00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A financial services company has historically maintained a very conservative security posture, prioritizing stability over innovation. Recently, executive leadership decided to launch a new fintech platform to attract a younger demographic. This new venture uses cutting-edge technologies that are considered higher risk. This strategic shift will MOST likely require a direct reassessment of which of the following?

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Risk tolerance

  • Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

  • Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

Question 2 of 20

A financial services company, to comply with the PCI DSS mandate, performs a vulnerability scan on its cardholder data environment every three months. This activity is designed to regularly identify new threats and ensure ongoing compliance. Which type of risk assessment process does this scheduled quarterly scan best represent?

  • Continuous

  • One-time

  • Ad hoc

  • Recurring

Question 3 of 20

A system administrator deployed a patch to a critical virtual server. Shortly after the deployment, the server began experiencing intermittent crashes. The administrator needs to revert the server to its state immediately before the patch was applied to minimize downtime. Which of the following is the FASTEST method to achieve this?

  • Restore from the most recent full backup.

  • Rebuild the server from the base image.

  • Revert to the latest snapshot.

  • Perform an incremental backup restoration.

Question 4 of 20

An organization's BYOD policy allows Android users to enable the "Install unknown apps" (side-loading) setting so they can deploy custom productivity tools that are not available in Google Play. Which of the following is the PRIMARY security risk this setting introduces?

  • The device becomes vulnerable to Wi-Fi WPA3 downgrade attacks that expose credentials.

  • Malicious software can be installed that bypasses official app-store security screening.

  • The device will be automatically rooted, preventing mobile-device-management enforcement.

  • Unsigned apps will cause excessive battery drain because the OS cannot optimize them.

Question 5 of 20

Security professionals often advise against jailbreaking (iOS) or rooting (Android) a corporate-owned mobile device. Which of the following best explains why this practice is considered a significant security risk?

  • It automatically enables full-disk encryption by default, making user data inaccessible to attackers.

  • It ensures the device continues to receive manufacturer security patches sooner than stock devices.

  • It forces the device to install apps exclusively from the official app store, reducing exposure to malware.

  • It disables built-in code-signing and sandbox protections, allowing unvetted apps to run with elevated privileges.

Question 6 of 20

An organization is assembling its enterprise risk register. Which of the following elements should be documented for each listed risk so the team receives an early warning when the likelihood or impact of that risk begins to increase?

  • Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

  • Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

  • Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

  • Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

Question 7 of 20

A security engineer must enable confidential file transfers with a new vendor. The engineer wants a solution that avoids sharing a secret key beforehand yet still lets both parties encrypt and decrypt messages securely by using mathematically related keys. Which cryptographic approach satisfies this requirement?

  • Hashing algorithms

  • Asymmetric encryption

  • Steganography

  • Symmetric encryption

Question 8 of 20

Your company is engaging a vendor to develop a proprietary network security solution. Which document is primarily responsible for defining the tasks to be completed, the deliverables expected, and a timeline for when these milestones should be achieved?

  • Partnership Agreement

  • Agreement for Services

  • Confidentiality Agreement

  • Statement of Work

Question 9 of 20

A finance department employee receives an instant message from what appears to be a senior executive asking for verification of their login credentials to resolve an urgent issue. What type of attack is the employee experiencing?

  • Phishing

  • Man-in-the-Middle

  • Denial-of-Service

  • Vishing

Question 10 of 20

Which mitigation technique is used to protect sensitive data by converting it into a coded form that is unreadable to unauthorized users?

  • Hashing

  • Digital Signature

  • Tokenization

  • Encryption

Question 11 of 20

An organization is still using several workstations that run an operating system whose vendor ended support last year. Which of the following security concerns is MOST directly associated with continuing to operate this unsupported system?

  • The only impact is higher power and cooling costs due to outdated hardware.

  • The operating system will automatically disable network services when weaknesses are detected.

  • The system contains unpatched vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit.

  • User productivity will decrease because the OS lacks new usability features.

Question 12 of 20

Which of the following best describes how a modern software supply chain attack typically gains initial access to its victims?

  • Physically stealing network switches from the data center to intercept traffic.

  • Compromising a trusted third-party vendor or service provider so that malicious code is distributed to downstream customers.

  • Exploiting a critical vulnerability in internally developed source code after breaching the organization's perimeter firewall.

  • Launching a direct distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the organization's public web servers.

Question 13 of 20

During a recent audit of security logs, an analyst discovers that certain log entries are sporadically missing over the past month. Understanding the importance of logs for detecting and troubleshooting anomalies, which of the following is the BEST explanation for the missing logs?

  • Time synchronization issues between servers

  • Scheduled maintenance activities

  • Log rotation configured without proper archiving

  • Log tampering by an unauthorized party

Question 14 of 20

A large organization has implemented several security measures to protect its network infrastructure. As part of their continuous monitoring strategy, they want to ensure that any unauthorized access or anomalies in their network traffic are quickly identified and investigated. Which of the following security measures would best serve this purpose?

  • Conduct regular security training sessions for all network administrators.

  • Deploy additional firewalls to segment network traffic.

  • Increase frequency of anti-virus software updates on all endpoints.

  • Implement an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to monitor network traffic.

Question 15 of 20

A technology firm headquartered in the United States with no previous international presence is strategizing for expansion into European and Asian markets. Which action is MOST critical for aligning the firm's security practices with external international requirements?

  • Implement a unified global security policy before assessing the legal considerations of each new market.

  • Conduct a thorough analysis of international data protection laws and adapt the company's data privacy framework for compliance with regulations such as GDPR.

  • Upgrade the encryption algorithms used across the company.

  • Expand the physical security measures at global data centers before considering variations in regional data privacy laws.

Question 16 of 20

Your organization has just received a report from an independent security researcher, who claims to have discovered a vulnerability in one of your web applications. The researcher has provided detailed steps to reproduce the issue. What is the most appropriate initial response to this situation that aligns with responsible disclosure practices?

  • Immediately offer a reward to the researcher for finding the vulnerability.

  • Acknowledge receipt of the report and assure the researcher that their findings are being investigated.

  • Ignore the report as it has not been verified by your internal security team yet.

  • Publicly thank the researcher on social media platforms to proactively manage public relations.

Question 17 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan before importing it into the risk management register. The analyst notices an entry for CVE-2023-9999, which mentions that the software has unpatched SQL injection weaknesses. How should the analyst classify this vulnerability?

  • Insecure Deserialization

  • Cross-site Scripting (XSS)

  • Injection Flaws

  • Security Misconfiguration

Question 18 of 20

Your security team is issuing new corporate laptops and requires that each device protect BitLocker full-disk encryption keys, user PINs, and other authentication secrets within a dedicated, tamper-resistant hardware component rather than system memory. Which of the following acronyms identifies the on-board chip that performs these secure cryptographic storage and attestation functions?

  • NAT

  • DLP

  • DMZ

  • TPM

Question 19 of 20

A system administrator has deployed a new tool to monitor system files for unauthorized changes on a set of critical servers. After configuring the tool, the administrator needs to determine the optimal strategy for maintaining system integrity. Which of the following approaches would be most effective in meeting this goal?

  • Set up alerts to notify the administrator of any changes in the size of the monitored files only.

  • Set up the tool to allow only manual integrity checks during scheduled maintenance windows.

  • Implement automatic comparisons of file states against a trusted baseline at regular intervals.

  • Configure the monitoring tool to rely on user reports of unauthorized file changes.

Question 20 of 20

The security governance framework should be revisited and revised only when significant security breaches occur.

  • True

  • False