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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

What term describes the process of determining whether a detected vulnerability is actually present?

  • Reporting

  • Confirmation

  • False positive

  • Threat hunting

Question 2 of 20

Which statement about using standardized vulnerability severity scores (for example, the CVSS Base score) to determine patch-remediation priority is MOST accurate for an organization?

  • The score can be ignored entirely; patch priority should be based only on how recently the vendor released the patch.

  • The score is a useful starting point, but asset criticality, exploit likelihood, and business impact must also be assessed before setting priorities.

  • Combining the score with an up-to-date asset inventory is always enough; additional threat-intelligence data is unnecessary.

  • Relying only on the standardized numerical score is sufficient; patches should be applied strictly in descending score order.

Question 3 of 20

What type of malware is designed to replicate itself from one computer to another with the intention of spreading as much as possible, often consuming system resources and potentially causing denial of service?

  • Ransomware

  • Rootkit

  • Worm

  • Spyware

Question 4 of 20

An organization has issued the following statement in its information-security policy:

"All user passwords must be at least eight characters in length and include at least one uppercase letter, one number, and one special character."

Under CompTIA's security-control categories, which type of control BEST describes this password policy?

  • Preventive control

  • Deterrent control

  • Directive control

  • Detective control

Question 5 of 20

Which of the following best describes the 'Confidential' data classification in a security architecture?

  • Information that requires some level of protection but is not expected to cause significant harm if disclosed.

  • Information that requires strict access controls and protection because its unauthorized disclosure could significantly impact the organization or individuals.

  • Information that is available to the public and does not require special protection measures.

  • Information that has the highest level of protection and is intended for a very limited audience.

Question 6 of 20

A developer allocates a 32-byte character array to store a username but does not validate the length of user input. An attacker submits 128 characters, causing data to be written past the end of the array and overwriting adjacent memory addresses. Which type of vulnerability is the attacker exploiting?

  • Buffer overflow

  • SQL injection

  • Directory traversal

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Question 7 of 20

A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?

  • Insider threat

  • Hacktivist

  • Nation-state

  • Organized crime

Question 8 of 20

Which physical security measure is designed to prevent unauthorized access by controlling the entry and exit of individuals through the use of two interlocking doors?

  • Access Control Vestibule

  • Security Camera

  • Bollard

  • Turnstile

Question 9 of 20

A security manager is trying to calculate the expected monetary loss from data breach incidents that historically happen twice each fiscal year. If the average cost for each data incident is estimated to be $50,000, what is the BEST estimate for the yearly financial impact of these breaches?

  • The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $50,000.

  • The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $25,000.

  • The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $200,000.

  • The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $100,000.

Question 10 of 20

A company has recently deployed a new IoT device in their network. During the security assessment, it was found that the device is still using default credentials. Which of the following actions is the BEST immediate step to mitigate the potential exploitation of this device?

  • Disable remote management features on the IoT device to limit network-based attacks.

  • Change the default username and password to a complex, unique credential set.

  • Update the IoT device firmware to the latest version available from the manufacturer.

  • Conduct a thorough vulnerability scan of the device to find potential weaknesses.

Question 11 of 20

When conducting a penetration test in an environment where only some details about the target are known to the tester beforehand, what type of environment is this referred to as?

  • Partially Known Environment

  • Unknown Environment

  • Known Environment

  • Reconnaissance

Question 12 of 20

A network administrator needs to deploy a new public-facing web server. To minimize the risk of a server compromise affecting the internal corporate network, the administrator wants to isolate the web server in its own network segment. This segment must be accessible from the internet but have restricted access to the internal network. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

  • A screened subnet

  • A honeynet

  • A virtual private network (VPN)

  • An air-gapped network

Question 13 of 20

A security analyst is investigating a persistent, sophisticated cyberattack targeting a major government defense contractor. The attack uses zero-day exploits and custom malware, indicating extensive financial backing and a highly skilled team. The primary motivation appears to be espionage. Which of the following threat actors is most likely responsible for this attack?

  • Insider threat

  • Nation-state actor

  • Unskilled attacker

  • Organized crime

Question 14 of 20

Which password policy most effectively enhances security by ensuring passwords are difficult to guess or crack?

  • Enforcing passwords to be at least 12 characters long and include uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters.

  • Implementing a maximum password age of 90 days to ensure regular password changes.

  • Allowing users to reuse their previous six passwords to simplify password management.

  • Encouraging users to create passwords using easily memorable phrases.

Question 15 of 20

You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?

  • Trojan

  • Brute force

  • Keylogger

  • Ransomware

Question 16 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why containerization cannot fully prevent a compromise in one container from affecting other containers that run on the same host?

  • Containers run their own independent kernels, so a vulnerability in one kernel can be exploited to compromise others.

  • Containers always run with unrestricted network access to every other container on the host, regardless of configuration.

  • Containers require hardware virtualization extensions that allow direct memory access between containers.

  • Containers share the host operating-system kernel, so a kernel-level exploit can allow code to escape one container and access others.

Question 17 of 20

Which of the following BEST describes a primary security concern for an RTOS in the context of an industrial control system?

  • Ensuring tasks are processed within a specific time frame to maintain operational continuity.

  • Protecting against data leakage by employing full disk encryption.

  • Blocking port scanning and reconnaissance activities on the network.

  • Preventing unauthorized physical access to the system hardware.

Question 18 of 20

An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?

  • Buffer overflow

  • Directory traversal

  • Cross-site scripting

  • SQL injection

Question 19 of 20

In an effort to mitigate the risk of insider threats, an organization's security team has drafted a set of guidelines that require employees to report any suspicious behavior or policy violations to the security office immediately. What type of security control are these guidelines?

  • Physical Control

  • Deterrent Control

  • Technical Control

  • Directive Control

Question 20 of 20

A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?

  • Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.

  • A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.

  • Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.

  • Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.