CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
During a security assessment, you are asked which deployment mode to choose for a new intrusion prevention system (IPS). The organization needs the IPS to examine every packet as it traverses the network and immediately drop or rewrite any traffic identified as malicious. Which deployment mode meets this requirement?
Inline deployment
Tap deployment
Out-of-band monitoring
Passive sensor placement
Answer Description
An inline deployment positions the security appliance directly in the path of production traffic, allowing it to actively inspect, block, or modify packets in real time based on security policies. Tap, out-of-band monitoring, and passive sensor placements receive only a copy of the traffic; they can detect threats but cannot alter the original packet flow, so they do not satisfy the requirement.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of an inline security device in a network?
How does a tap device differ from an inline security device?
What is a passive sensor used for in network security?
What is the primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure?
Enforcing policy by shutting down systems that do not adhere to predefined configurations
Conducting retrospective analysis to determine the root cause of a security incident
Remediating vulnerabilities to prevent the exploitation of a system
Identifying unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident
Answer Description
The primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure is to identify unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident. While it might also help in enforcing policy by triggering alerts when anomalies are detected, and can be instrumental in retrospective analysis after an incident, its essential function centers on the prompt detection of potentially malicious activity. Understanding the nuances of monitoring's main role is important in distinguishing it from ancillary benefits such as policy enforcement or post-incident analysis.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of unusual patterns or behavior in a security infrastructure?
How do monitoring systems detect these unusual patterns?
How does monitoring help distinguish a potential threat from false positives?
An organization wants to implement a security model that requires all users and devices, whether inside or outside the network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Which of the following models best meets this requirement?
Defense in Depth
Zero Trust Model
Discretionary Access Control
Least Privilege Model
Answer Description
The Zero Trust Model is a security framework that mandates all users and devices, regardless of their location, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously verified before accessing resources. This approach operates on the principle of 'never trust, always verify,' ensuring that no implicit trust is granted to assets based solely on their network location. The Least Privilege Model limits user access rights to only what is necessary for their job functions but does not require continuous validation. Defense in Depth is a layered security strategy that uses multiple defenses but doesn't inherently require continuous authentication and authorization. Discretionary Access Control allows data owners to set access permissions but doesn't enforce continuous validation of users and devices.
Ask Bash
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What does 'never trust, always verify' mean in the Zero Trust Model?
How does the Zero Trust Model differ from the Defense in Depth strategy?
How is continuous validation achieved in the Zero Trust Model?
A company wants to ensure that if any of its laptops are lost or stolen, data stored on them remains inaccessible to unauthorized users. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this?
Implement email encryption for company communications
Implement full-disk encryption on the laptops
Use database encryption for all company databases
Encrypt sensitive files individually on the laptops
Answer Description
Implementing full-disk encryption encrypts the entire content of the hard drive, providing comprehensive protection by ensuring that data is encrypted, including system files and temporary files. This means that even if someone gains physical access to the laptop, they cannot access data without proper authentication. Encrypting sensitive files individually may leave some data unprotected and relies on users to properly secure each file. Using database encryption is not effective in this scenario because the concern is data stored on laptops, not databases. Implementing email encryption protects emails in transit and does not secure data stored on the device. Therefore, full-disk encryption is the most effective solution to protect data on lost or stolen laptops.
Ask Bash
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What is full-disk encryption, and how does it work?
How does full-disk encryption compare to file-level encryption?
What happens if I lose the authentication credential for full-disk encryption?
Which of the following options is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging?
syslog
SNMP
SIEM
Event manager
Answer Description
Syslog is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging. It includes a standard format for log messages and a network protocol for sending that data to a central logging server. It is widely used by network devices like routers, switches, and firewalls, and on Unix and Linux operating systems. The other options are incorrect. A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system collects and analyzes logs but is not the logging standard itself. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for network management, not a logging standard. 'Event manager' refers to proprietary systems like the Windows Event Viewer, not a vendor-neutral standard.
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What is the primary purpose of syslog?
How does syslog differ from SIEM?
What is the role of SNMP compared to syslog?
Within the context of information security, which term is used to describe enforceable directives issued by a government entity that organizations are legally bound to follow?
Mandates
Frameworks
Guidelines
Regulations
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Regulations'. Regulations are specific, enforceable requirements laid down by governmental authorities, and organizations must adhere to them to ensure compliance within various domains, including data protection and privacy. 'Guidelines' offer advice or suggestions but are not legally enforceable. 'Frameworks' provide a structured approach to addressing complex issues but also lack the force of law. While 'Mandates' require action, the term is broad and may not necessarily pertain to legally enforceable directives from a government body in the way 'regulations' do.
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What are some examples of common regulations in information security?
How are regulations different from guidelines in information security?
What role do frameworks play in relation to regulations?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of a network firewall in protecting an organization from malware infections?
Firewalls only control outbound traffic and therefore play no part in malware protection.
A firewall filters traffic according to rule sets but must be supplemented by controls such as antivirus, IDS/IPS, and endpoint protection to defend effectively against malware.
Firewalls primarily scan files on disk for malicious code and remove any malware found on endpoints.
A properly configured firewall alone can block all malware, so additional security tools are unnecessary.
Answer Description
Firewalls are foundational controls that inspect and filter network traffic based on rule sets. While they can block some malicious connections, they typically cannot inspect every payload-especially traffic that is encrypted or disguised as legitimate-and therefore cannot stop all forms of malware on their own. Effective malware defense requires additional layers such as endpoint antivirus/EDR, intrusion detection or prevention systems, and security monitoring to detect, contain, and remediate threats that bypass or originate inside the firewall.
Ask Bash
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What is IDS/IPS and how does it complement a firewall?
Why can't firewalls inspect encrypted traffic for malware?
What is endpoint protection, and how does it help mitigate malware threats?
An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?
Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.
Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.
Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.
Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.
Answer Description
By reporting the suspicious email to the organization’s security team, the employee is following the proper protocol for dealing with potential file-based threats. This allows the security team to investigate and respond to the threat effectively, possibly preventing a security breach. Opening or ignoring the attachment could lead to system compromise, and contacting the manager directly may not stop the potential threat in time if the file is indeed malicious.
Ask Bash
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What is a file-based threat in cybersecurity?
Why is it important to report suspicious emails to the security team?
How can employees recognize potential phishing emails or file-based threats?
What term is used to describe a scenario where an actual security issue is not reported or identified by a security system?
False negative
False security
True positive
False positive
Answer Description
A false negative is a situation where a security system fails to detect an actual security threat or vulnerability, incorrectly indicating that everything is secure when, in fact, it is not. This can result in unaddressed vulnerabilities that may be exploited by an attacker. On the other hand, a false positive refers to a security system mistakenly identifying legitimate activity as malicious, resulting in wasted resources and potential disruption of normal operations. True positive describes accurate detection of an actual threat, while false security is not a commonly used term in the context of threat detection and is often used rhetorically to describe an unwarranted feeling of safety.
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What are some common causes of false negatives in security systems?
How can organizations reduce the risk of false negatives?
What are the potential consequences of a false negative in cybersecurity?
A healthcare institution recently hired you to review their security measures. You discover that they have not been monitoring access to publicly available information that could be used for social engineering attacks. Which type of reconnaissance is the institution most vulnerable to?
Passive reconnaissance
Active reconnaissance
Penetration testing
Active scanning
Answer Description
The institution is most vulnerable to passive reconnaissance. This is because passive reconnaissance involves collecting information without directly interacting with the target system, often by gathering accessible data such as company records, employee social media profiles, or public documents. This kind of information is exactly what the institution has not been monitoring, which could lead to an attacker collecting data without detection to facilitate social engineering or other types of attacks.
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What is passive reconnaissance?
How does passive reconnaissance facilitate social engineering?
What are common tools or methods used for passive reconnaissance?
In the context of security architecture, what does 'Responsiveness' refer to when considering system design and high availability?
The frequency at which a system performs routine maintenance and updates.
The ability of the system to acknowledge and handle requests quickly, maintaining service quality.
The efficiency of encrypting and decrypting data at rest and data in transit.
The capacity of backup power systems to provide electricity during an outage.
Answer Description
'Responsiveness' refers to the system's ability to acknowledge and react to requests in a timely manner. In security contexts, this ensures that the system can maintain service quality even under varying load conditions, which is critical to preventing denial-of-service attacks and ensuring user satisfaction.
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Why is responsiveness critical in preventing denial-of-service (DoS) attacks?
How is responsiveness measured in high availability systems?
What technologies improve responsiveness in system design?
An organization is designing a high-availability web application that must handle fluctuating workloads and ensure minimal downtime during peak usage. Which of the following strategies BEST addresses the compute considerations for achieving high availability in this scenario?
Implementing load balancing to distribute traffic across multiple servers
Deploying redundant power supplies for each server
Scheduling regular maintenance during off-peak hours
Utilizing real-time data replication to a standby server
Answer Description
Implementing load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, effectively managing compute resources to handle fluctuating workloads. This improves both availability and scalability, ensuring the application remains responsive during peak usage times. While data replication to a standby server aids in recovery, it doesn't directly manage compute resources. Scheduling maintenance during off-peak hours minimizes disruption but doesn't address real-time workload management. Deploying redundant power supplies enhances power availability but doesn't handle compute load distribution.
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What is load balancing, and how does it work?
How does load balancing improve scalability?
What are some common types of load balancers?
An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?
Port scanning
Phishing attempt
Brute force attack
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Brute force attack'. This type of activity suggests an attempt to guess the password by systematically trying numerous possible combinations. A brute force attack often generates many failed login attempts in a short time frame, which would be recorded by an IDS. An IDS is designed to detect this kind of anomalous behavior and raise alerts accordingly. 'Port scanning' involves probing a server for open ports and does not necessarily result in multiple failed login attempts and would not typically generate an IDS alert for this behavior. 'DDoS attack' and 'Phishing attempt' are also incorrect because although they are security threats, they generally do not result in repeated failed logins on a server.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
How does a brute force attack work?
How does an IDS differentiate brute force attacks from other threats like port scanning?
What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?
It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.
It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.
It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.
It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.
Answer Description
Uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions directly benefits security by reducing the number of potential attack vectors available to a threat actor. Every piece of software can introduce vulnerabilities, and non-essential applications may not be maintained with the same rigor as critical ones, leading to increased security risks. By minimizing the number of installed programs, the scope for vulnerabilities is narrowed, bolstering the system's resilience to cyber threats.
Ask Bash
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What are attack vectors in cybersecurity?
Why do non-essential applications increase security risks?
How does reducing the number of installed programs narrow vulnerabilities?
Which data type specifically refers to information whose collection, storage, and transmission are governed by external laws or industry regulations such as HIPAA for medical records or PCI-DSS for credit-card information?
Public
Intellectual property
Regulated
Trade secret
Answer Description
Regulated data is subject to statutes or industry frameworks that prescribe how it must be secured (for example, HIPAA, FERPA, GDPR, or PCI-DSS). Because non-compliance can trigger fines and legal liability, organizations must implement controls such as encryption, strict access control, and auditing. Other data types like trade secrets or intellectual property may be highly valuable but are not dictated by external regulations in the same way.
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What is HIPAA and how does it apply to regulated data?
How does PCI-DSS help secure regulated data in the context of credit card information?
What’s the difference between regulated data and trade secrets?
A cybersecurity analyst needs to create a document that provides employees with non-mandatory recommendations and best practices for securely configuring their home Wi-Fi networks for remote work. The document is intended to be advisory rather than a set of strict, enforceable rules. Which of the following governance documents should the analyst create?
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Password standard
Change management procedure
Guideline
Answer Description
A guideline is the most appropriate document type. Guidelines are non-mandatory and provide recommendations or best practices to help employees make informed decisions. Unlike policies and standards, which are mandatory, guidelines offer flexibility. An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a formal policy dictating mandatory rules for using company resources. A password standard sets compulsory rules for password creation. A change management procedure provides required, step-by-step instructions for making changes to IT systems.
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What is the difference between a guideline and a policy in security frameworks?
Why is data retention considered a guideline in security governance?
How do guidelines like data retention fit into overall security governance frameworks?
A security analyst is reviewing server logs and notices a high volume of failed login attempts for a single administrative account, all originating from the same IP address. Which of the following subsequent log entries would be the strongest indicator that a brute-force attack was successful?
A successful login for the targeted account from the same IP address.
Continued failed login attempts for different usernames from the same IP address.
Successful logins for other user accounts from different IP addresses.
An 'account locked' event for the targeted account.
Answer Description
The correct answer identifies the pattern that confirms a successful compromise. A series of failed login attempts followed by a successful login from the same source is a classic indicator of a successful brute-force attack. An account lockout event indicates that a security control successfully thwarted the attack, not that the system was compromised. Continued failed attempts for different usernames suggest a password spraying attack is ongoing, but it does not confirm a successful breach. Successful logins for other users from different locations are likely normal activity and unrelated to the specific attack being investigated.
Ask Bash
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What is a brute-force attack?
How do security logs help detect breaches?
What is an identifier in the context of security logs?
During a company's security assessment, a cybersecurity analyst deploys a deliberately vulnerable server on an isolated network segment so that any intruders who interact with it can be monitored, recorded, and studied in real time. Which type of system provides this capability?
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Firewall
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Honeypot
Answer Description
A honeypot is a decoy system that mimics a legitimate system to attract and trap potential attackers. It is intentionally made vulnerable to entice malicious actors, allowing cybersecurity professionals to monitor and analyze their behavior, methods, and techniques. This information can then be used to strengthen the security of real systems and develop more effective defenses against future attacks. Honeypots are an essential tool in deception and disruption technology, as they help detect and deflect attacks away from critical systems.
Ask Bash
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How does a honeypot differ from a firewall in protecting a network?
What types of activities do cybersecurity professionals monitor in a honeypot?
Are there any risks associated with using a honeypot?
Which cryptographic technique involves adding random data to a password before hashing to protect against rainbow table attacks?
Steganography
Salting
Tokenization
Obfuscation
Answer Description
Salting introduces random data to each password before hashing, which ensures that identical passwords result in different hash values. This protects against rainbow table attacks that rely on precomputed hash values. Steganography hides data within other files, obfuscation makes data difficult to interpret, and tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive equivalents. These methods do not prevent rainbow table attacks on passwords.
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What is a rainbow table attack?
How does salting prevent rainbow table attacks?
What is the difference between salting and hashing?
During an annual risk assessment, the cybersecurity governance committee needs to decide which of several identified risks should be mitigated first. Which metric would give the committee the best indication of each risk's probability so they can rank the risks in order of urgency?
Evaluating how often a given security incident could occur within a year.
Tracking the number of software updates and patches released per week.
Reviewing the historical time between successful incidents of specific natures.
Assessing the security features of the latest technologies implemented.
Answer Description
Evaluating how frequently a particular security event is expected to occur over a one-year period provides the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). A higher ARO reflects a greater probability that the risk will be realized within the year, so risks with the highest ARO typically rise to the top of the mitigation list. By contrast, reviewing new technology features, patch cadence, or the historical time between past incidents may inform other aspects of the security program but do not directly express the likelihood of a future event, making them less effective for initial prioritization.
Ask Bash
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What is the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)?
How does ARO differ from other risk metrics like SLE and ALE?
Why are metrics like patching frequency or historical time between incidents less effective for prioritizing risks?
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