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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

What type of security device passively monitors network traffic and alerts administrators or other systems when it detects suspicious activities or known threats?

  • Load balancer

  • Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Firewall

Question 2 of 15

What is the primary goal of employing uniform configuration standards across a company's technological environment?

  • To diversify system configurations, which in turn makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.

  • To tailor each system’s settings for user preference, thereby improving individual productivity.

  • To allow systems to operate independently of one another, minimizing the impact of network-wide updates.

  • To maintain a consistent set of configurations for enhanced security and simplified management.

Question 3 of 15

A company posts large signs that read "This area is under video surveillance" around its server room, and the CCTV cameras themselves are mounted in plain sight. Which type of security control do these two measures MOST directly represent?

  • Preventive control

  • Corrective control

  • Detective control

  • Deterrent control

Question 4 of 15

What is the primary purpose of classifying data within an organization's security policy?

  • To reduce the amount of data stored by the organization

  • To increase the intrinsic value of the organization's data

  • To assign a level of sensitivity to data and determine appropriate security controls

  • To reduce the overall cost associated with data storage and management

Question 5 of 15

A company is preparing to deploy a new web application onto its cloud infrastructure. The security team is tasked with implementing a deployment strategy that ensures the highest level of security while maintaining efficiency. Which of the following deployment strategies BEST meets this requirement?

  • Carry out manual deployment with step-by-step security verification performed by the IT security staff

  • Implement automated deployment tools with pre-configured security checks integrated into the deployment pipeline

  • Use a phased deployment approach, gradually increasing the number of users while monitoring for security issues

  • Conduct scheduled deployment during off-peak hours with subsequent manual security post-checks

Question 6 of 15

Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?

  • They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.

  • They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.

  • They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.

  • They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.

Question 7 of 15

A smartphone user jailbreaks their device to install applications from unapproved sources. Which of the following best describes the primary security risk introduced by this action?

  • The device receives security patches more quickly from the developer community.

  • The device's warranty is voided, preventing official repairs.

  • The device is more susceptible to malware because the manufacturer's security controls are bypassed.

  • The device's performance is significantly enhanced by removing pre-installed applications.

Question 8 of 15

Which of the following statements about shadow IT is TRUE?

  • Shadow IT only refers to unauthorized hardware purchases; cloud-based SaaS platforms are excluded.

  • Shadow IT can involve using third-party service providers without going through the organization's standard vetting process.

  • Shadow IT resources are always malicious assets implanted by external attackers.

  • Unsanctioned shadow IT systems are automatically monitored and protected by enterprise security tools.

Question 9 of 15

A junior security analyst provides a vulnerability assessment report to senior management. The report contains a comprehensive list of all identified vulnerabilities, their Common Vulnerability Enumeration (CVE) numbers, and their Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) scores. Which of the following crucial elements is missing to make this report actionable for the management team?

  • An executive summary

  • A list of the tools used for scanning

  • Recommendations for remediation

  • The date of the scan

Question 10 of 15

A company is migrating its database containing sensitive customer information to a public cloud using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model. According to the typical cloud shared responsibility model, which party is primarily responsible for ensuring the sensitive data within the database is encrypted?

  • A third-party auditor is responsible for implementing encryption controls.

  • The customer is responsible for configuring encryption for their data.

  • The responsibility is equally shared, with both parties co-managing the encryption keys.

  • The cloud provider is responsible for encrypting all customer data by default.

Question 11 of 15

Which type of disaster recovery site typically has infrastructure and utilities in place, but often requires additional configuration and data restoration before becoming operational?

  • Cold site

  • Mobile site

  • Warm site

  • Hot site

Question 12 of 15

A security manager is developing a new information security program. The manager focuses first on creating a comprehensive risk assessment methodology, defining security policies, and establishing roles and responsibilities for personnel. Which category of security controls do these activities primarily represent?

  • Operational controls

  • Managerial controls

  • Technical controls

  • Physical controls

Question 13 of 15

An organization regularly scans its networks and systems for vulnerabilities, but wants to take a more proactive stance in security by seeking out signs of unknown threats. Which of the following activities would best accomplish this goal?

  • Completing a vulnerability assessment to patch identified security weaknesses

  • Performing red team exercises to simulate potential adversary actions

  • Conducting regular threat hunting exercises to search for indicators of compromise or potential threats

  • Configuring automated alerts to notify when predefined security conditions are met

Question 14 of 15

A company anticipates rapid business growth and wants to ensure their systems remain secure and available during increased usage. What should they focus on in their capacity planning to meet this goal?

  • Enhancing physical security measures at facilities

  • Updating company security policies and procedures

  • Hiring more cybersecurity personnel

  • Scaling up technology resources to handle additional demand

Question 15 of 15

An organization has implemented a type of security control that involves restoring system functionality and repairing the damage following a cyber attack. What type of security control does this best exemplify?

  • Deterrent

  • Compensating

  • Corrective

  • Preventive

  • Detective

  • Directive