CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What term is used to describe a component within a system that, if it were to fail, would cause the entire system to cease functioning?
Limiting factor
Scalability
Documentation
Single point of failure
Answer Description
A Single point of failure refers to any critical part of a system which, if it fails, would result in the failure of the entire system. The identification and mitigation of such points are crucial in designing secure and highly available systems. Redundancy is often introduced to systems to prevent a single failure from causing a system-wide outage. Documentation is essential for maintaining records; however, it does not directly relate to a component's failure impact on a system. Scalability pertains to the ability of a system to grow and handle increased demand, while limiting factors are components or variables that can restrict system performance but not necessarily lead to a complete system shutdown.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is redundancy in the context of systems?
How can you identify a single point of failure in a system?
Why is it important to address single points of failure?
During the analysis phase of an incident, an analyst is tasked with determining the scope of a suspected breach on several servers. Which data source will MOST likely provide the comprehensive information required to assess the activities on the affected servers?
Vulnerability scans
Operating system-specific security logs
Firewall logs
Packet captures
Answer Description
Operating system-specific security logs are designed to record events that are significant to the security of the operating system. They can provide detailed information about the activities on a server, such at login attempts, access to protected objects, and changes to security policies. These logs are more likely to give an accurate picture of the scope of a suspected breach compared to the other options, which may provide too broad or peripheral view, or lack the level of detail necessary for an analysis of server activities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What kind of information do operating system-specific security logs typically contain?
How are packet captures different from operating system-specific security logs?
Why are firewall logs less effective for determining the scope of a suspected breach on servers?
What is the primary purpose of obtaining cybersecurity insurance as part of an organization's vulnerability response and remediation strategy?
To actively prevent cybersecurity incidents from occurring
To transfer the financial risks associated with cybersecurity incidents to another entity
To provide a technical defense against cyber-attacks
To serve as the primary method for detecting cyber threats in an organization
Answer Description
Cybersecurity insurance is designed to mitigate the financial impact of incidents such as data breaches or cyber-attacks. It provides resources for recovery by covering costs such as legal fees, fines, and customer notifications. While insurance plays a crucial role in a comprehensive cybersecurity program, its primary function is not the prevention, detection, or technical mitigation of cyber threats. Therefore, it does not replace security controls or the need for an incident response plan.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What specific costs does cybersecurity insurance typically cover?
How does cybersecurity insurance work in relation to an organization's overall security strategy?
What factors should an organization consider when purchasing cybersecurity insurance?
As the security analyst for a financial institution, you uncover evidence of repeated access attempts on a user account during off-hours. Your investigation identifies that the attempts originate from a geographical location not sanctioned for any business operations. Which category of threat actor does this situation suggest is most likely involved?
A case of shadow IT where individuals within the organization are using unapproved external services
A threat actor external to the organization using targeted measures to compromise systems
An internal staff member attempting to access the network remotely with misconfigured settings
A novice individual testing their ability to infiltrate a network without malicious intent
Answer Description
The situation described indicates attempts to gain unauthorized access from a location outside of the standard business operation areas, suggesting an actor not associated with the organization. This fits the profile of an external actor, who is attempting to penetrate the network for potentially malicious purposes, such as stealing sensitive information or disrupting services. While internal employees may also attempt to gain unauthorized access, the geographical indicator and off-hours pattern are more indicative of an external threat. By contrast, unskilled attackers may not be capable of executing targeted attacks that avoid detection, and shadow IT refers to internal unauthorized technology use, rather than an attempt to breach from an external location.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What methods do external threat actors typically use to compromise systems?
What steps should a financial institution take if they detect repeated access attempts from an external threat actor?
How can organizations identify off-hour access attempts effectively?
Which access control method combines elements such as user role, the resource being accessed, and the current time to make an access decision?
Role-based access control
Mandatory access control
Attribute-based access control
Discretionary access control
Answer Description
Attribute-based access control is the correct answer because it is a method that defines an access control paradigm whereby access rights are granted to users through the use of policies that combine different attributes. These attributes can be associated with the user, the resource being accessed, the current time, and even the current environmental conditions. This is different from role-based access control that focuses solely on the roles that users have, discretionary access control which allows owners to define access, and mandatory access control which enforces access based on a centralized policy.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key attributes used in Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
How does Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) differ from Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
Can you provide examples of when ABAC is particularly beneficial?
What term is used to describe the enhancement of a security team's effectiveness by employing tools and methods that allow fewer staff members to manage more resources?
Team augmentation
Resource allocation
Staff scaling
Workforce multiplier
Answer Description
The term 'Workforce multiplier' refers to methods and tools that extend the effectiveness and efficiency of a security team, enabling them to handle more work with fewer resources. This is crucial for modern security operations where the volume of threats and alerts can be overwhelming for small teams. By using automation, orchestration, and other advanced tools, even a limited staff can effectively manage and secure a large set of resources.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of tools that serve as workforce multipliers in security teams?
How does automation contribute to the concept of a workforce multiplier?
What is the importance of cybersecurity orchestration in enhancing a security team's effectiveness?
An attacker is attempting to impersonate a trusted entity by presenting a fabricated network packet that appears to be part of an ongoing communication. Which kind of attack does this scenario best describe?
Phishing
Replay
Spoofing
Forgery
Answer Description
The correct answer is: Spoofing.
Spoofing: Spoofing specifically refers to the act of imitating a trusted device or user on a network. By creating fabricated packets that appear to originate from a legitimate source, the attacker can gain unauthorized access or disrupt communication flows.
Replay: A replay attack involves capturing and retransmitting legitimate network traffic to gain unauthorized access or manipulate data. While it utilizes existing packets, it doesn't necessarily impersonate a trusted source.
Phishing: Phishing attacks attempt to trick users into revealing sensitive information by disguising themselves as legitimate entities (e.g., emails or websites). Spoofing can be a technique used in phishing attacks, but it's not the sole characteristic.
Forgery: Forgery can encompass a broader range of activities like counterfeiting documents or digital signatures. In the context of network security, spoofing is a more specific term referring to impersonation on a network level.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main techniques used in spoofing attacks?
How can organizations protect against spoofing attacks?
Can you explain the difference between spoofing and other attacks like replay and phishing?
Firewalls operating at which OSI layer can make policy decisions based on the actual content of messages-such as specific URLs or the payload contained inside HTTP requests-rather than only on IP addresses or port numbers?
Layer 3 (Network layer)
Layer 2 (Data link layer)
Layer 4 (Transport layer)
Layer 7 (Application layer)
Answer Description
Firewalls that work at the application layer (layer 7) perform deep packet inspection. They can parse application-specific data like HTTP headers, URLs, and message bodies to allow or block traffic. Firewalls limited to the transport layer (layer 4) evaluate only header information such as IP addresses and TCP/UDP ports, while layers 3 and 2 concern routing and data-link functions and do not examine application content. Therefore, layer 7 is the only layer listed that provides content-aware filtering.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main functions of a Layer 7 firewall?
What is the difference between Layer 7 and Layer 4 firewalls?
What are some common threats that Layer 7 firewalls can mitigate?
Which type of disaster recovery site typically has infrastructure and utilities in place, but often requires additional configuration and data restoration before becoming operational?
Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
Mobile site
Answer Description
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has the necessary hardware and connectivity in place but doesn't have client data continuously updated. This means that, in the event of a disruption, a warm site may require some time to restore recent backups and configure systems to become fully operational. It offers a middle ground between the immediate availability of a hot site and the lack of infrastructure of a cold site.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a warm site and a hot site?
What are the main advantages of using a warm site for disaster recovery?
What are the key components of a warm site?
A security analyst is reviewing authentication logs and observes a high volume of failed login attempts originating from a single IP address. The attempts are distributed across hundreds of different user accounts, with only one or two password attempts per account before moving to the next. Which of the following security controls is specifically designed to frustrate this type of attack?
Password complexity policy
Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Geofencing
Account lockout policy
Answer Description
The scenario described is a classic password spraying attack. An account lockout policy is a direct countermeasure that is specifically designed to mitigate such attacks. By locking an account after a small number of failed login attempts (e.g., 3-5), it prevents the attacker from trying even a few common passwords against many accounts without triggering lockouts, which would disrupt the attack and alert security personnel. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is an excellent control that prevents access even with a compromised password, but it does not stop the password guessing attempts themselves. A password complexity policy makes passwords harder to guess but does not stop the spraying action. Geofencing is only effective if the attack originates from an untrusted geographical location and would not stop a domestic or internal attack.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a password spraying attack?
How does an account lockout policy work?
What are the benefits of implementing an account lockout policy?
You want to limit company losses and downtime in the event of data loss, so you implement a data backup and recovery strategy. Which type of security control does this strategy represent?
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Detective
Answer Description
Corrective controls are designed to "correct" or remediate the damage caused by an incident. A data backup and recovery strategy restores data and normal operations after data loss, so it is classified as a corrective control.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are corrective controls in cybersecurity?
How does a data backup and recovery strategy work?
What are other types of controls in cybersecurity?
When managing operations across multiple countries, each with their own unique privacy and data handling laws, what is the BEST approach a company can adopt to ensure ongoing compliance in its handling of personal customer data?
Enhancing employee awareness through training programs
Adopting a comprehensive data inventory and retention policy
Establishing generic organizational policies for data handling
Regularly engaging with third-party auditors for compliance checks
Answer Description
The most effective approach to ensure compliance with different countries' privacy and data laws is to adopt a robust data inventory and retention policy. This policy allows the company to keep a clear record of what data it has, where it is stored, and how long it should be retained according to each jurisdiction's legal requirements. By systematically categorizing data and its lifecycles, the company can tailor its compliance strategy region by region, adequately addressing the nuances of local privacy laws. Though establishing organizational policies and awareness training are beneficial, they are supplementary measures and don't directly manage data handling practices as per legal requirements. Similarly, engaging with third-party auditors can identify risks but doesn't inherently maintain compliance with varying international regulations.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are data inventory and retention policies?
Why is it important to comply with varying privacy laws in different countries?
What are some common international privacy laws companies should know about?
A security administrator is tasked with enhancing the security of the wireless network to which staff frequently connect their personal smartphones and tablets. What is the most effective method to protect the corporate resources in this scenario?
Deploy a quick-connect feature that allows devices to connect to the network with minimal user intervention.
Utilize a common shared key across all staff devices for wireless network encryption.
Provision a segregated network with stringent security policies tailored for personal devices.
Operate an unrestricted wireless connection to minimize the administrative overhead related to access management.
Answer Description
Allocating a separate network with strict access controls and monitoring for individually owned devices isolates them from the main corporate network, thereby reducing the risk of accidental or malicious access to sensitive systems and data. This segmentation effectively mitigates many security concerns inherent in allowing personal devices to connect to the network. Automating the connection process with push-button configuration or using a common passphrase for all users could simplify the network access but would not add a security benefit; in fact, they could compound the risk. Leaving the network open without any encryption control is the least secure option and would invite potential breaches.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the benefits of a segregated network for personal devices?
What kind of security policies should be implemented for personal devices?
Why is using a common shared key for wireless encryption a security risk?
During an authorized penetration test, you uncovered a server susceptible to an injection attack. To proceed according to best practices, what step should be taken before attempting to exploit this vulnerability?
Inform the organization's IT department about the vulnerability, requesting permission to exploit it.
Document the vulnerability in detail and continue testing other areas, leaving exploitation for the final phase.
Review the rules of engagement and testing scope to ensure that exploitation of the vulnerability does not exceed authorized activities.
Immediately exploit the vulnerability to determine the impact without altering any data on the server.
Answer Description
Before proceeding with exploitation, it is crucial to review the agreed-upon rules of engagement and scope of work. This ensures that actions taken during a penetration test are within legal and authorized boundaries, safeguarding the tester from legal repercussions and the target system from unauthorized modification or damage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are rules of engagement in penetration testing?
What is a penetration test and why is it important?
What is an injection attack and how can it be tested for?
A company is preparing to deploy a new web application onto its cloud infrastructure. The security team is tasked with implementing a deployment strategy that ensures the highest level of security while maintaining efficiency. Which of the following deployment strategies BEST meets this requirement?
Use a phased deployment approach, gradually increasing the number of users while monitoring for security issues
Implement automated deployment tools with pre-configured security checks integrated into the deployment pipeline
Conduct scheduled deployment during off-peak hours with subsequent manual security post-checks
Carry out manual deployment with step-by-step security verification performed by the IT security staff
Answer Description
Using automated deployment tools with security checks integrated into the deployment pipeline provides the most secure and efficient deployment strategy. It leverages scripting and automated processes to enforce security baselines, apply configurations, and ensure that all steps are consistently followed for each deployment. Automation reduces the risk of human error and ensures that security controls are integrated throughout the deployment process. Manual deployment increases risk as it's more prone to errors and inconsistencies. Scheduled deployment may not address the immediate security needs of the environment, and phased deployment focuses more on functionality and user adaptation rather than security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are automated deployment tools?
What are integration security checks?
Why is reducing human error important in deployment?
Cool beans!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.