CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization is still using several workstations that run an operating system whose vendor ended support last year. Which of the following security concerns is MOST directly associated with continuing to operate this unsupported system?
User productivity will decrease because the OS lacks new usability features.
The system contains unpatched vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit.
The only impact is higher power and cooling costs due to outdated hardware.
The operating system will automatically disable network services when weaknesses are detected.
Answer Description
When a product reaches end-of-support, the vendor no longer supplies security patches. Any newly discovered vulnerability therefore remains permanently unpatched, leaving the system open to exploitation. This lack of patching-not power consumption, lost features, or self-protective shutdowns-is the primary security risk. Compensating controls such as network isolation can help, but they do not eliminate the root issue.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are legacy systems and why are they a concern for security?
What are unpatched vulnerabilities and how do they affect security?
What steps can organizations take to manage the risks of using legacy systems?
You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?
Keylogger
Brute force
Trojan
Ransomware
Answer Description
A brute force attack involves trying random passwords on user accounts in an attempt to gain access. If accounts are set up to auto lock after a certain number of failed login attempts this can be a sign of an attacker's attempt to brute force accounts.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a brute force attack?
How can I protect against brute force attacks?
What are some signs that a brute force attack is occurring?
Which of the following best describes controls that are designed to establish security policies, procedures, and guidelines?
Managerial Controls
Operational Controls
Physical Controls
Technical Controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls are designed to establish security policies, procedures, and guidelines within an organization. They help in the strategic alignment of security practices with business operations and in ensuring that organizational security objectives are met. They are essential for the governance of security within the company.
Technical controls, on the other hand, involve the use of technology to enforce security measures, such as firewalls and encryption. Operational controls are more about implementing and maintaining day-to-day security tasks. Physical controls include tangible measures like locks, biometrics, and surveillance systems.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of managerial controls?
How do managerial controls interact with technical and operational controls?
Why is the distinction between different types of controls important in cybersecurity?
A technology company is planning to outsource its customer data management to a third-party vendor. Before sharing any sensitive information, the company wants to ensure that the vendor is legally obligated to maintain the confidentiality of the data. Which document should the company require the vendor to sign?
SLA
MOU
NDA
MSA
Answer Description
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is specifically designed to legally bind parties to keep shared sensitive information confidential. While other agreements like Service-Level Agreements (SLA), Master Service Agreements (MSA), and Memorandums of Understanding (MOU) address different aspects of vendor relationships, the NDA focuses on confidentiality.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does NDA stand for and what is its purpose?
What is the difference between an NDA and an MSA?
When should a company use an NDA?
An organization wants to enhance server security by implementing a hardware device that can securely generate and manage cryptographic keys and offload cryptographic operations from the servers, thereby improving performance and security. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?
Hardware Security Module
Secure Enclave
Key Management System
TPM
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a dedicated hardware device designed to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys and perform cryptographic operations. By offloading these tasks from servers, HSMs improve both security and performance in enterprise environments.
A TPM is a hardware chip embedded on a computer's motherboard, primarily used to store cryptographic keys and ensure platform integrity, but it's not designed to offload cryptographic processing from servers.
A Secure Enclave is a secure area within a processor for executing sensitive code, commonly found in mobile devices; it does not function as a separate hardware device for server cryptographic operations.
A Key Management System typically refers to software solutions for managing cryptographic keys' lifecycle but does not provide hardware-based processing capabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
How does a TPM differ from an HSM?
What role does a Key Management System (KMS) play in security?
An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?
Detective control
Preventive control
Corrective control
Directive control
Answer Description
Policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors are examples of directive controls. Directive controls are designed to guide or instruct individuals or systems to ensure compliance with security requirements. They establish guidelines and expectations to influence behavior. Detective controls are intended to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents after they occur. Corrective controls focus on minimizing the impact of a security incident after it has occurred. Preventive controls aim to stop unwanted events from happening in the first place.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are examples of directive controls?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Can you provide an example of a detective control?
An organization requires immediate notification of unauthorized alterations to their financial system's executable files to maintain the integrity of its processing environment. Which implementation will best meet this requirement?
Schedule regular event log auditing to track user access and changes.
Enhance antivirus settings to perform hourly scans of financial data
Deploy a system that provides real-time alerts for modifications to sensitive files.
Configure an intrusion detection system to scan for network breaches.
Answer Description
Implementing a system that proactively monitors and reports changes to critical files in real-time aligns with the organization’s need for immediate alerts when important files have been modified. While both an intrusion detection system and an antivirus aim to protect against unauthorized activities, they are not specifically tailored for the continuous monitoring of file integrity. Event log auditing, though valuable, is more reactive and does not typically focus on detecting changes at the file level. Therefore, the selected system satisfies the necessity for rapid identification of any unauthorized file alterations.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What types of systems can provide real-time alerts for file modifications?
Why is an intrusion detection system (IDS) not sufficient for this requirement?
What is the difference between real-time file monitoring and regular event log auditing?
A former employee launches a cyber attack against their previous company, causing significant disruptions to operations. Which of the following motivations is most likely behind this attack?
Revenge
Financial gain
Philosophical beliefs
Espionage
Answer Description
Revenge is a common motivation for attacks carried out by former employees seeking to harm their previous employer for perceived wrongs.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common reasons for former employees to seek revenge against their employers?
How can companies protect themselves from revenge attacks by former employees?
What are some consequences of a revenge attack for the company involved?
A company's security team is implementing various encryption strategies to protect the organization's data at rest. If they need to ensure the confidentiality of entire drives on employees' laptops which could be easily stolen or lost, which encryption method would be most appropriate?
Database encryption
File encryption
Partition encryption
Full-disk encryption
Answer Description
Full-disk encryption is the correct choice because it encrypts the entire hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and all files. This ensures that if the laptop is lost or stolen, the data on it remains protected and inaccessible without the proper credentials or decryption key. Partition encryption would only protect specific partitions, which might leave other sensitive data exposed. File encryption is more granular and would not provide the broad protection needed for this scenario. Database encryption is intended for protecting data within databases and does not address the potential risk of entire drives being accessed through theft or loss.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is full-disk encryption and how does it work?
What are some common encryption algorithms used in full-disk encryption?
What are the advantages of full-disk encryption compared to other encryption types?
As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?
Unified Threat Management
IDS
IPS
Jump Server
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is adept at continuously monitoring network traffic for abnormal behavior and is specifically designed to alert the security team about potential threats without modifying, discarding, or preventing the flow of traffic, which aligns with the requirement in the given scenario. On the other hand, an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) not only detects but also takes action to prevent the identified threats, which could interfere with data flow. A Jump Server is a hardened and monitored device that acts as a bridging point for administrators to connect to other servers but does not perform real-time threat monitoring. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device combines several security functions into one, yet its threat detection capabilities are broader and not solely focused on network traffic monitoring.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between an IDS and IPS?
What kinds of anomalies can an IDS detect?
How does an IDS integrate with other security solutions?
Your organization requires a solution to monitor the health and security status of its endpoints. What kind of solution would you deploy to ensure centralized management and real-time alerting for potential security issues?
Set up a network analyzer to capture and inspect all traffic in and out of the network.
Regularly schedule manual security audits of all endpoints to check for software updates and configuration issues.
Deploy an agent-based monitoring tool on all endpoints that reports back to a central management console.
Use a centralized log management platform to passively analyze system logs.
Answer Description
An agent-based monitoring tool would be appropriate for this task because it can be installed on each endpoint to monitor its health and security status in real-time. These agents regularly communicate with a central management console to report on the status of the endpoint and alert security personnel if an anomaly is detected. Other answers involve manual processes, provide incomplete solutions, or are less efficient for real-time monitoring in a large enterprise environment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an agent-based monitoring tool?
How does a central management console work?
What are the advantages of real-time alerting in endpoint security?
What type of attack involves an adversary intentionally causing a system to revert to a less secure state or protocol to exploit the vulnerabilities associated with it?
Phishing
Replay attack
Buffer overflow
Downgrade attack
Answer Description
A Downgrade attack is characterized by an attacker forcing a system to use a less secure protocol or state, thereby creating opportunities to exploit known vulnerabilities of the older systems or protocols. This makes the attack successful as the older versions generally lack the security features and protections found in newer versions. The incorrect options do not define an attack where the system is forced to use less secure protocols.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of systems vulnerable to downgrade attacks?
How can organizations mitigate the risk of downgrade attacks?
What distinguishes a downgrade attack from a replay attack?
Which type of sensor is typically utilized to detect motion through emitted microwave signals that reflect off moving objects?
Infrared sensor
Microwave sensor
Pressure sensor
Ultrasonic sensor
Answer Description
A microwave sensor is used to detect motion by emitting microwave pulses and then measuring the reflection of moving objects, making it an effective motion detector. Infrared sensors detect heat signatures, ultrasonic sensors utilize sound waves, and pressure sensors respond to physical force or weight.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How do microwave sensors work for detecting motion?
What are the advantages of using microwave sensors over infrared sensors?
In what applications are microwave sensors commonly used?
A cybersecurity firm discovers that a nation-state actor has been exploiting a previously unknown flaw in a popular web browser. The exploit allows the actor to gain remote control of targeted systems. The browser vendor was unaware of the flaw and has not yet developed a patch. What type of vulnerability is being exploited?
Zero-day vulnerability
Buffer overflow
SQL injection
Race condition
Answer Description
The correct answer is a zero-day vulnerability. This term refers to a vulnerability that is actively being exploited by attackers before the software vendor is aware of it or has had an opportunity to release a patch. The name 'zero-day' signifies that the developers have had zero days to address the flaw. A buffer overflow is a specific type of memory vulnerability, which could be the underlying mechanism, but the key element in the scenario is that the flaw was unknown to the vendor. A race condition involves issues with the timing of operations. An SQL injection is a web application attack targeting databases, not a flaw within browser software itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'zero-day' mean in cybersecurity?
How do attackers find zero-day vulnerabilities?
What can organizations do to protect against zero-day exploits?
A medium-sized financial institution is looking to improve its security operations. Among the numerous improvements, the institution's IT management team is evaluating how implementing automation and orchestration could be advantageous. Which of the following would be considered a primary benefit of incorporating automation and orchestration into their security operations?
It permits individual users to set their preferences for security settings on their own devices, enhancing user satisfaction.
They enable unlimited scaling of resources without any additional cost implications.
All event logs will be stored in a centralized repository without the need for a dedicated team to manage the storage solutions.
Automation and orchestration can enforce security baselines efficiently throughout the organization.
Answer Description
The main advantage of automation and orchestration is the ability to enforce security baselines across the organization in an efficient manner. Automation allows for the rapid deployment of consistent configurations, policies, and security controls, ensuring all systems and devices adhere to the organization's security standards. This process is not only efficient but also reduces human error that may occur with manual configuration. It is thus a significant benefit for any medium-sized institution like the one described.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are security baselines?
What is the difference between automation and orchestration in security?
How does automation reduce human error in security configurations?
That's It!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.