CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization assigns security labels to both users and resources. Access decisions are based on matching these labels to ensure that users with the required security clearance can access certain resources. Which authorization model is being used?
Attribute-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
Discretionary Access Control
Answer Description
This scenario describes the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model. In MAC, access permissions are enforced by a central authority based on security labels and classifications. Users cannot alter access controls; they are determined by system policies that match user clearances with resource classifications. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows resource owners to set access permissions, Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on organizational roles, and Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) considers various user and environmental attributes for access decisions.
Ask Bash
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What are security labels in the context of Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?
How does Mandatory Access Control differ from Discretionary Access Control (DAC)?
Can Mandatory Access Control (MAC) be combined with other authorization models?
A company plans to revamp its network infrastructure to enhance the ability to centrally manage network traffic and resources while also dynamically adapting to changing business needs. Which networking approach should the company implement to gain control over traffic flow and allow for the rapid provisioning of network services?
Traditional network model with static configurations
Network function virtualization
Content delivery network
Software-defined networking
Answer Description
Software-defined networking (SDN) is the proper choice because it separates the control plane from the data plane, granting centralized management of the network. This central control facilitates fast, programmatically efficient network configuration changes, which traditional models that rely on individual device configurations cannot match. Network function virtualization focuses on optimizing network services themselves rather than providing dynamic traffic management and control, while a content delivery network is a distributed server system designed to serve content to users with high availability and high performance.
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What is Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?
How does SDN differ from traditional networking approaches?
What are the advantages of separating the control plane and data plane in SDN?
A financial services company schedules regular evaluations of its security controls to identify new vulnerabilities and ensure compliance with industry standards. What type of risk assessment are they conducting?
Recurring Risk Assessment
Ad Hoc Risk Assessment
One-Time Risk Assessment
Continuous Risk Assessment
Answer Description
A recurring risk assessment is performed at set intervals to continuously evaluate and update the organization's security measures, ensuring ongoing protection against emerging threats.
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What is the difference between a recurring risk assessment and a continuous risk assessment?
Why is a recurring risk assessment important for compliance?
How does a recurring risk assessment address new vulnerabilities?
An IT security analyst notices multiple user accounts from the administrative department are simultaneously locked out after a series of failed login attempts. What is the MOST likely indicator of malicious activity?
Legitimate users forgetting their passwords
Routine system maintenance causing accidental lockouts
A misconfiguration of account lockout policies
Password spraying attempt
Answer Description
Concurrent account lockouts following a series of failed login attempts are indicative of a password attack, potentially a password spraying attempt where an attacker uses a common password against many accounts before moving on to try a different password, to avoid account lockout thresholds. Account lockouts are a common indicator of such attacks. The other options are potential indications of malicious activity, but they are not as closely related to the scenario of multiple user accounts being locked out due to failed login attempts.
Ask Bash
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What is password spraying?
How does account lockout policy prevent attacks?
Why might multiple simultaneous user account lockouts indicate malicious activity?
A security administrator is updating the company's password policy to enhance user account security. The primary goal is to implement a control that is most effective at preventing brute-force and dictionary attacks. Which of the following policy requirements should the administrator enforce?
Prohibit users from reusing the same password across multiple internal systems.
Require a minimum password length of eight characters.
Mandate that all user passwords expire every 90 days.
Enforce complexity requirements, including mixed case, numbers, and special characters.
Answer Description
Enforcing password complexity, which requires a mix of upper-case letters, lower-case letters, numbers, and special characters, is the most effective control against brute-force and dictionary attacks. Simple passwords and password reuse make accounts vulnerable. While periodic password expiration was a common practice, modern standards from NIST advise against it unless there is evidence of compromise, as it often leads to weaker passwords.
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Why are complex passwords harder to crack?
What is a brute force attack?
How do dictionary attacks work, and why are they dangerous?
A healthcare institution recently hired you to review their security measures. You discover that they have not been monitoring access to publicly available information that could be used for social engineering attacks. Which type of reconnaissance is the institution most vulnerable to?
Active reconnaissance
Penetration testing
Active scanning
Passive reconnaissance
Answer Description
The institution is most vulnerable to passive reconnaissance. This is because passive reconnaissance involves collecting information without directly interacting with the target system, often by gathering accessible data such as company records, employee social media profiles, or public documents. This kind of information is exactly what the institution has not been monitoring, which could lead to an attacker collecting data without detection to facilitate social engineering or other types of attacks.
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What is passive reconnaissance?
How does passive reconnaissance facilitate social engineering?
What are common tools or methods used for passive reconnaissance?
What is 'blocked content' often an indicator of in the context of cybersecurity?
The process of encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access
Network congestion due to large volumes of legitimate traffic
Attempts to access or distribute restricted or malicious data
Successful exfiltration of sensitive information from a network
Answer Description
'Blocked content' generally refers to network security tools' actions to block data that violates security policies or that has been deemed malicious. This action can indicate attempts to access or deliver content that is not allowed by organizational or security policies. It's an essential part of maintaining cybersecurity as it helps prevent unauthorized access and distribution of potentially harmful data.
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Why is blocked content important in cybersecurity?
What tools are used to block malicious content in a network?
How do organizations define the security policies that block content?
After a risk assessment it is decided that security controls will be applied to a system to lower the likelihood of an incident occurring from a risk being exploited. Which risk management strategy is being used?
Mitigation
Avoidance
Transference
Acceptance
Answer Description
Risk mitigation is the process of using security controls/countermeasures in reducing risk exposure and minimizing the likelihood of an incident.
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What are security controls in risk mitigation?
How does mitigation differ from other risk management strategies like transference or avoidance?
Can mitigation fully eliminate risks?
A company's customer portal allows users to enter their usernames and passwords to access their accounts. An attacker exploits the login form by entering specially crafted input that causes the database to reveal all user credentials. What type of vulnerability is being exploited in this scenario?
Denial of service (DoS)
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
SQL injection
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
The attacker is leveraging a SQL injection vulnerability by inserting malicious SQL commands into the login form. This allows unauthorized access to the database and exposure of sensitive user credentials.
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What is SQL injection and how does it work?
How can companies protect their applications from SQL injection attacks?
How is SQL injection different from Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?
PDI
PII
PHI
PCI
Answer Description
Protected health information (PHI) is any individually identifiable health data-such as diagnoses, treatment details, or prescriptions-maintained or transmitted by a covered entity. Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, a breach involving the unsecured PHI of more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction requires the covered entity to notify the affected individuals and prominent media outlets within 60 days. Because that 500-person threshold and media-notice requirement apply specifically to PHI, the stolen data was almost certainly PHI, not general PII, payment-card data (PCI), or another category.
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What is the difference between PHI and PII?
What is the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule?
How is PHI commonly secured to prevent breaches?
A company has deployed a security appliance that passively analyzes packets traversing the perimeter network. The device compares traffic against a database of signatures and, when it detects malicious activity, sends an alert to the SOC for investigation but does not drop the packets. Which of the following BEST describes this control?
It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.
It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.
It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.
It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) passively monitors network or system traffic for malicious actions or policy violations. Its primary role is to detect suspicious behavior and generate alerts so administrators can respond. Because it does not sit inline to block or filter packets, it is classified as a detective-not preventive-control. Encryption protects data confidentiality, firewalls or IPSs block unauthorized traffic, and performance audit tools generate usage statistics rather than identify threats.
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What is the difference between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS detect malicious activities?
What are the limitations of an IDS?
Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?
Mobile site
Warm site
Hot site
Cold site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center equipped with hardware and software, configured to quickly assume operational responsibilities from a primary site in case of a disaster. This is the best option for business continuity as it enables rapid resumption of critical functions. A cold site, while being the least expensive, offers only space and utilities, requiring additional time to become operational. A warm site provides some pre-installed equipment but would still require additional time and effort to be fully operational. Therefore, a hot site offers the highest level of readiness for immediate disaster recovery.
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What are the key differences between hot, warm, and cold sites?
Why is a hot site considered the best for business continuity?
Are there any disadvantages to using a hot site?
Your organization relies on a variety of hardware components from multiple vendors to maintain its data center operations. Recently, a widespread vulnerability was discovered in the supply chain affecting a specific model of server motherboards used in your data center. What is the most effective initial action to mitigate the risk associated with this vulnerability?
Switch to a different hardware vendor not affected by the vulnerability.
Conduct an internal risk assessment to evaluate the impact of the vulnerability.
Check for and apply official security patches from the affected hardware vendor.
Train staff to recognize the signs of a compromised server that could result from this vulnerability.
Answer Description
The first and most effective action is to check for and apply security patches released by the hardware vendor. This action directly addresses the specific vulnerability in your supply chain by ensuring that the hardware is updated with the latest protection measures provided by the vendor. While alternatives like switching suppliers, performing an internal risk assessment, or conducting staff training may contribute to an overall improvement in security posture, they do not immediately address the identified vulnerability at hand.
Ask Bash
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What is a security patch and why is it important?
What is a supply chain vulnerability in the context of cybersecurity?
How does applying security patches differ from conducting a risk assessment?
What is it called when a business opts to take no action in response to a risk following an assessment?
Transfer
Accept
Avoid
Mitigate
Answer Description
When a company accepts a risk, they decide that the cost of any of the other risk treatments isn’t worth the potential loss if the risk is realized. They just accept the risk and any loss that could come with it.
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Can you explain why a company might choose to accept a risk instead of mitigating or transferring it?
How do businesses document and monitor accepted risks over time?
What is the difference between accepting and avoiding a risk?
A financial organization wishes to safeguard its email communication with encryption and also adhere to internal policies that require recovery of encrypted data in case the encryption keys are misplaced. The organization plans to engage a third party to maintain a store of private keys in a secure manner for this purpose. What is the organization intending to set up?
Appointing a key recovery agent
Storing keys with a certificate authority
Implementing whole disk encryption
Key escrow
Answer Description
The organization is intending to set up a key escrow system. A key escrow refers to a secure process where a third party holds a copy of the encryption key, which can be used to access encrypted data if the user's private key is lost or becomes inaccessible. Using a certificate authority explicitly for encryption does not imply that key escrow services are provided; a certificate authority usually authenticates identities and issues digital certificates. Designating a key recovery agent does not necessarily indicate the use of a key escrow system, as this role is meant for retrieving keys from the escrow but is not the service itself. Full-disk encryption is unrelated to key management or recovery, as it pertains to protecting data at rest and does not encompass storing or handling keys.
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What exactly is key escrow?
How is key escrow different from appointing a key recovery agent?
Why is engaging a third party important for key escrow?
In an effort to mitigate the risk of insider threats, an organization's security team has drafted a set of guidelines that require employees to report any suspicious behavior or policy violations to the security office immediately. What type of security control are these guidelines?
Directive Control
Technical Control
Physical Control
Deterrent Control
Answer Description
The guidelines requiring employees to report suspicious behavior represent a directive control. Directive controls are policies, regulations, and guidelines that mandate specific actions or behavior to ensure compliance and enhance the security posture of an organization. The focus on behavior and reporting in this scenario aligns with the intention behind directive controls to guide user actions. The other options, while plausible, do not fulfill the purpose of directing specific actions. Technical controls involve technology and devices, deterrent controls aim to discourage but don't direct specific reporting actions, and physical controls involve tangible measures to secure assets, which do not include guidelines for behavior.
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What is the role of directive controls in security?
How do directive controls differ from deterrent controls?
Why can't technical or physical controls replace directive controls?
What improvements does a VLAN offer for network security?
Physically restricts unauthorized devices from network access
Allows for session dropping in the event of an anomaly detection
Logically separates network segments
Provides layer 4 filtering (TCP/UDP)
Answer Description
A Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) provides a logical or virtual way to separate areas of a network. This means devices can physically share the same network infrastructure (e.g. using a common switch) but remain separated from each other on the network.
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How does VLAN improve security by logically separating network segments?
What are some common use cases for implementing VLANs in an organization?
What is the difference between physical network segmentation and VLAN-based segmentation?
Which process typically initiates the creation of user accounts and the assignment of access rights within a company's systems?
Maintenance
Offboarding
Onboarding
Role changes
Answer Description
Onboarding is the process that typically initiates the creation of user accounts and assignment of access rights, as it refers to the steps taken to integrate a new employee into an organization, which includes providing them with the necessary credentials and access to fulfill their roles. Offboarding is the process of removing access rights and accounts when an employee leaves the company, which is the opposite action of onboarding. Maintenance refers to ongoing system upkeep and does not directly relate to the initial account creation. Role changes may involve modification of access rights but are not responsible for the initiation of account creation.
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Why is onboarding important in the context of cybersecurity?
What is the principle of least privilege, and how does it relate to onboarding?
How does onboarding differ from offboarding in terms of security processes?
Which of the following statements BEST describes who can be a target in a social-engineering attack within an organization?
Only employees with privileged administrator rights are at risk because attackers need technical access.
Any employee, regardless of role or privilege, can be targeted because attackers exploit human psychology to gain a foothold.
Only senior executives are targeted because they approve high-value transactions.
Only new hires and contractors are targeted because they are unfamiliar with company policy.
Answer Description
Attackers exploit human psychology rather than technical vulnerabilities. Because any single compromised person can provide an entry point, every employee-regardless of role, privilege, or tenure-must be considered a potential target. Focusing defenses only on executives or privileged administrators leaves other staff vulnerable and still exposes the organization.
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Why do attackers target all employees in social engineering attacks, not just high-level executives?
What are some common techniques used in social engineering attacks?
How can organizations protect employees from falling victim to social engineering attacks?
You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?
Detective
Compensating
Preventive
Deterrent
Corrective
Answer Description
A deterrent control is a control that simply deters from taking an action. The control in no way prevents the action from being taken but is only there to persuade not to. The other choices are other types of controls that serve other purposes.
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What are the differences between a deterrent control and a preventive control?
Can a control be both deterrent and another type, like preventive?
What are compensating controls, and how are they different from deterrent controls?
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