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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A corporation is revising its guidelines that dictate the usage of its technology systems. What inclusion effectively communicates the appropriate utilization of these systems while still providing a measure of leniency for personal activity?

  • Employees may engage in reasonable levels of personal activity on technological systems as long as it does not violate any organizational guidelines and does not hinder professional responsibilities.

  • Use of organizational systems for any non-official activity is strictly prohibited to maintain a secure and professional environment.

  • Individuals are granted complete freedom to engage in personal activity utilizing organizational systems to promote a trusting environment.

  • Storage of organizational information on personal devices is forbidden, ensuring information security is upheld.

Question 2 of 20

A network administrator wants to implement an intrusion detection system that can monitor network traffic without impacting network performance or flow. Which of the following device attributes would be most suitable for this requirement?

  • Tap passive device

  • Inline passive device

  • Inline active device

  • Tap active device

Question 3 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why a network firewall alone cannot provide the same level of protection as encryption for data stored on a network file server?

  • A firewall enforces access rules for network traffic, but only encryption renders the stored data unreadable to unauthorized users, so both controls are required to protect data at rest.

  • Encryption secures data moving across the network, whereas a firewall secures all data that resides on the server's drives.

  • Neither firewalls nor encryption protect data at rest; only physical security controls such as locks and guards can do so.

  • A properly configured firewall automatically encrypts any files transmitted or stored behind it, eliminating the need for separate data-at-rest encryption.

Question 4 of 20

During an organization's security policy review meeting, it was observed that there is currently no formal policy pertaining to the acceptable use of organizational assets and network resources. As part of establishing robust security governance within the company, which of the following policies should be proposed and implemented first to address this issue?

  • Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) Policy

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Change Management Policy

  • Disaster Recovery Policy

Question 5 of 20

During an audit of the company's disaster-recovery plan, the security administrator must recommend a backup technique that consumes the smallest amount of storage while backing up only data modified since the most recent full or incremental job. Which backup type should the administrator choose?

  • Differential backup

  • Full backup

  • Incremental backup

  • Snapshot

Question 6 of 20

What is the primary role of a generator within the security architecture of a data center?

  • To serve as a primary power source during peak operation times

  • To provide backup power in the event of a main power supply failure

  • To cool down the server racks and prevent overheating

  • To regulate the distribution of power to different circuits

Question 7 of 20

Your organization requires a solution to monitor the health and security status of its endpoints. What kind of solution would you deploy to ensure centralized management and real-time alerting for potential security issues?

  • Deploy an agent-based monitoring tool on all endpoints that reports back to a central management console.

  • Use a centralized log management platform to passively analyze system logs.

  • Set up a network analyzer to capture and inspect all traffic in and out of the network.

  • Regularly schedule manual security audits of all endpoints to check for software updates and configuration issues.

Question 8 of 20

Which action best exemplifies the mitigation of a security risk within an organization's risk management strategy?

  • Acknowledging the existence of a security risk and choosing not to take corrective actions.

  • Establishing additional access controls to safeguard sensitive information.

  • Deciding to stop all activities that are associated with a high level of risk to avoid it completely.

  • Purchasing an insurance policy to transfer the risk associated with potential data breaches.

Question 9 of 20

A midsized enterprise is designing a layered network perimeter that currently includes an edge router, a stateful firewall, and internal routing and switching for user and server segments. Management wants to add a network-based intrusion prevention system (IPS) to detect and automatically block sophisticated attacks. To maximize detection accuracy while minimizing unnecessary processing overhead and latency, where in this topology should the IPS be physically installed?

  • Immediately behind the perimeter firewall, before traffic reaches any internal routers or switches.

  • Inline with the edge router so that it inspects every packet entering or leaving the organization.

  • On a core switch close to user workstations to track possible lateral movement and insider threats.

  • At the primary datacenter ingress to monitor high-bandwidth server-to-server communications.

Question 10 of 20

A company is revising its security monitoring strategies to enhance incident detection and response. Their current system is primarily manual, resulting in delayed identification and inconsistent reporting of suspicious activities. Which of the following is the BEST method to improve their incident reporting and monitoring process?

  • Expanding the in-house security team

  • Implementing real-time automated monitoring and alerting systems

  • Conducting more comprehensive employee training sessions

  • Increasing the frequency of manual security audits

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following types of disaster recovery sites is typically partially equipped with network connections and other resources, allowing a company to resume operations within a few days after a disaster, but not immediately?

  • Lukewarm site

  • Warm site

  • Hot site

  • Cold site

Question 12 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with selecting an appropriate tool for scanning the security posture of the organization’s network infrastructure. The emphasis is on identifying misconfigurations and unpatched systems. Which of the following tools should the analyst choose for the BEST results?

  • Antivirus software

  • Protocol analyzer

  • Network sniffer

  • Vulnerability scanner

Question 13 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing authentication logs and notices a high volume of failed login attempts from a single IP address. The attempts target many different user accounts, but all use a small set of common passwords like 'Password123' and 'Winter2025'. This 'low-and-slow' method appears designed to avoid individual account lockouts. Which type of password attack does this activity indicate?

  • Dictionary attack

  • Spraying

  • Rainbow table

  • Plaintext/Unencrypted

Question 14 of 20

Which physical security control is primarily used to prevent vehicles from ramming into secure areas or buildings?

  • Fencing

  • Security Guard

  • Bollards

  • Access Badge

Question 15 of 20

An IT department wants to reduce the time it takes to grant new employees access to necessary systems and applications by automating this process. Which use case of automation and scripting best addresses this need?

  • Ticket creation

  • Security groups

  • Continuous integration and testing

  • User provisioning

Question 16 of 20

A network administrator for a company that uses Cisco equipment needs to implement a centralized authentication solution. The requirements are that usernames and passwords are not configured locally on each device, and the entire authentication payload must be encrypted during transit. Which of the following protocols meets all these requirements?

  • EAP

  • TACACS+

  • Kerberos

  • RADIUS

Question 17 of 20

Which software utility assists users in generating, storing, and managing passwords for online and local services securely?

  • Encrypted storage service

  • Firewall

  • Antivirus software

  • Password manager

Question 18 of 20

A financial services company needs to ensure its critical operations can resume as quickly as possible following a catastrophic event at its primary data center. To meet a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than one hour, which type of disaster recovery site should the company implement for the highest level of availability?

  • Warm site

  • Cold site

  • Hot site

  • Lukewarm site

Question 19 of 20

Your team has deployed a new web application to a staging environment. As a security specialist, you are tasked with identifying vulnerabilities by interacting with the application as a user would, sending various types of data to see how it responds. Which testing technique does this scenario describe?

  • Dynamic analysis, which involves testing an application during its operation to find flaws that are only discoverable at runtime.

  • Static analysis, which involves reviewing an application's source code for vulnerabilities before it is compiled or run.

  • Configuration compliance scanning, which checks that the host server meets secure baseline standards.

  • Web application firewall (WAF) log review, which looks for evidence of past malicious activity.

Question 20 of 20

A security manager has placed conspicuous warning signs around the perimeter of a data center. The signs state, "No Trespassing - Violators Will Be Prosecuted." What type of security control does this action represent?

  • Compensating

  • Corrective

  • Deterrent

  • Preventive