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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of directive controls in a security context?

  • To detect and respond to security incidents after they occur

  • To implement and manage security technologies

  • To discourage potential attackers from targeting the organization

  • To provide guidance and instructions on maintaining security

Question 2 of 15

What is the primary importance of incorporating security requirements into the procurement process for new IT systems and services?

  • To transfer the responsibility for security from the organization to the external vendor

  • To ensure security controls are integrated into the design and contractual obligations from the beginning, reducing overall risks

  • To merely comply with external audit requirements, with minimal focus on actual security postures

  • To avoid the need for any further security assessments or monitoring once the system is deployed

Question 3 of 15

Which of the following is a decoy system designed to attract and analyze the behavior of attackers?

  • Honeytoken

  • Honeyfile

  • Honeynet

  • Honeypot

Question 4 of 15

In a Zero Trust security model, what component is responsible for making access decisions based on established policies and the evaluation of trustworthiness?

  • Data Plane

  • Authentication Server

  • Segmentation Gateway

  • Control Plane

Question 5 of 15

Which statement about using standardized vulnerability severity scores (for example, the CVSS Base score) to determine patch-remediation priority is MOST accurate for an organization?

  • Relying only on the standardized numerical score is sufficient; patches should be applied strictly in descending score order.

  • The score is a useful starting point, but asset criticality, exploit likelihood, and business impact must also be assessed before setting priorities.

  • Combining the score with an up-to-date asset inventory is always enough; additional threat-intelligence data is unnecessary.

  • The score can be ignored entirely; patch priority should be based only on how recently the vendor released the patch.

Question 6 of 15

You are a security consultant for a small company. The owner says attackers recently gained access to the company's email account. Soon after, the attackers took control of the company's website and say they will restore it only after they receive a payment. The hosting provider confirms that the web servers are healthy and no unusual logins have occurred, yet users cannot reach the company's site. Based on this information, which type of attack has most likely been carried out against the website?

  • Session hijacking

  • DNS hijacking

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • Man-in-the-middle (MitM)

Question 7 of 15

A security administrator needs to deploy a network security device that will analyze and potentially block malicious traffic without being bypassed if it fails. Which deployment option aligns best with this requirement?

  • Deploy the device in inline mode with fail-closed configuration.

  • Use port mirroring to duplicate traffic to the device.

  • Implement the device as an external monitor that gets copied traffic from a network switch.

  • Set up the device as a network tap to passively monitor traffic.

Question 8 of 15

An administrator is reviewing the organization's disaster recovery plan and wants to confirm that critical files can be brought back online after a ransomware attack. Which of the following activities BEST demonstrates that the backup strategy will enable a full recovery?

  • Encrypting the backup archives with AES-256.

  • Scheduling differential backups to run every hour.

  • Performing a periodic restoration test in a nonproduction environment.

  • Storing backup tapes in an offsite, climate-controlled vault.

Question 9 of 15

An organization has recently experienced a security breach where multiple endpoints were remotely controlled by an unauthorized entity, leading to the unauthorized use of system resources for mining cryptocurrency. Which type of malware is MOST likely responsible for this incident?

  • Worm

  • Botnet

  • Ransomware

  • Logic Bomb

Question 10 of 15

Which of the following examples represents a misconfiguration scenario that could lead to security vulnerabilities?

  • A web application is using HTTPS instead of HTTP to encrypt its traffic.

  • A server is configured with the manufacturer's default username and password for administrative access.

  • A system regularly receives updates to its antivirus definitions.

  • All desktop computers in an office have the latest operating system patches installed.

Question 11 of 15

An organization must transmit sensitive payroll data over the public Internet to a cloud-based payroll service. Because a dedicated private circuit is not financially possible, the security team looks for another measure that will still ensure confidentiality and integrity of the data in transit. Which of the following BEST fits the definition of a compensating control in this situation?

  • Require administrators to complete additional security-awareness training

  • Review firewall and application logs on a daily basis

  • Schedule quarterly external penetration tests

  • Establish an IPsec-based VPN tunnel for the transmission

Question 12 of 15

When building a customer-facing web application, what approach to input validation should be implemented to MOST EFFECTIVELY mitigate injection attacks?

  • Implementing a allowlist input validation mechanism that accepts only specified inputs

  • Relying on a blocklist input validation to exclude known dangerous characters and patterns

  • Enforcing data type constraints and requiring inputs to match the expected data types

  • Using cryptographic hashing of all inputs to avoid storing or processing plaintext input data

Question 13 of 15

When managing vulnerabilities within an organization's infrastructure, which criteria should be considered MOST important for prioritization?

  • Ease of implementation for the fix

  • Security team's personal preference

  • Popularity of the software with vulnerabilities

  • Potential impact on business operations

Question 14 of 15

Which of the following actions provides logical (software-defined) segmentation rather than physical segmentation within an enterprise network?

  • Running a point-to-point dark-fiber link between two database servers to separate their traffic from the LAN.

  • Deploying dedicated cabling and standalone switches to isolate the payroll network.

  • Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on existing switch ports to keep voice and data traffic isolated.

  • Installing an air-gapped workstation that has no network interface card.

Question 15 of 15

According to industry guidance such as NIST SP 800-88, which high-level action should an organization take to ensure that data on any storage device (including HDDs and SSDs) is rendered unrecoverable before the device is disposed of or leaves organizational control?

  • Sanitize the media before disposal

  • Disable the storage controller in the system BIOS

  • Run a quick format on the device

  • Delete all visible files and empty the recycle bin