CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What term describes the process of determining whether a detected vulnerability is actually present?
Reporting
Confirmation
False positive
Threat hunting
Answer Description
Confirmation is the correct term because it involves verifying whether a detected vulnerability by a scan or a security tool truly exists and is not a false positive. It's important for security professionals to accurately confirm vulnerabilities to prioritize remediation efforts and avoid wasting resources on issues that aren’t actual vulnerabilities. A false positive, on the other hand, would refer to erroneously identified issues that are not actual vulnerabilities, and reporting is related to the communication of findings, not the verification of them. Threat hunting is the proactive search for threats that are not detected by automated systems.
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What is the process of confirming a vulnerability?
What is the difference between a false positive and a confirmed vulnerability?
How does confirmation of vulnerabilities improve threat management?
Which statement about using standardized vulnerability severity scores (for example, the CVSS Base score) to determine patch-remediation priority is MOST accurate for an organization?
The score can be ignored entirely; patch priority should be based only on how recently the vendor released the patch.
The score is a useful starting point, but asset criticality, exploit likelihood, and business impact must also be assessed before setting priorities.
Combining the score with an up-to-date asset inventory is always enough; additional threat-intelligence data is unnecessary.
Relying only on the standardized numerical score is sufficient; patches should be applied strictly in descending score order.
Answer Description
Numerical severity scores provide a useful starting point, but they do not capture organization-specific factors such as asset criticality, exploit likelihood in the given environment, compensating controls, and overall business impact. The CVSS specification recommends that consumers supplement the Base score with Temporal and Environmental metrics and with additional risk data to arrive at a context-aware priority. Therefore, relying on the score alone is insufficient; broader organizational context must be considered when setting remediation priorities.
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What is CVSS and what does it measure?
What is the difference between CVSS Base, Temporal, and Environmental metrics?
Why is asset criticality important in patch prioritization?
What type of malware is designed to replicate itself from one computer to another with the intention of spreading as much as possible, often consuming system resources and potentially causing denial of service?
Ransomware
Rootkit
Worm
Spyware
Answer Description
A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers, often over a network. It can consume system resources which can lead to denial of service. Unlike a virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program and often exploits vulnerabilities in network services to spread. Ransomware, while it may spread across networks, is primarily known for encrypting files and demanding a ransom; it is not characterized by its ability to replicate on its own. Spyware is designed to gather information without consent and does not typically replicate itself. A rootkit is designed to provide unauthorized access to a computer system and conceal its presence, not to propagate across networks.
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How does a worm differ from a virus?
What vulnerabilities do worms typically exploit to spread?
How can organizations protect against worms?
An organization has issued the following statement in its information-security policy:
"All user passwords must be at least eight characters in length and include at least one uppercase letter, one number, and one special character."
Under CompTIA's security-control categories, which type of control BEST describes this password policy?
Preventive control
Deterrent control
Directive control
Detective control
Answer Description
The policy is a directive control because it provides written guidance that instructs users on the required behavior (how to create passwords) to meet the organization's security expectations. Preventive controls stop incidents from occurring (for example, a firewall), deterrent controls discourage attacks (for example, posted warning signs), and detective controls identify incidents after they happen (for example, log analysis). The password-complexity statement does not directly block or detect attacks; it directs users, so it is classified as a directive control.
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What is a directive control in cybersecurity?
How does a directive control differ from a preventive control?
Why wouldn't password complexity requirements be considered a preventive control?
Which of the following best describes the 'Confidential' data classification in a security architecture?
Information that requires some level of protection but is not expected to cause significant harm if disclosed.
Information that requires strict access controls and protection because its unauthorized disclosure could significantly impact the organization or individuals.
Information that is available to the public and does not require special protection measures.
Information that has the highest level of protection and is intended for a very limited audience.
Answer Description
The 'Confidential' data classification is typically applied to information that if disclosed without authorization could lead to a significant level of risk to the organization or individuals. This classification requires a higher level of access control and protective measures due to the potential harm that could result from its exposure. Other classifications like 'Public' and 'Sensitive' do not carry the same implication of risk if disclosed and thus are not characterized by the same level of required protection. 'Restricted' often refers to a higher classification level than 'Confidential' and may require even stricter controls.
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What is the difference between 'Confidential' and 'Restricted' data classifications?
What are some examples of 'Confidential' data?
What protective measures are typically used for 'Confidential' data?
A developer allocates a 32-byte character array to store a username but does not validate the length of user input. An attacker submits 128 characters, causing data to be written past the end of the array and overwriting adjacent memory addresses. Which type of vulnerability is the attacker exploiting?
Buffer overflow
SQL injection
Directory traversal
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Answer Description
Writing more data to a fixed-length memory buffer than it was allocated to hold is a classic buffer overflow. The excess data overwrites neighboring memory, which can result in crashes or allow the attacker to execute arbitrary code. SQL injection and XSS target web application input handling, while directory traversal manipulates file-system paths; none of these involve overrunning a memory buffer.
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What is a buffer overflow?
How can buffer overflows be prevented?
What is the difference between a buffer overflow and SQL injection?
A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?
Insider threat
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Organized crime
Answer Description
The correct answer is Hacktivist. Hacktivists are often motivated by philosophical or political beliefs, which lead them to target organizations or governments that they perceive as acting against their values or agendas. The nature of these attacks, including website defacements and public message spreads, are typical of hacktivist groups that aim to broadcast a political message or to create awareness about their cause. The other options listed do not align as closely with the details given.
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What distinguishes a hacktivist from other types of threat actors?
Why is an insider threat not the correct answer in this scenario?
How do hacktivist tactics differ from those used by nation-states?
Which physical security measure is designed to prevent unauthorized access by controlling the entry and exit of individuals through the use of two interlocking doors?
Access Control Vestibule
Security Camera
Bollard
Turnstile
Answer Description
An access control vestibule uses two interlocking doors to control the passage of individuals into a secure area. This configuration enhances security by verifying credentials before granting access. Turnstiles control pedestrian flow but typically do not use interlocking doors. Bollards are physical barriers that prevent vehicle access but do not control pedestrian entry. Security cameras monitor areas but do not physically restrict access.
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How do access control vestibules work to enhance physical security?
What is tailgating in the context of physical security, and how does an access control vestibule prevent it?
How does an access control vestibule differ from turnstiles in physical security?
A security manager is trying to calculate the expected monetary loss from data breach incidents that historically happen twice each fiscal year. If the average cost for each data incident is estimated to be $50,000, what is the BEST estimate for the yearly financial impact of these breaches?
The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $50,000.
The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $25,000.
The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $200,000.
The yearly financial impact is estimated to be $100,000.
Answer Description
To estimate the yearly financial impact of the security breaches, the security manager needs to consider both the frequency of the incidents and the cost of each incident. This is known as Annualized Loss Expectancy, which is the product of the yearly occurrence rate and the cost of a single incident. Since the data breaches happen twice per year, the frequency (occurrence rate) is 2. Multiplying this by the cost for a single data breach ($50,000) gives an estimated annual impact of 2 * $50,000 = $100,000. Similarly named metrics or partially correct values would not account for both the incidence frequency and individual incident cost correctly.
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What is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?
What is the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) and how is it determined?
What is the difference between ALE and Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A company has recently deployed a new IoT device in their network. During the security assessment, it was found that the device is still using default credentials. Which of the following actions is the BEST immediate step to mitigate the potential exploitation of this device?
Disable remote management features on the IoT device to limit network-based attacks.
Change the default username and password to a complex, unique credential set.
Update the IoT device firmware to the latest version available from the manufacturer.
Conduct a thorough vulnerability scan of the device to find potential weaknesses.
Answer Description
Changing default credentials is an essential security measure to prevent unauthorized access, as many attack vectors involve using known defaults to gain control over systems. Attackers often rely on databases of default usernames and passwords-such as those exploited by the Mirai botnet-to compromise devices that have not had their credentials changed from the manufacturer's defaults. Regularly updating device passwords to complex, unique values greatly reduces this risk. Conducting a vulnerability scan or updating firmware, while important, would not address the immediate exposure created by default credentials. Disabling remote management could limit some attack vectors but still leaves the device vulnerable if the credentials remain unchanged.
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Why is changing default credentials the best immediate step to secure IoT devices?
What is the Mirai botnet and how does it exploit IoT devices with default credentials?
Why are actions like updating firmware or disabling remote management less effective for immediate mitigation?
When conducting a penetration test in an environment where only some details about the target are known to the tester beforehand, what type of environment is this referred to as?
Partially Known Environment
Unknown Environment
Known Environment
Reconnaissance
Answer Description
A 'Partially Known Environment,' also called a gray-box test, is one where the penetration tester has some information about the target system, such as network diagrams or configurations, but does not have complete knowledge. This approach mimics a scenario where an attacker might have some insider knowledge. In contrast, an 'Unknown Environment' (black-box test) implies the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. A 'Known Environment' (white-box test) is when the tester has full knowledge of the system, including source code and architecture documents. 'Reconnaissance' is not an environment type but a phase of penetration testing focused on information gathering.
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What is the purpose of a penetration test?
How does a Partially Known Environment differ from an Unknown Environment?
What is the Reconnaissance phase in penetration testing?
A network administrator needs to deploy a new public-facing web server. To minimize the risk of a server compromise affecting the internal corporate network, the administrator wants to isolate the web server in its own network segment. This segment must be accessible from the internet but have restricted access to the internal network. Which of the following should the administrator configure?
A screened subnet
A honeynet
A virtual private network (VPN)
An air-gapped network
Answer Description
The correct choice is a screened subnet, which is also commonly known as a demilitarized zone (DMZ). A screened subnet is a perimeter network that is isolated from the secure internal network by a firewall, providing a buffer zone between the internal network and the untrusted internet. It is the standard architecture for hosting public-facing services, like web servers, because it contains potential security breaches within the DMZ, preventing them from spreading to the critical internal network. An air-gapped network is completely physically isolated and not connected to the internet, so it is unsuitable for a public web server. A honeynet is a decoy network used to attract and study attackers, not for hosting production services. A virtual private network (VPN) is used to create a secure, encrypted connection over an untrusted network and is not the primary tool for segmenting a public server.
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What is a screened subnet (DMZ)?
Why is an air-gapped network not suitable for a public-facing web server?
How does a honeynet differ from a screened subnet?
A security analyst is investigating a persistent, sophisticated cyberattack targeting a major government defense contractor. The attack uses zero-day exploits and custom malware, indicating extensive financial backing and a highly skilled team. The primary motivation appears to be espionage. Which of the following threat actors is most likely responsible for this attack?
Insider threat
Nation-state actor
Unskilled attacker
Organized crime
Answer Description
A nation-state actor is most likely responsible, as they are characterized by high levels of sophistication, significant resources, and government backing, often targeting other nations for espionage or strategic advantage. Their use of zero-day exploits and custom malware are hallmarks of their advanced capabilities. An unskilled attacker lacks the skills and resources for such an attack. An insider threat originates from within the organization and, while potentially sophisticated, the description points towards a well-funded external entity. Organized crime is typically motivated by financial gain, not state-sponsored espionage.
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What is a nation-state actor in cybersecurity?
What is a zero-day exploit?
How can organizations protect themselves from targeted nation-state attacks?
Which password policy most effectively enhances security by ensuring passwords are difficult to guess or crack?
Enforcing passwords to be at least 12 characters long and include uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters.
Implementing a maximum password age of 90 days to ensure regular password changes.
Allowing users to reuse their previous six passwords to simplify password management.
Encouraging users to create passwords using easily memorable phrases.
Answer Description
Requiring passwords to be long and include a combination of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters significantly increases their complexity, making them harder to guess or crack. Allowing password reuse or limiting password age does not directly enhance password strength and can lead to weaker security practices.
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Why does increasing password length and complexity make it harder to crack?
What is the purpose of implementing a maximum password age policy?
Why is allowing password reuse considered a poor security practice?
You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?
Trojan
Brute force
Keylogger
Ransomware
Answer Description
A brute force attack involves trying random passwords on user accounts in an attempt to gain access. If accounts are set up to auto lock after a certain number of failed login attempts this can be a sign of an attacker's attempt to brute force accounts.
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What is a brute force attack?
How can account lockout policies prevent brute force attacks?
What tools do attackers use for brute force attacks?
Which of the following statements BEST explains why containerization cannot fully prevent a compromise in one container from affecting other containers that run on the same host?
Containers run their own independent kernels, so a vulnerability in one kernel can be exploited to compromise others.
Containers always run with unrestricted network access to every other container on the host, regardless of configuration.
Containers require hardware virtualization extensions that allow direct memory access between containers.
Containers share the host operating-system kernel, so a kernel-level exploit can allow code to escape one container and access others.
Answer Description
Containers share the host's operating-system kernel. If an attacker exploits a kernel-level vulnerability or misconfiguration, the code can escape the original container's namespace and interact with the host or other containers. Virtual machines, by contrast, have their own separate kernels, so a compromise stays isolated inside that VM.
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What is the difference between containers and virtual machines (VMs)?
What is a kernel-level exploit, and how does it affect containers?
How can kernel-level risks in containerized environments be mitigated?
Which of the following BEST describes a primary security concern for an RTOS in the context of an industrial control system?
Ensuring tasks are processed within a specific time frame to maintain operational continuity.
Protecting against data leakage by employing full disk encryption.
Blocking port scanning and reconnaissance activities on the network.
Preventing unauthorized physical access to the system hardware.
Answer Description
RTOS are designed to handle real-time applications that require a deterministic response to events. The most critical aspect of securing an RTOS is ensuring the availability and timely processing of tasks, which can be crucial for safety and operational continuity in industrial environments. If tasks are not completed within the required time frame, it could result in system failures or hazards. Other answers, such as data leakage and physical tampering, although important for general security, are not as central to RTOS security concerns as availability and timely task execution.
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What is an RTOS, and how does it differ from a general-purpose OS?
Why is timing critical in an industrial control system using an RTOS?
What are some common threats to the security of an RTOS in industrial environments?
An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?
Buffer overflow
Directory traversal
Cross-site scripting
SQL injection
Answer Description
This attack is a directory traversal. By inserting "../" into the URL, the attacker navigates the file system hierarchy to access files and folders that are outside the intended scope of the web application. This can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive files. Directory traversal exploits occur when input validation is insufficient on file path parameters. The other options are distinct types of attacks: SQL injection involves injecting malicious SQL queries into a database query, cross-site scripting (XSS) entails injecting malicious scripts into web content viewed by other users, and a buffer overflow occurs when too much data is sent to a fixed-length memory buffer, potentially allowing an attacker to execute arbitrary code.
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What is insufficient input validation, and why is it important in preventing directory traversal attacks?
How do web applications typically mitigate directory traversal attacks?
What types of sensitive files are commonly targeted in directory traversal attacks?
In an effort to mitigate the risk of insider threats, an organization's security team has drafted a set of guidelines that require employees to report any suspicious behavior or policy violations to the security office immediately. What type of security control are these guidelines?
Physical Control
Deterrent Control
Technical Control
Directive Control
Answer Description
The guidelines requiring employees to report suspicious behavior represent a directive control. Directive controls are policies, regulations, and guidelines that mandate specific actions or behavior to ensure compliance and enhance the security posture of an organization. The focus on behavior and reporting in this scenario aligns with the intention behind directive controls to guide user actions. The other options, while plausible, do not fulfill the purpose of directing specific actions. Technical controls involve technology and devices, deterrent controls aim to discourage but don't direct specific reporting actions, and physical controls involve tangible measures to secure assets, which do not include guidelines for behavior.
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What is the role of directive controls in security?
How do directive controls differ from deterrent controls?
Why can't technical or physical controls replace directive controls?
A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?
Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.
A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.
Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.
Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.
Answer Description
While process isolation is the fundamental mechanism that prevents VM escape, it is not foolproof, as vulnerabilities in the hypervisor can still be exploited. A comprehensive, defense-in-depth strategy is the most effective approach. This includes keeping both the hypervisor and guest operating systems fully patched, using network segmentation to limit an attacker's reach, and applying the principle of least privilege through strict access controls. HIDS on guest VMs and data encryption are valuable security layers, but they do not directly prevent the hypervisor compromise that enables a VM escape.
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What is VM escape?
Why is keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched critical to prevent VM escape?
How does network segmentation help mitigate VM escape risks?
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