CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Why must a Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance receive regular updates to its threat-intelligence databases?
To reduce network latency caused by outdated hardware drivers.
To eliminate the single point of failure inherent to consolidated security appliances.
To ensure its detection engines can identify the latest malware, intrusion signatures, and spam campaigns.
To automatically balance traffic loads between redundant UTMs in an active-active cluster.
Answer Description
Regular updates provide the latest malware signatures, intrusion indicators, spam patterns, and other threat intelligence to all integrated detection engines (antivirus, IDS/IPS, anti-spam, etc.). Without these updates, the UTM's ability to recognize and block new or rapidly evolving attacks degrades over time, leaving the organization exposed. Updating device drivers, eliminating single points of failure, or enabling traffic-balancing features are important administrative tasks but are not the primary reason that keeping the threat database current is critical.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the components of a Unified Threat Management (UTM) system?
Why is threat intelligence important for UTM systems?
What are the risks of not updating UTM threat databases?
A security administrator is deploying a firewall solution specifically to protect a public-facing web server from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). At which layer of the OSI model does this type of specialized firewall primarily operate?
Layer 2 (Data Link)
Layer 3 (Network)
Layer 7 (Application)
Layer 4 (Transport)
Answer Description
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is designed to protect web applications from application-layer attacks such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). It operates at Layer 7 (the Application layer) of the OSI model, where it can inspect the content of HTTP and HTTPS traffic. Traditional network firewalls operate at Layer 3 (Network) and Layer 4 (Transport), filtering traffic based on IP addresses and ports, and cannot inspect the application-specific data needed to stop these attacks. Layer 2 is the Data Link layer, which handles node-to-node data transfer using MAC addresses.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the OSI model?
What functions do traditional firewalls perform?
What types of attacks do Web Application Firewalls protect against?
Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?
Shipping Port Security Act
Federal Information Security Management Act
General Data Protection Regulation
United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods
Answer Description
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data privacy framework that imposes strict rules on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. As it is one of the strictest privacy and security laws in the world, adopting GDPR-compliant policies will likely ensure compliance with a wide range of international data protection standards. The regulation requires businesses to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens. Additionally, because the GDPR has extraterritorial applicability, meaning it applies to organizations outside the EU that process data of EU residents, adhering to its standards can help a multinational corporation align with global data protection regulations. The other options are either national and not globally focused (like the Federal Information Security Management Act), industry-specific (such as acts related to shipping port security), or limited in scope with regards to data protection (for example, the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does GDPR stand for and what are its main principles?
What are the consequences of not complying with GDPR?
How does GDPR impact organizations outside of the EU?
Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?
A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.
The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.
The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.
Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.
Answer Description
With asymmetric encryption, the sender uses the recipient's public key to encrypt the data. Only the holder of the mathematically related private key can decrypt that ciphertext, so confidentiality is preserved even if the encrypted traffic is intercepted. In contrast, symmetric encryption relies on a single shared secret key (Answer 1), digital signatures created with a sender's private key provide integrity and authentication-not confidentiality (Answer 3), and striping data across drives (Answer 4) is a storage redundancy technique unrelated to encryption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are public and private keys in asymmetric encryption?
How does asymmetric encryption differ from symmetric encryption?
What are some common applications of asymmetric encryption?
An organization involved in animal testing has become the target of a series of cyber attacks. The attackers have not made any financial demands but have publicized their actions on social media, stating their intent to bring attention to animal rights abuses. Which category of threat actor BEST fits the profile of the attackers?
Hacktivist
Insider threat
Unskilled attacker
Nation-state
Organized crime
Shadow IT
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Hacktivist' because the primary motivation of the attacks is to promote political beliefs regarding animal rights, rather than for financial gain or data exfiltration. Hacktivists often publicize their actions to draw attention to a cause or to effect change, which aligns with the attackers' behavior in this scenario. Other threat actors like 'Nation-state' or 'Organized crime' entities would be improbable due to the lack of espionage or financial motives. 'Insider threat' does not fit the pattern, as there is no indication that the attackers are internal members of the organization. 'Shadow IT' relates to unauthorized IT systems within an organization, not external threats. Lastly, 'Unskilled attacker' suggests a lack of capability or sophistication, which does not necessarily apply in this context.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the typical motivations of hacktivists?
How do hacktivists typically operate and communicate their actions?
How do hacktivist attacks differ from those conducted by organized crime or nation-state actors?
What is the primary purpose of implementing security zones within a network infrastructure?
To provide redundant network paths for load balancing purposes
To increase the performance and speed of the network by reducing congestion
To simplify network management by grouping similar device types
To isolate network segments by security levels and enforce distinct policies
Answer Description
Security zones are utilized to segregate different parts of the network, often by their role or requirements for security, to apply appropriate controls and limit the spread of security breaches. By controlling communication between zones, the risk of a compromised system affecting the entire network is reduced. Each answer choice is related to network management or security, but only one specifically addresses the central concept of isolating network segments to enhance security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are security zones in a network?
How do security zones help prevent security breaches?
What are some common types of security zones?
Which concept refers to designing a system capable of handling increased demand by adding resources?
Resilience
Availability
Scalability
Redundancy
Answer Description
Scalability is the ability of a system to handle a growing amount of work by adding resources. It ensures that as demand increases, the system can scale up or out to maintain performance levels. Resilience refers to a system's ability to recover from failures, availability is about the system being accessible when needed, and redundancy involves duplicating components to prevent failure but does not directly address increasing demand.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of how scalability can be achieved in a system?
How does scalability differ from availability in a system?
What is the significance of redundancy in relation to scalability?
Which metric is most important for determining the maximum period that a business process can afford to be offline during the recovery phase after a significant disruptive event?
Service Level Agreements
Redundancy Strategy
Availability
Recovery Time Objective
Answer Description
The metric in question is the Recovery Time Objective, which sets the maximum amount of time that a process can be down after a disruption before significantly impacting the organization. It is essential for creating effective disaster recovery strategies. While redundancy is a strategy that may help achieve a lower RTO by having backup systems, it is not a metric. Availability represents the proportion of time a system is operational, and Service Level Agreements establish the expected performance and availability standards between providers and clients, but neither directly defines the maximum tolerable downtime after a disruption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
How does RTO differ from other recovery metrics?
Why is setting an appropriate RTO crucial for a business?
A healthcare company relies on a virtualized server environment to store sensitive patient records. The IT security specialist is implementing a backup strategy that allows for quick restoration of data with minimal data loss in case of a server crash. Which of the following would be MOST effective for this purpose?
Configuring incremental backups to be taken daily
Setting up differential backups every 48 hours
Performing a full backup of the servers on a weekly basis
Using scheduled snapshots of the virtual machines
Answer Description
Snapshots provide a point-in-time copy of the virtual machine's disk file, which can be used to restore a system back to a particular state with minimal downtime. This makes them highly suitable for environments where data needs to be restored quickly and efficiently, such as in a healthcare company handling sensitive patient records. Traditional backups involve copying files to another location and often result in longer recovery times. Differential and incremental backups, while useful for saving storage space and reducing backup time, do not provide the immediate state recovery that snapshots offer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are scheduled snapshots, and how do they work?
How do snapshots differ from full, differential, and incremental backups?
Why is quick restoration critical for healthcare companies?
A network administrator is concerned that an attacker might exploit a hash algorithm's vulnerability by finding two different inputs that produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity. Which cryptographic attack leverages this probability?
Brute force attack
Birthday attack
Dictionary attack
Rainbow table attack
Answer Description
Birthday attacks exploit the birthday paradox, a mathematical principle that makes it easier than expected to find two inputs that produce the same hash output (a collision) in a hash function. This compromises data integrity by allowing an attacker to substitute input data without changing the hash. Dictionary attacks focus on guessing passwords using common words, rainbow table attacks use precomputed tables to reverse-engineer hashed passwords, and brute force attacks attempt every possible combination of input without leveraging collision probabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a hash algorithm and why is it important in security?
Can you explain the 'birthday paradox' in simple terms?
How do birthday attacks differ from other types of cryptographic attacks?
Which of the following is a network server that acts as an intermediary between a user's computer and the internet, providing increased security, administrative control, and caching service?
Jump server
IPS
Proxy server
IDS
Answer Description
A proxy server is a network device that accesses servers on the behalf of a client requesting access to the resource. Proxy servers are typically used as intermediaries between clients and web servers. One of the advantages of this is that the server being accessed will not be able to see the IP address of the client.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main function of a proxy server?
How does a proxy server enhance security?
What are the differences between a proxy server and a jump server?
A company wants to ensure that a newly developed application does not unintentionally access sensitive system resources or affect existing applications on end-user devices. Which technique is BEST suited for testing the application in an isolated environment before deployment?
Execution in a virtualized sandbox environment
Network segmentation within the corporate network
Using a dedicated test user account on the main OS
Deployment to a staging server that simulates the production environment
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Execution in a virtualized sandbox environment.' This provides an isolated space for running and analyzing the behavior of the application without risking the integrity of the main operating system or other applications. It limits the app's interaction with real system resources, containing any potential harm. 'Using a dedicated test user account' is useful for access control but does not inherently contain the application's actions. 'Network segmentation' isolates network traffic but doesn’t address the local execution of an application on a device. 'Deployment to a staging server' provides a realistic test environment that mimics production but does not provide the level of isolation a sandbox does for analyzing the behavior of individual apps.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a virtualized sandbox environment?
Why is using a dedicated test user account not sufficient for testing applications?
What is the importance of isolating applications during testing?
A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?
Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups
Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups
Full backups at the end of every week
Full backups every 24 hours only
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups'. This approach efficiently balances the need to maintain recent data save points to minimize loss in the event of a system failure while utilizing resources effectively. Incremental backups save changes since the last full or incremental backup, reducing the volume of data that needs to be copied and the time required for each subsequent backup. Daily full backups ensure that there is always a recent complete copy of data to restore from, while the frequent incremental backups capture the ongoing changes.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are incremental backups and how do they work?
What is the purpose of a full backup?
What are the differences between incremental and differential backups?
An organization's staff is distributed across varying locations, each with varying levels of network security. To strengthen their security posture for collaborative efforts, which measure would be most effective in ensuring authorized access to shared company resources?
Mandate email encryption for all internal and external communication.
Implement multi-factor authentication for all users when accessing shared company resources.
Limit the connection times to shared resources to specific hours of the working day.
Enforce a policy requiring users to change their passwords monthly.
Answer Description
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides a powerful defense against unauthorized access, as it requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to resources, thus protecting against compromised credentials. Email encryption is a security measure that protects the contents of emails but does not secure access to collaboration tools and resources. While limiting connection times could potentially reduce the window of opportunity for an attack, it would not be practical for collaboration needs and does not strengthen authentication methods. The frequency of changing passwords, without the additional step of verifying the user's identity, may be less effective against sophisticated attacks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
Why is MFA important for remote teams?
How does MFA protect against common security threats?
A company is implementing multifactor authentication for their VPN access. Which of the following would be considered the BEST 'something you have' factor?
An SMS text message sent to the user's phone.
A smartphone with a biometric lock.
A security token generating one-time codes.
A password written down on a piece of paper.
Answer Description
A security token generates a pseudo-random code or has a built-in mechanism that changes the code it provides at regular intervals, which users must input for authentication. This matches the 'something you have' factor category, as it's a physical object the user must possess to gain access. SMS messages, though they can technically fall under 'something you have' since they are sent to a device you own, are not the best choice due to security concerns such as interception or SIM swapping. Passwords are 'something you know' and biometrics are 'something you are,' hence are not classified under 'something you have' for authentication factors.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different types of authentication factors?
What is a security token and how does it work?
Why are SMS messages not considered the best choice for multifactor authentication?
Wow!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.