CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?
Data Owner
Data Custodian/Steward
Data Controller
Auditor
Answer Description
Custodians, also known as stewards, are responsible for the day-to-day maintenance and implementation of the security controls over assets based on the policies and guidelines set forth by the organization. While an owner may define the policy for data protection, it is the custodian's role to enforce and implement these policies through technical means, such as configuring and applying encryption to sensitive data. The data owner is typically a senior-level executive who defines what level of protection is required for the data but does not directly manage the security mechanisms. The controller is responsible for making decisions about the processing of the data, and auditors are responsible for reviewing the adherence to policies and regulations, not implementing security measures.
Ask Bash
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What are the key responsibilities of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from that of a Data Custodian?
What is the role of an Auditor in information security?
What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?
Installing antivirus software
Reviewing security logs
Deploying security patches
Modifying access control lists
Answer Description
Reviewing security logs is a key part of security monitoring. It allows security professionals to track events that have occurred within the network. Monitoring these logs helps to identify any unauthorized actions, security incidents, or policy violations. Other options listed do not directly correspond to the activity of identifying unauthorized actions through monitoring.
Ask Bash
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What types of security logs should be reviewed?
How often should security logs be reviewed?
What tools can assist in reviewing security logs?
An organization is willing to accept higher levels of risk to pursue aggressive growth and maximize potential returns. What type of risk appetite does this organization exhibit?
Expansionary risk appetite
Risk avoidance
Neutral risk appetite
Conservative risk appetite
Answer Description
An expansionary risk appetite indicates a willingness to accept higher levels of risk in pursuit of significant rewards or growth opportunities. This aligns with the organization's strategy to pursue aggressive growth. A conservative risk appetite involves minimizing risk and focusing on stability, which does not fit the scenario. A neutral risk appetite represents a moderate approach to risk, neither seeking high risk nor avoiding it entirely. Risk avoidance is a strategy where all risks are eliminated, which contradicts the organization's acceptance of higher risks.
Ask Bash
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What does risk appetite mean in a business context?
How does an organization determine its risk appetite?
What are some examples of strategies for managing high risk appetite?
Your organization has recently implemented a new policy to ensure that all employees' workstations receive the latest security patches. As the IT Security Specialist, you are tasked with enforcing this policy. Which of the following hardening techniques would best ensure that all workstations are kept up-to-date with the latest security patches?
Patching
Installing endpoint protection software
Disabling all unused ports and protocols on the workstations
Encrypting all data on the workstations
Answer Description
Patching is the process of applying vendor-supplied updates that remediate known vulnerabilities. By regularly deploying patches-often through automated or centrally managed update mechanisms-you close security holes that attackers could exploit. Encrypting data, installing endpoint protection, or disabling unused ports improve security in other ways but do not guarantee that operating system and application vulnerabilities are removed.
Ask Bash
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What are security patches and why are they important?
How can organizations automate the patching process?
What is the difference between a security patch and regular software update?
A company is migrating its database containing sensitive customer information to a public cloud using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model. According to the typical cloud shared responsibility model, which party is primarily responsible for ensuring the sensitive data within the database is encrypted?
A third-party auditor is responsible for implementing encryption controls.
The responsibility is equally shared, with both parties co-managing the encryption keys.
The cloud provider is responsible for encrypting all customer data by default.
The customer is responsible for configuring encryption for their data.
Answer Description
This statement is correct. In the cloud shared responsibility model, particularly for IaaS, the customer retains responsibility for securing their own data. This includes classifying the data, deciding what to encrypt, and managing the encryption configurations and keys. While the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the cloud (the physical infrastructure), the customer is responsible for security in the cloud, which encompasses their data, applications, and guest operating systems. The provider offers encryption tools, but the customer must choose to implement and manage them for their data.
Ask Bash
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What does the 'responsibility matrix' in cloud computing mean?
How can customers manage encryption keys in the cloud?
Why is encryption important for sensitive data in the cloud?
Which statement BEST describes an organization's obligation to comply with a country's information-security laws and regulations when it conducts business within that country's borders?
Compliance is required only if the organization stores data physically inside the country's borders; remote or cloud-based activities are exempt.
They apply only to organizations that are incorporated in that country; foreign firms may rely solely on their home-country laws.
An organization can choose which nation's laws it will follow, provided it documents the decision in a written risk acceptance.
They apply to any organization that conducts business or processes data within the country, regardless of where the organization is headquartered.
Answer Description
Any organization that operates, processes data, or otherwise conducts business within a country is subject to that nation's information-security and privacy laws, even if the company is foreign-owned or headquartered elsewhere. This concept-often referred to as data sovereignty-means compliance is mandatory in each jurisdiction where operations occur; failure can lead to fines, sanctions, or loss of the right to do business. The other options are incorrect because host-nation laws are not optional, cannot be ignored in favor of home-country rules, and apply to activities such as cloud or remote processing, not only to data stored physically on local servers.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of information security laws that organizations must comply with?
What could happen if an organization fails to comply with these information security laws?
How do organizations ensure compliance with different countries' information security laws?
Crucial Technologies is creating an incident response capability. During which phase of the incident response process are the incident response team and their roles and responsibilities established?
Containment
Preparation
Recovery
Detection and analysis
Answer Description
The incident response team must exist before any incident occurs. Establishing the team, defining its roles, and putting supporting processes and tools in place are all part of the Preparation phase of the incident response lifecycle. Subsequent phases focus on detecting, containing, and recovering from actual incidents.
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What are the key activities involved in the preparation step of incident response?
Why is it important to have an incident response team ready before an incident occurs?
What types of incidents might the incident response team need to prepare for?
What aspect of data retention policies is MOST crucial for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory frameworks?
The encryption strength used to protect data during the retention period
The storage costs associated with different types of data
The categorization of data as sensitive, confidential, or public
The length of time that data must be stored before it can be destroyed or archived
Answer Description
Data retention timeframes are pivotal to compliance since they dictate the specific duration for which data must be stored according to various legal and regulatory frameworks. Organizations are often required to retain certain records for a defined period to comply with laws and industry regulations. Retaining data for either too short or too long a period can lead to non-compliance and associated penalties. Having too broad or too narrow scopes in retention policies can be non-compliant or inefficient, respectively, but the actual retention period is the key factor that relates directly to legal and regulatory requirements.
Ask Bash
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What are legal and regulatory frameworks, and why do they matter for data retention?
What could happen if organizations retain data for too long or too short a duration?
How can organizations determine the appropriate data retention period?
A security auditor finds that certain accounts, intended to have standard user permissions, are executing commands that typically require admin rights. Further investigation reveals these accounts have been added to a group with elevated privileges. Which situation does this observation most accurately reflect?
Data exposure from compromised encryption protocols
Service disruption caused by frequent account lockouts
Unauthorized access from unchanged default account passwords
Privilege escalation due to unauthorized changes in group memberships
Answer Description
This scenario suggests a case of privilege escalation, a situation where user accounts have been granted more access rights than intended, allowing them to execute commands beyond their original permissions. Here, the service accounts, which should have standard privileges, were found to be part of a privileged group, granting them higher access rights typical of system administrators. This specific detail of 'group membership change' distinguishes the issue as privilege escalation rather than other scenarios like default password changes, account lockouts, or compromised encryption keys which relate to different types of security issues.
Ask Bash
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What is privilege escalation?
What are service accounts and their typical usage?
What are the risks of unauthorized changes in group memberships?
During a review process against the organization's security objectives and regulatory compliance needs, disparities were discovered, indicating that certain control measures are inadequate. Which course of action best aligns with recommended practice for addressing these deficiencies?
Initiate a series of in-depth security training sessions to address every gap identified in the review.
Revise security policies immediately to the levels of the industry standards discovered during the review, without a structured plan.
Create an actionable remediation plan outlining steps to bridge the identified security gaps and align with the desired benchmarks.
Deploy an advanced intrusion detection system immediately across the network to mitigate any vulnerabilities.
Answer Description
After completing a gap analysis, best practice is to develop a structured remediation plan that prioritizes and assigns actions to close the identified gaps. Implementing individual technologies, rewriting policies, or launching broad training programs before establishing such a plan can waste resources and may not fully resolve the deficiencies discovered.
Ask Bash
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What should be included in an actionable remediation plan?
Why is a structured remediation plan important over immediate actions?
How often should organizations review and update their remediation plans?
A cloud administrator is deprovisioning a virtual machine (VM) that was used to process sensitive financial data. The underlying physical server hosts multiple VMs from different clients. The administrator needs to ensure that no data from the deprovisioned VM can be accessed by the next VM allocated to the same physical memory space. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be the administrator's PRIMARY concern to mitigate?
Buffer overflow
VM escape
Resource reuse
Race condition
Answer Description
The correct answer is resource reuse. This vulnerability occurs when a resource, such as a physical memory block, is not properly sanitized before being reallocated. In this scenario, remnants of the sensitive financial data could remain in memory (a concept known as data remanence) and become accessible to the next VM that uses that same memory space. VM escape is an attack where a process breaks out of a VM and interacts with the host OS, which is a different threat. Buffer overflow and race conditions are application-level vulnerabilities and are not the primary concern related to sanitizing shared hardware after deprovisioning a VM.
Ask Bash
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What does 'sanitization' mean in the context of memory allocation?
What are some examples of residual data that can be leaked through memory reuse?
How does memory management in virtualized environments increase security risks?
An organization is integrating its on-premises data center with a public cloud provider to create a hybrid cloud. Before any production traffic is allowed to traverse the new site-to-site VPN, the security team performs a risk assessment. Which consideration should receive the highest priority at this stage?
Estimating the long-term operational cost of duplicated security tooling.
Aligning identity and access management role naming conventions across cloud and on-prem directories.
Protecting data in transit by enforcing encrypted, authenticated channels between the environments.
Measuring the additional network latency introduced by replication traffic.
Answer Description
The very first exposure created by a hybrid cloud rollout is the network path that connects the two environments. If that link is not protected with strong encryption and mutual authentication, any data that crosses it can be intercepted, altered, or replayed. Other concerns-such as aligning identity and access controls, tracking costs, or measuring latency-remain important but can be addressed only after the confidentiality and integrity of in-transit data are assured.
Ask Bash
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What measures can be implemented to secure data during transit in a hybrid cloud environment?
Why is data transit security more critical in a hybrid cloud setup compared to a purely on-premises setup?
What role do encryption keys play in securing data during transit?
A security administrator is finalizing a resiliency plan for a server room that houses several critical systems. The primary requirement is to prevent data corruption by allowing the servers to shut down gracefully in the event of a sudden, complete power outage. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement to BEST meet this specific requirement?
Surge protector
Redundant Power Supply (RPS)
Diesel generator
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer Description
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is the correct solution because it provides immediate, temporary battery power the moment main power fails. This short-term power bridge is specifically designed to give systems enough time to perform a graceful shutdown or to keep them running until a longer-term power source, like a generator, can activate. A generator is designed for long-term outages but has a startup delay, making a UPS necessary to cover the initial gap. A redundant power supply protects against the failure of a single power supply unit within a device, not an external power outage. A surge protector only protects against voltage spikes and offers no backup power during an outage.
Ask Bash
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What is a UPS and how does it work?
What is the difference between a UPS and a generator?
What types of UPS systems are available?
What does MTBF stand for, and what does it indicate regarding a system's reliability?
Mean Time Between Failures, measuring the average time operational between system breakdowns
Mean Time Before Fix, representing the average time to repair a system after a failure
Minimum Time Before Failure, reflecting the shortest time a system might operate before encountering an issue
Maximum Time Before Failure, indicating the longest time a system can function before it fails
Answer Description
MTBF stands for Mean Time Between Failures. It is a reliability metric that predicts the average time between system breakdowns or failures. A higher MTBF indicates a more reliable system that is likely to operate longer without issues, which is pivotal for business continuity and planning. It is calculated based on historical data and includes only operational periods between failures, not the time required for repair or maintenance.
Ask Bash
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What is the formula used to calculate MTBF?
How does MTBF relate to other reliability metrics?
Why is a higher MTBF important for businesses?
A security analyst is tasked with implementing a solution to receive timely data on emerging malware, malicious IP addresses, and known vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST fulfill this requirement?
A threat feed
A security baseline
A vulnerability scanner
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
Answer Description
The correct answer is a threat feed. A threat feed is a real-time or near-real-time stream of data providing information on current and potential cyber threats, including indicators of compromise like malicious IPs, URLs, and malware signatures. A security baseline defines a standard state for a system, a SIEM is used to aggregate and analyze log data from internal sources, and a vulnerability scanner actively probes systems for weaknesses rather than providing a continuous external data stream.
Ask Bash
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What are threat feeds and how do they work?
What are indicators of compromise (IoCs)?
How can organizations utilize threat feeds effectively?
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