable for password storage, as the original password cannot be easily retrieved from the hash during the authentication process or if the hash is compromised.
Ask Bash
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What is hashing and how does it work?
What are the benefits of using hashing for password storage?
What is the difference between hashing and encryption?
Which of the following best describes the role of national considerations in an organization's security program management and oversight?
Guidelines set forth by global nongovernmental organizations
Ensuring compatibility with international standards such as ISO/IEC 27001
Following internal policies and procedures developed by the organization
Adherence to country-specific legal and regulatory requirements
Answer Description
National considerations are critical because they involve adherence to laws, regulations, and guidelines that are specific to a country where an organization operates. Understanding and complying with these national directives is essential for legal operation and can affect many aspects of an organization's security program, including data protection, privacy, and incident response.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of country-specific legal and regulatory requirements organizations must follow?
How do national considerations affect data protection and privacy policies?
What is the impact of failing to adhere to national regulations on an organization?
What is the primary importance of incorporating security requirements into the procurement process for new IT systems and services?
To ensure security controls are integrated into the design and contractual obligations from the beginning, reducing overall risks
To merely comply with external audit requirements, with minimal focus on actual security postures
To avoid the need for any further security assessments or monitoring once the system is deployed
To transfer the responsibility for security from the organization to the external vendor
Answer Description
Incorporating security requirements during the procurement process ensures that the security controls are integrated into the design and contractual obligations, which is vital to mitigate risks from the outset. Waiting until a system or service is deployed to consider security could result in higher costs due to retroactive changes and potential exposure to threats that could have been avoided.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to integrate security controls into the design of IT systems?
What are the potential consequences of not considering security during procurement?
How do contractual obligations play a role in security during procurement?
Your organization is looking to improve its incident response capabilities by implementing security automation. As the security manager, you need to decide which aspect of the incident response process would most benefit from automation. Given the goal to reduce response times and human error, which would be the most effective use of automation?
Automating communication with the media regarding details of the incident.
Automating decision-making on how to handle every aspect of the incident response.
Automating the entire post-incident report generation without human review.
Automating the initial incident triage to categorize and prioritize incidents based on predefined rules and criteria.
Answer Description
Automating the initial incident triage process allows incidents to be quickly categorized and prioritized based on predefined criteria, such as source, type, and severity. This rapid classification helps to ensure that higher severity incidents are dealt with promptly and reduces the manual effort needed by the incident response team, allowing them to focus on responding to incidents rather than initial data gathering and assessment. On the other hand, fully automating the decision-making process on how to handle an incident could be risky, as it may require human judgment and context that cannot be replicated by automation processes. Similarly, while automation can assist in gathering data for a post-incident report, generating it entirely without human review is not ideal as it lacks critical analysis and lessons learned. Finally, automated communication with the media would not be appropriate as it requires careful crafting by someone with public relations expertise to manage potential reputational damage.
Ask Bash
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What is incident triage in the context of incident response?
How do predefined rules and criteria improve the incident response process?
Why is it risky to fully automate decision-making in incident response?
A security manager is establishing a formal security program. The manager needs to create a high-level document that defines the organization's security goals and mandates the creation of more detailed documents, such as a Disaster Recovery Plan and an Incident Response Plan. Which of the following governance documents should the manager create FIRST to serve this purpose?
Information Security Policy
Incident Response Plan
Business Continuity Plan
Acceptable Use Policy
Answer Description
An Information Security Policy (ISP) is the foundational, high-level document in a security governance structure. It outlines an organization's overall security posture, objectives, and responsibilities. The ISP serves as the authority that mandates the creation and implementation of other, more specific policies, standards, and plans, including the Incident Response Plan and Disaster Recovery Plan. The other options are all specific plans or policies that are typically created under the guidance and authority of the main Information Security Policy.
Ask Bash
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What are Disaster Recovery Plans (DRPs)?
What is an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
How do Information Security Policies support organizational resilience?
Which of the following best defines the role of an owner within the context of systems and data governance?
An individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of assets.
Teams responsible for performing regular audits and compliance checks on data management practices.
Personnel who physically interact with the data on a daily basis, ensuring its accuracy and integrity.
Third-party service providers who process data on behalf of the data owner or controller.
Answer Description
An owner is an individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of the assets. This includes ensuring appropriate access controls are in place and the integrity and security of the asset are maintained.
Ask Bash
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What are the key responsibilities of a data owner?
How does data governance relate to privacy and security?
What is the difference between a data owner and a data steward?
As part of its business operations, a company must store customers' personal information. The company understands that a data breach is a significant risk. If a breach occurred, the company could not afford the financial loss. Therefore, it has decided to purchase cybersecurity insurance to cover potential damages. Which risk management strategy is the company using?
Acceptance
Mitigation
Transference
Avoidance
Answer Description
Risk transference is a strategy that involves shifting the financial consequences of a risk to a third party. Purchasing insurance is the most common example of risk transference, as it moves the potential financial loss from an incident to the insurance provider.
Ask Bash
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What is risk transference?
How does purchasing insurance relate to risk management?
What are other examples of risk transference?
Your company has issued laptops to its employees for remote work. During a routine security audit, you identify that these laptops come with pre-installed software from the manufacturer that is not being used by the employees. What concerns should you have regarding this software from a security perspective?
This software can take up disk space, but it does not pose any security concerns.
The software could be useful for productivity, hence poses no significant risk.
The employees may use this software regularly, which could lead to potential data leaks.
This software may contain vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers because they often go unmanaged and unpatched.
Answer Description
Pre-installed software that is not necessary for the user's activities-commonly called bloatware-can pose a security risk if it contains unpatched vulnerabilities. Because this software is often unmanaged, it can increase the device's attack surface. Attackers may exploit flaws in the unused software or its background services even if employees never actively launch the applications. Therefore, the main concern is the presence of potentially vulnerable code, not how frequently employees use the software.
Ask Bash
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What are vulnerabilities in software?
What is bloatware and why is it a concern?
How can companies securely manage pre-installed software on devices?
What best describes the use of multiple cloud service providers to distribute assets, applications, and resources?
Cloud service brokerage is a third-party offering that manages the use, performance, and delivery of cloud services, and negotiates relationships between cloud providers and consumers.
A multi-cloud system refers to the distribution across different cloud providers for enhanced flexibility and mitigation of risks.
A single-tenant infrastructure is one where the organization uses a single cloud provider's services for hosting all resources.
A hybrid cloud system combines private computing resources with public services but does not necessarily involve multiple cloud service providers.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains the distribution of assets, applications, and resources across multiple cloud service providers, which is the definition of a multi-cloud system. It allows organizations to leverage the strengths of different cloud providers to optimize performance, ensure redundancy, and potentially reduce costs.
Ask Bash
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What are the benefits of using a multi-cloud strategy?
How does a multi-cloud system help in risk mitigation?
What challenges might organizations face when implementing a multi-cloud strategy?
A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?
Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.
A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.
Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.
Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.
Answer Description
While process isolation is the fundamental mechanism that prevents VM escape, it is not foolproof, as vulnerabilities in the hypervisor can still be exploited. A comprehensive, defense-in-depth strategy is the most effective approach. This includes keeping both the hypervisor and guest operating systems fully patched, using network segmentation to limit an attacker's reach, and applying the principle of least privilege through strict access controls. HIDS on guest VMs and data encryption are valuable security layers, but they do not directly prevent the hypervisor compromise that enables a VM escape.
Ask Bash
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What are VM escape vulnerabilities?
What is the principle of least privilege?
What are strict access controls?
What type of attack involves an adversary intentionally causing a system to revert to a less secure state or protocol to exploit the vulnerabilities associated with it?
Phishing
Replay attack
Downgrade attack
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
A Downgrade attack is characterized by an attacker forcing a system to use a less secure protocol or state, thereby creating opportunities to exploit known vulnerabilities of the older systems or protocols. This makes the attack successful as the older versions generally lack the security features and protections found in newer versions. The incorrect options do not define an attack where the system is forced to use less secure protocols.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of systems vulnerable to downgrade attacks?
How can organizations mitigate the risk of downgrade attacks?
What distinguishes a downgrade attack from a replay attack?
You have ordered a penetration test on the company's website from a third-party IT security consultant. Your web administration team has created a stand-alone test network to ensure the penetration test does not cause issues on the live website. Other than the IP address of the web server, you have not provided the penetration testers with any other information. What type of test best describes this scenario?
Integration
Stand-alone
Black-box
White-box
Answer Description
This type of penetration test is known as a black-box test. In this approach, the testers are given little to no prior information about the target system. For example, they are not provided with details like the web server type or access to the source code. Instead, the testers must perform reconnaissance to gather information and probe for vulnerabilities, simulating an attack from an external threat actor with no inside knowledge.
Ask Bash
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What is a black box test in penetration testing?
What are the differences between black box and white box testing?
Why is it important to isolate the penetration test network from the live website?
During a routine audit, the IT team discovers a piece of code embedded in the company's payroll system that is set to activate and erase employee records on a particular date. What type of malicious software has been deployed?
Logic bomb
Spyware
Trojan horse
Ransomware
Answer Description
A logic bomb is malicious code designed to execute a harmful function when specific conditions are met, such as a particular date or the detection of unauthorized access. This differentiates it from other malware types like viruses or ransomware, which have different activation mechanisms and payloads.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a logic bomb and how does it work?
How does a logic bomb differ from ransomware?
Can you explain the differences between a logic bomb, a Trojan horse, and spyware?
A financial institution wants to ensure their online banking services remain accessible to customers even if a cyberattack disrupts their main operational site. Which strategy should they implement to maintain service availability under such circumstances?
Enforce strict firewall policies to prevent unauthorized access.
Deploy an IDS to monitor and detect malicious network activity.
Establish a geographically separated hot site for operational continuity.
Perform weekly backups of critical data to secure storage.
Answer Description
Establishing a geographically separated hot site allows the institution to quickly switch operations to an alternative location if the main site is compromised due to a cyberattack. This strategy ensures continuous service availability by replicating critical systems and data in a separate location. Weekly backups secure data but do not prevent downtime during a site outage. Deploying an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) helps detect malicious activity but does not provide redundancy for service availability. Enforcing strict firewall policies enhances security measures but does not guarantee availability if the main site is disrupted.
Ask Bash
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What is a hot site?
Why is it important to have backup solutions in addition to a hot site?
What are the differences between a hot site, warm site, and cold site?
A company is experiencing compliance issues due to inconsistent application of security settings across its servers. To address this, management has decided to implement secure baselines for all server configurations. What is the MOST effective action to ensure all servers adhere to the established secure baseline?
Deploy configuration management tools to ensure secure settings.
Establish regularly scheduled security updates for all servers.
Provide training for IT staff on the importance of secure server configurations.
Conduct manual reviews of server configurations on a quarterly basis.
Answer Description
Deploying configuration management tools allows the company to automate the enforcement of secure baselines across all servers. This ensures that the secure settings are applied consistently, and any deviations are automatically corrected. Manual review, while important, is not as effective or efficient for ensuring consistency across a large number of servers. Providing training to IT staff is useful for awareness but does not guarantee consistent application or enforcement of the secure baselines. Regularly scheduled security updates are critical for maintaining server security but do not ensure that all security settings align with the secure baseline.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are configuration management tools and how do they work?
What is a secure baseline in the context of server configurations?
Why are manual reviews of server configurations less effective than automated tools?
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