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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Why must a Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance receive regular updates to its threat-intelligence databases?

  • To reduce network latency caused by outdated hardware drivers.

  • To eliminate the single point of failure inherent to consolidated security appliances.

  • To ensure its detection engines can identify the latest malware, intrusion signatures, and spam campaigns.

  • To automatically balance traffic loads between redundant UTMs in an active-active cluster.

Question 2 of 15

A security administrator is deploying a firewall solution specifically to protect a public-facing web server from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). At which layer of the OSI model does this type of specialized firewall primarily operate?

  • Layer 2 (Data Link)

  • Layer 3 (Network)

  • Layer 7 (Application)

  • Layer 4 (Transport)

Question 3 of 15

Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?

  • Shipping Port Security Act

  • Federal Information Security Management Act

  • General Data Protection Regulation

  • United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods

Question 4 of 15

Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?

  • A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.

  • The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.

  • The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.

  • Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.

Question 5 of 15

An organization involved in animal testing has become the target of a series of cyber attacks. The attackers have not made any financial demands but have publicized their actions on social media, stating their intent to bring attention to animal rights abuses. Which category of threat actor BEST fits the profile of the attackers?

  • Hacktivist

  • Insider threat

  • Unskilled attacker

  • Nation-state

  • Organized crime

  • Shadow IT

Question 6 of 15

What is the primary purpose of implementing security zones within a network infrastructure?

  • To provide redundant network paths for load balancing purposes

  • To increase the performance and speed of the network by reducing congestion

  • To simplify network management by grouping similar device types

  • To isolate network segments by security levels and enforce distinct policies

Question 7 of 15

Which concept refers to designing a system capable of handling increased demand by adding resources?

  • Resilience

  • Availability

  • Scalability

  • Redundancy

Question 8 of 15

Which metric is most important for determining the maximum period that a business process can afford to be offline during the recovery phase after a significant disruptive event?

  • Service Level Agreements

  • Redundancy Strategy

  • Availability

  • Recovery Time Objective

Question 9 of 15

A healthcare company relies on a virtualized server environment to store sensitive patient records. The IT security specialist is implementing a backup strategy that allows for quick restoration of data with minimal data loss in case of a server crash. Which of the following would be MOST effective for this purpose?

  • Configuring incremental backups to be taken daily

  • Setting up differential backups every 48 hours

  • Performing a full backup of the servers on a weekly basis

  • Using scheduled snapshots of the virtual machines

Question 10 of 15

A network administrator is concerned that an attacker might exploit a hash algorithm's vulnerability by finding two different inputs that produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity. Which cryptographic attack leverages this probability?

  • Brute force attack

  • Birthday attack

  • Dictionary attack

  • Rainbow table attack

Question 11 of 15

Which of the following is a network server that acts as an intermediary between a user's computer and the internet, providing increased security, administrative control, and caching service?

  • Jump server

  • IPS

  • Proxy server

  • IDS

Question 12 of 15

A company wants to ensure that a newly developed application does not unintentionally access sensitive system resources or affect existing applications on end-user devices. Which technique is BEST suited for testing the application in an isolated environment before deployment?

  • Execution in a virtualized sandbox environment

  • Network segmentation within the corporate network

  • Using a dedicated test user account on the main OS

  • Deployment to a staging server that simulates the production environment

Question 13 of 15

A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?

  • Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups

  • Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups

  • Full backups at the end of every week

  • Full backups every 24 hours only

Question 14 of 15

An organization's staff is distributed across varying locations, each with varying levels of network security. To strengthen their security posture for collaborative efforts, which measure would be most effective in ensuring authorized access to shared company resources?

  • Mandate email encryption for all internal and external communication.

  • Implement multi-factor authentication for all users when accessing shared company resources.

  • Limit the connection times to shared resources to specific hours of the working day.

  • Enforce a policy requiring users to change their passwords monthly.

Question 15 of 15

A company is implementing multifactor authentication for their VPN access. Which of the following would be considered the BEST 'something you have' factor?

  • An SMS text message sent to the user's phone.

  • A smartphone with a biometric lock.

  • A security token generating one-time codes.

  • A password written down on a piece of paper.