00:15:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?

  • Data Owner

  • Data Custodian/Steward

  • Data Controller

  • Auditor

Question 2 of 15

What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?

  • Installing antivirus software

  • Reviewing security logs

  • Deploying security patches

  • Modifying access control lists

Question 3 of 15

An organization is willing to accept higher levels of risk to pursue aggressive growth and maximize potential returns. What type of risk appetite does this organization exhibit?

  • Expansionary risk appetite

  • Risk avoidance

  • Neutral risk appetite

  • Conservative risk appetite

Question 4 of 15

Your organization has recently implemented a new policy to ensure that all employees' workstations receive the latest security patches. As the IT Security Specialist, you are tasked with enforcing this policy. Which of the following hardening techniques would best ensure that all workstations are kept up-to-date with the latest security patches?

  • Patching

  • Installing endpoint protection software

  • Disabling all unused ports and protocols on the workstations

  • Encrypting all data on the workstations

Question 5 of 15

A company is migrating its database containing sensitive customer information to a public cloud using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model. According to the typical cloud shared responsibility model, which party is primarily responsible for ensuring the sensitive data within the database is encrypted?

  • A third-party auditor is responsible for implementing encryption controls.

  • The responsibility is equally shared, with both parties co-managing the encryption keys.

  • The cloud provider is responsible for encrypting all customer data by default.

  • The customer is responsible for configuring encryption for their data.

Question 6 of 15

Which statement BEST describes an organization's obligation to comply with a country's information-security laws and regulations when it conducts business within that country's borders?

  • Compliance is required only if the organization stores data physically inside the country's borders; remote or cloud-based activities are exempt.

  • They apply only to organizations that are incorporated in that country; foreign firms may rely solely on their home-country laws.

  • An organization can choose which nation's laws it will follow, provided it documents the decision in a written risk acceptance.

  • They apply to any organization that conducts business or processes data within the country, regardless of where the organization is headquartered.

Question 7 of 15

Crucial Technologies is creating an incident response capability. During which phase of the incident response process are the incident response team and their roles and responsibilities established?

  • Containment

  • Preparation

  • Recovery

  • Detection and analysis

Question 8 of 15

What aspect of data retention policies is MOST crucial for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory frameworks?

  • The encryption strength used to protect data during the retention period

  • The storage costs associated with different types of data

  • The categorization of data as sensitive, confidential, or public

  • The length of time that data must be stored before it can be destroyed or archived

Question 9 of 15

A security auditor finds that certain accounts, intended to have standard user permissions, are executing commands that typically require admin rights. Further investigation reveals these accounts have been added to a group with elevated privileges. Which situation does this observation most accurately reflect?

  • Data exposure from compromised encryption protocols

  • Service disruption caused by frequent account lockouts

  • Unauthorized access from unchanged default account passwords

  • Privilege escalation due to unauthorized changes in group memberships

Question 10 of 15

During a review process against the organization's security objectives and regulatory compliance needs, disparities were discovered, indicating that certain control measures are inadequate. Which course of action best aligns with recommended practice for addressing these deficiencies?

  • Initiate a series of in-depth security training sessions to address every gap identified in the review.

  • Revise security policies immediately to the levels of the industry standards discovered during the review, without a structured plan.

  • Create an actionable remediation plan outlining steps to bridge the identified security gaps and align with the desired benchmarks.

  • Deploy an advanced intrusion detection system immediately across the network to mitigate any vulnerabilities.

Question 11 of 15

A cloud administrator is deprovisioning a virtual machine (VM) that was used to process sensitive financial data. The underlying physical server hosts multiple VMs from different clients. The administrator needs to ensure that no data from the deprovisioned VM can be accessed by the next VM allocated to the same physical memory space. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be the administrator's PRIMARY concern to mitigate?

  • Buffer overflow

  • VM escape

  • Resource reuse

  • Race condition

Question 12 of 15

An organization is integrating its on-premises data center with a public cloud provider to create a hybrid cloud. Before any production traffic is allowed to traverse the new site-to-site VPN, the security team performs a risk assessment. Which consideration should receive the highest priority at this stage?

  • Estimating the long-term operational cost of duplicated security tooling.

  • Aligning identity and access management role naming conventions across cloud and on-prem directories.

  • Protecting data in transit by enforcing encrypted, authenticated channels between the environments.

  • Measuring the additional network latency introduced by replication traffic.

Question 13 of 15

A security administrator is finalizing a resiliency plan for a server room that houses several critical systems. The primary requirement is to prevent data corruption by allowing the servers to shut down gracefully in the event of a sudden, complete power outage. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement to BEST meet this specific requirement?

  • Surge protector

  • Redundant Power Supply (RPS)

  • Diesel generator

  • Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

Question 14 of 15

What does MTBF stand for, and what does it indicate regarding a system's reliability?

  • Mean Time Between Failures, measuring the average time operational between system breakdowns

  • Mean Time Before Fix, representing the average time to repair a system after a failure

  • Minimum Time Before Failure, reflecting the shortest time a system might operate before encountering an issue

  • Maximum Time Before Failure, indicating the longest time a system can function before it fails

Question 15 of 15

A security analyst is tasked with implementing a solution to receive timely data on emerging malware, malicious IP addresses, and known vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST fulfill this requirement?

  • A threat feed

  • A security baseline

  • A vulnerability scanner

  • A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system