00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

An organization assigns security labels to both users and resources. Access decisions are based on matching these labels to ensure that users with the required security clearance can access certain resources. Which authorization model is being used?

  • Attribute-Based Access Control

  • Role-Based Access Control

  • Mandatory Access Control

  • Discretionary Access Control

Question 2 of 20

A company plans to revamp its network infrastructure to enhance the ability to centrally manage network traffic and resources while also dynamically adapting to changing business needs. Which networking approach should the company implement to gain control over traffic flow and allow for the rapid provisioning of network services?

  • Traditional network model with static configurations

  • Network function virtualization

  • Content delivery network

  • Software-defined networking

Question 3 of 20

A financial services company schedules regular evaluations of its security controls to identify new vulnerabilities and ensure compliance with industry standards. What type of risk assessment are they conducting?

  • Recurring Risk Assessment

  • Ad Hoc Risk Assessment

  • One-Time Risk Assessment

  • Continuous Risk Assessment

Question 4 of 20

An IT security analyst notices multiple user accounts from the administrative department are simultaneously locked out after a series of failed login attempts. What is the MOST likely indicator of malicious activity?

  • Legitimate users forgetting their passwords

  • Routine system maintenance causing accidental lockouts

  • A misconfiguration of account lockout policies

  • Password spraying attempt

Question 5 of 20

A security administrator is updating the company's password policy to enhance user account security. The primary goal is to implement a control that is most effective at preventing brute-force and dictionary attacks. Which of the following policy requirements should the administrator enforce?

  • Prohibit users from reusing the same password across multiple internal systems.

  • Require a minimum password length of eight characters.

  • Mandate that all user passwords expire every 90 days.

  • Enforce complexity requirements, including mixed case, numbers, and special characters.

Question 6 of 20

A healthcare institution recently hired you to review their security measures. You discover that they have not been monitoring access to publicly available information that could be used for social engineering attacks. Which type of reconnaissance is the institution most vulnerable to?

  • Active reconnaissance

  • Penetration testing

  • Active scanning

  • Passive reconnaissance

Question 7 of 20

What is 'blocked content' often an indicator of in the context of cybersecurity?

  • The process of encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access

  • Network congestion due to large volumes of legitimate traffic

  • Attempts to access or distribute restricted or malicious data

  • Successful exfiltration of sensitive information from a network

Question 8 of 20

After a risk assessment it is decided that security controls will be applied to a system to lower the likelihood of an incident occurring from a risk being exploited. Which risk management strategy is being used?

  • Mitigation

  • Avoidance

  • Transference

  • Acceptance

Question 9 of 20

A company's customer portal allows users to enter their usernames and passwords to access their accounts. An attacker exploits the login form by entering specially crafted input that causes the database to reveal all user credentials. What type of vulnerability is being exploited in this scenario?

  • Denial of service (DoS)

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • SQL injection

  • Buffer overflow

Question 10 of 20

An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?

  • PDI

  • PII

  • PHI

  • PCI

Question 11 of 20

A company has deployed a security appliance that passively analyzes packets traversing the perimeter network. The device compares traffic against a database of signatures and, when it detects malicious activity, sends an alert to the SOC for investigation but does not drop the packets. Which of the following BEST describes this control?

  • It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.

  • It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.

  • It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.

  • It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.

Question 12 of 20

Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?

  • Mobile site

  • Warm site

  • Hot site

  • Cold site

Question 13 of 20

Your organization relies on a variety of hardware components from multiple vendors to maintain its data center operations. Recently, a widespread vulnerability was discovered in the supply chain affecting a specific model of server motherboards used in your data center. What is the most effective initial action to mitigate the risk associated with this vulnerability?

  • Switch to a different hardware vendor not affected by the vulnerability.

  • Conduct an internal risk assessment to evaluate the impact of the vulnerability.

  • Check for and apply official security patches from the affected hardware vendor.

  • Train staff to recognize the signs of a compromised server that could result from this vulnerability.

Question 14 of 20

What is it called when a business opts to take no action in response to a risk following an assessment?

  • Transfer

  • Accept

  • Avoid

  • Mitigate

Question 15 of 20

A financial organization wishes to safeguard its email communication with encryption and also adhere to internal policies that require recovery of encrypted data in case the encryption keys are misplaced. The organization plans to engage a third party to maintain a store of private keys in a secure manner for this purpose. What is the organization intending to set up?

  • Appointing a key recovery agent

  • Storing keys with a certificate authority

  • Implementing whole disk encryption

  • Key escrow

Question 16 of 20

In an effort to mitigate the risk of insider threats, an organization's security team has drafted a set of guidelines that require employees to report any suspicious behavior or policy violations to the security office immediately. What type of security control are these guidelines?

  • Directive Control

  • Technical Control

  • Physical Control

  • Deterrent Control

Question 17 of 20

What improvements does a VLAN offer for network security?

  • Physically restricts unauthorized devices from network access

  • Allows for session dropping in the event of an anomaly detection

  • Logically separates network segments

  • Provides layer 4 filtering (TCP/UDP)

Question 18 of 20

Which process typically initiates the creation of user accounts and the assignment of access rights within a company's systems?

  • Maintenance

  • Offboarding

  • Onboarding

  • Role changes

Question 19 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes who can be a target in a social-engineering attack within an organization?

  • Only employees with privileged administrator rights are at risk because attackers need technical access.

  • Any employee, regardless of role or privilege, can be targeted because attackers exploit human psychology to gain a foothold.

  • Only senior executives are targeted because they approve high-value transactions.

  • Only new hires and contractors are targeted because they are unfamiliar with company policy.

Question 20 of 20

You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?

  • Detective

  • Compensating

  • Preventive

  • Deterrent

  • Corrective