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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

During a security assessment, you are asked which deployment mode to choose for a new intrusion prevention system (IPS). The organization needs the IPS to examine every packet as it traverses the network and immediately drop or rewrite any traffic identified as malicious. Which deployment mode meets this requirement?

  • Inline deployment

  • Tap deployment

  • Out-of-band monitoring

  • Passive sensor placement

Question 2 of 20

What is the primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure?

  • Enforcing policy by shutting down systems that do not adhere to predefined configurations

  • Conducting retrospective analysis to determine the root cause of a security incident

  • Remediating vulnerabilities to prevent the exploitation of a system

  • Identifying unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident

Question 3 of 20

An organization wants to implement a security model that requires all users and devices, whether inside or outside the network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Which of the following models best meets this requirement?

  • Defense in Depth

  • Zero Trust Model

  • Discretionary Access Control

  • Least Privilege Model

Question 4 of 20

A company wants to ensure that if any of its laptops are lost or stolen, data stored on them remains inaccessible to unauthorized users. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this?

  • Implement email encryption for company communications

  • Implement full-disk encryption on the laptops

  • Use database encryption for all company databases

  • Encrypt sensitive files individually on the laptops

Question 5 of 20

Which of the following options is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging?

  • syslog

  • SNMP

  • SIEM

  • Event manager

Question 6 of 20

Within the context of information security, which term is used to describe enforceable directives issued by a government entity that organizations are legally bound to follow?

  • Mandates

  • Frameworks

  • Guidelines

  • Regulations

Question 7 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of a network firewall in protecting an organization from malware infections?

  • Firewalls only control outbound traffic and therefore play no part in malware protection.

  • A firewall filters traffic according to rule sets but must be supplemented by controls such as antivirus, IDS/IPS, and endpoint protection to defend effectively against malware.

  • Firewalls primarily scan files on disk for malicious code and remove any malware found on endpoints.

  • A properly configured firewall alone can block all malware, so additional security tools are unnecessary.

Question 8 of 20

An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?

  • Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.

  • Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.

  • Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.

  • Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.

Question 9 of 20

What term is used to describe a scenario where an actual security issue is not reported or identified by a security system?

  • False negative

  • False security

  • True positive

  • False positive

Question 10 of 20

A healthcare institution recently hired you to review their security measures. You discover that they have not been monitoring access to publicly available information that could be used for social engineering attacks. Which type of reconnaissance is the institution most vulnerable to?

  • Passive reconnaissance

  • Active reconnaissance

  • Penetration testing

  • Active scanning

Question 11 of 20

In the context of security architecture, what does 'Responsiveness' refer to when considering system design and high availability?

  • The frequency at which a system performs routine maintenance and updates.

  • The ability of the system to acknowledge and handle requests quickly, maintaining service quality.

  • The efficiency of encrypting and decrypting data at rest and data in transit.

  • The capacity of backup power systems to provide electricity during an outage.

Question 12 of 20

An organization is designing a high-availability web application that must handle fluctuating workloads and ensure minimal downtime during peak usage. Which of the following strategies BEST addresses the compute considerations for achieving high availability in this scenario?

  • Implementing load balancing to distribute traffic across multiple servers

  • Deploying redundant power supplies for each server

  • Scheduling regular maintenance during off-peak hours

  • Utilizing real-time data replication to a standby server

Question 13 of 20

An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?

  • Port scanning

  • Phishing attempt

  • Brute force attack

  • Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

Question 14 of 20

What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?

  • It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.

  • It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.

  • It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.

  • It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.

Question 15 of 20

Which data type specifically refers to information whose collection, storage, and transmission are governed by external laws or industry regulations such as HIPAA for medical records or PCI-DSS for credit-card information?

  • Public

  • Intellectual property

  • Regulated

  • Trade secret

Question 16 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst needs to create a document that provides employees with non-mandatory recommendations and best practices for securely configuring their home Wi-Fi networks for remote work. The document is intended to be advisory rather than a set of strict, enforceable rules. Which of the following governance documents should the analyst create?

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Password standard

  • Change management procedure

  • Guideline

Question 17 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing server logs and notices a high volume of failed login attempts for a single administrative account, all originating from the same IP address. Which of the following subsequent log entries would be the strongest indicator that a brute-force attack was successful?

  • A successful login for the targeted account from the same IP address.

  • Continued failed login attempts for different usernames from the same IP address.

  • Successful logins for other user accounts from different IP addresses.

  • An 'account locked' event for the targeted account.

Question 18 of 20

During a company's security assessment, a cybersecurity analyst deploys a deliberately vulnerable server on an isolated network segment so that any intruders who interact with it can be monitored, recorded, and studied in real time. Which type of system provides this capability?

  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

  • Firewall

  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Honeypot

Question 19 of 20

Which cryptographic technique involves adding random data to a password before hashing to protect against rainbow table attacks?

  • Steganography

  • Salting

  • Tokenization

  • Obfuscation

Question 20 of 20

During an annual risk assessment, the cybersecurity governance committee needs to decide which of several identified risks should be mitigated first. Which metric would give the committee the best indication of each risk's probability so they can rank the risks in order of urgency?

  • Evaluating how often a given security incident could occur within a year.

  • Tracking the number of software updates and patches released per week.

  • Reviewing the historical time between successful incidents of specific natures.

  • Assessing the security features of the latest technologies implemented.