CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What type of security device passively monitors network traffic and alerts administrators or other systems when it detects suspicious activities or known threats?
Load balancer
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Firewall
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for the passive monitoring of network traffic and alerting when suspicious activities or known threats are detected. Unlike an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), an IDS does not actively block potential threats; it instead focuses on the detection aspect and relies on others to respond to the threats it identifies. A Firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an applied rule set and is not designed solely for the detection of threats. A Load balancer distributes network or application traffic across a number of servers to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, reduce response time, and avoid overload on any one server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main differences between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS identify suspicious activities?
Can an IDS integrate with other security measures?
What is the primary goal of employing uniform configuration standards across a company's technological environment?
To diversify system configurations, which in turn makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.
To tailor each system’s settings for user preference, thereby improving individual productivity.
To allow systems to operate independently of one another, minimizing the impact of network-wide updates.
To maintain a consistent set of configurations for enhanced security and simplified management.
Answer Description
The primary goal of uniform configuration standards is to establish a consistent security posture and operational behavior among the company's numerous devices and systems. This not only reduces the potential for errors but also simplifies administration and strengthens the organization's defense against common threats. Consistency makes it easier to manage updates, apply security policies, and ensure compliance with both internal guidelines and external regulations.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why are uniform configuration standards important for security?
How do uniform configuration standards simplify management?
What are some examples of uniform configuration standards?
A company posts large signs that read "This area is under video surveillance" around its server room, and the CCTV cameras themselves are mounted in plain sight. Which type of security control do these two measures MOST directly represent?
Preventive control
Corrective control
Detective control
Deterrent control
Answer Description
Both the visible signs and the plainly mounted cameras are intended to influence human behavior by making would-be intruders think twice before acting. They raise the perceived risk of being identified and caught, thereby discouraging an attack. Because their primary purpose is psychological discouragement rather than physical prevention, detection, or post-incident recovery, they are classified as deterrent controls. Detective controls (such as audit logs) identify events that have already occurred, preventive controls (such as door locks) stop access outright, and corrective controls (such as restoring from backups) limit damage after an incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are deterrent controls?
How do warning signs and surveillance cameras work together?
What is the difference between deterrent controls and preventive controls?
What is the primary purpose of classifying data within an organization's security policy?
To reduce the amount of data stored by the organization
To increase the intrinsic value of the organization's data
To assign a level of sensitivity to data and determine appropriate security controls
To reduce the overall cost associated with data storage and management
Answer Description
Classifying data involves assigning a level of sensitivity to data, which helps an organization to determine the appropriate level of security controls and manage risk effectively. This ensures that sensitive information is adequately protected from unauthorized access or leaks. Options such as 'To reduce the amount of data stored' and 'To increase the data's value' are incorrect because classification itself does not specifically aim to reduce storage requirements or directly increase the value of the data. Instead, classification serves to protect data’s integrity, availability, and confidentiality based on its sensitivity level.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different levels of data sensitivity in classification?
What are some common security controls associated with classified data?
How does data classification impact compliance with regulations?
A company is preparing to deploy a new web application onto its cloud infrastructure. The security team is tasked with implementing a deployment strategy that ensures the highest level of security while maintaining efficiency. Which of the following deployment strategies BEST meets this requirement?
Carry out manual deployment with step-by-step security verification performed by the IT security staff
Implement automated deployment tools with pre-configured security checks integrated into the deployment pipeline
Use a phased deployment approach, gradually increasing the number of users while monitoring for security issues
Conduct scheduled deployment during off-peak hours with subsequent manual security post-checks
Answer Description
Using automated deployment tools with security checks integrated into the deployment pipeline provides the most secure and efficient deployment strategy. It leverages scripting and automated processes to enforce security baselines, apply configurations, and ensure that all steps are consistently followed for each deployment. Automation reduces the risk of human error and ensures that security controls are integrated throughout the deployment process. Manual deployment increases risk as it's more prone to errors and inconsistencies. Scheduled deployment may not address the immediate security needs of the environment, and phased deployment focuses more on functionality and user adaptation rather than security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are automated deployment tools?
What are integration security checks?
Why is reducing human error important in deployment?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?
They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.
They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.
They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.
They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.
Answer Description
Automated compliance-monitoring tools can continuously collect evidence, check configurations, and raise alerts more quickly than manual methods. However, they still require human review to interpret nuanced legal requirements, investigate false positives or negatives, and decide on appropriate remediation. NIST SP 800-137 notes that efficient monitoring cannot rely solely on manual or automated methods; both are necessary to achieve comprehensive coverage and sound risk decisions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of compliance monitoring in different industries?
What are the limitations of relying solely on automated systems for compliance?
What skills are important for manual verification in compliance monitoring?
A smartphone user jailbreaks their device to install applications from unapproved sources. Which of the following best describes the primary security risk introduced by this action?
The device receives security patches more quickly from the developer community.
The device's warranty is voided, preventing official repairs.
The device is more susceptible to malware because the manufacturer's security controls are bypassed.
The device's performance is significantly enhanced by removing pre-installed applications.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the device becomes more susceptible to malware. Jailbreaking removes the operating system's built-in security features, such as sandboxing and code signing, which are designed to protect the device and its data. This allows unvetted applications from third-party sources to be installed, which can contain malware or exploit the elevated privileges gained through jailbreaking. While voiding the warranty is a likely consequence, it is a support issue, not the primary security risk. Jailbreaking can sometimes lead to system instability and crashes rather than a guaranteed performance enhancement. Furthermore, jailbreaking prevents the installation of official OS updates, which include critical security patches, making the device less secure over time.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'jailbreaking' a mobile device mean?
What are the risks associated with jailbreaking a mobile device?
Why is it important to keep the manufacturer's security controls in place?
Which of the following statements about shadow IT is TRUE?
Shadow IT only refers to unauthorized hardware purchases; cloud-based SaaS platforms are excluded.
Shadow IT can involve using third-party service providers without going through the organization's standard vetting process.
Shadow IT resources are always malicious assets implanted by external attackers.
Unsanctioned shadow IT systems are automatically monitored and protected by enterprise security tools.
Answer Description
Shadow IT refers to any IT resource-hardware, software, or service-adopted without the knowledge or approval of the organization's IT department. This includes cloud or SaaS platforms obtained directly from external service providers. Because these resources bypass normal vetting, they may introduce compliance gaps, data-handling risks, and visibility issues. The correct statement reflects this characteristic, whereas the distractors either limit shadow IT to hardware, describe it as always malicious, or claim it is automatically protected by enterprise security tools.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Shadow IT and why is it a concern for organizations?
What kind of service providers can be involved in Shadow IT?
How can organizations manage or mitigate the risks of Shadow IT?
A junior security analyst provides a vulnerability assessment report to senior management. The report contains a comprehensive list of all identified vulnerabilities, their Common Vulnerability Enumeration (CVE) numbers, and their Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) scores. Which of the following crucial elements is missing to make this report actionable for the management team?
An executive summary
A list of the tools used for scanning
Recommendations for remediation
The date of the scan
Answer Description
The correct answer is "Recommendations for remediation". While a list of vulnerabilities, CVEs, and CVSS scores is essential for identifying and prioritizing issues, a report is not fully actionable without clear recommendations for how to fix (remediate) or lessen the impact of (mitigate) the identified vulnerabilities. An executive summary is important for context, and scan dates and tools are useful for methodology, but remediation steps are what guide the response.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are remediation and mitigation in security reporting?
Why is it important for security reports to include actionable recommendations?
What types of vulnerabilities should be included in a security report?
A company is migrating its database containing sensitive customer information to a public cloud using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model. According to the typical cloud shared responsibility model, which party is primarily responsible for ensuring the sensitive data within the database is encrypted?
A third-party auditor is responsible for implementing encryption controls.
The customer is responsible for configuring encryption for their data.
The responsibility is equally shared, with both parties co-managing the encryption keys.
The cloud provider is responsible for encrypting all customer data by default.
Answer Description
This statement is correct. In the cloud shared responsibility model, particularly for IaaS, the customer retains responsibility for securing their own data. This includes classifying the data, deciding what to encrypt, and managing the encryption configurations and keys. While the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the cloud (the physical infrastructure), the customer is responsible for security in the cloud, which encompasses their data, applications, and guest operating systems. The provider offers encryption tools, but the customer must choose to implement and manage them for their data.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the 'responsibility matrix' in cloud computing mean?
How can customers manage encryption keys in the cloud?
Why is encryption important for sensitive data in the cloud?
Which type of disaster recovery site typically has infrastructure and utilities in place, but often requires additional configuration and data restoration before becoming operational?
Cold site
Mobile site
Warm site
Hot site
Answer Description
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has the necessary hardware and connectivity in place but doesn't have client data continuously updated. This means that, in the event of a disruption, a warm site may require some time to restore recent backups and configure systems to become fully operational. It offers a middle ground between the immediate availability of a hot site and the lack of infrastructure of a cold site.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a warm site and a hot site?
What are the main advantages of using a warm site for disaster recovery?
What are the key components of a warm site?
A security manager is developing a new information security program. The manager focuses first on creating a comprehensive risk assessment methodology, defining security policies, and establishing roles and responsibilities for personnel. Which category of security controls do these activities primarily represent?
Operational controls
Managerial controls
Technical controls
Physical controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls are security controls that focus on the management of risk and the management of information system security. These controls are administrative in nature and include activities like creating security policies, conducting risk assessments, planning for business continuity, and performing security awareness training. The activities described in the scenario-risk assessment, policy creation, and defining roles-are all classic examples of managerial controls. Technical controls involve technology like firewalls, operational controls involve day-to-day procedures like reviewing logs, and physical controls involve tangible protections like fences and locks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of Managerial Controls?
How do Managerial Controls differ from Technical Controls?
Why is decision-making important in Managerial Controls?
An organization regularly scans its networks and systems for vulnerabilities, but wants to take a more proactive stance in security by seeking out signs of unknown threats. Which of the following activities would best accomplish this goal?
Completing a vulnerability assessment to patch identified security weaknesses
Performing red team exercises to simulate potential adversary actions
Conducting regular threat hunting exercises to search for indicators of compromise or potential threats
Configuring automated alerts to notify when predefined security conditions are met
Answer Description
Threat Hunting involves actively looking for indicators of compromise or potential threats on networks and systems, often using both manual and automated tools. It goes beyond passive monitoring for known threats and aims to identify malicious activity that may not have been detected by existing security measures. Automated alerts are part of a reactive, not proactive strategy. Red team exercises are focused on simulating attacks to test the organization's defences, not on identifying ongoing unknown threats. Vulnerability assessments are used to identify known security issues to be patched, not to proactively hunt for active malicious presence.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are indicators of compromise (IOCs) in threat hunting?
How does threat hunting differ from traditional security measures?
What tools are commonly used in threat hunting exercises?
A company anticipates rapid business growth and wants to ensure their systems remain secure and available during increased usage. What should they focus on in their capacity planning to meet this goal?
Enhancing physical security measures at facilities
Updating company security policies and procedures
Hiring more cybersecurity personnel
Scaling up technology resources to handle additional demand
Answer Description
Focusing on scaling up technology resources is crucial in capacity planning to handle increased demand. By ensuring sufficient computing power, storage, and network bandwidth, the company can maintain system performance and security during peak usage. The other options, while important for overall security, do not directly address the need to accommodate higher operational loads.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does scaling up technology resources entail?
How does network bandwidth affect system availability?
What role does technology resource planning play in cybersecurity?
An organization has implemented a type of security control that involves restoring system functionality and repairing the damage following a cyber attack. What type of security control does this best exemplify?
Deterrent
Compensating
Corrective
Preventive
Detective
Directive
Answer Description
Corrective controls are designed to fix damages or restore resources and capabilities after a security incident has occurred. In this scenario, the control that restores system functionality and repairs damage is a corrective control.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of corrective controls?
How do corrective controls differ from preventive controls?
What role do detective controls play in cybersecurity?
Woo!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.