CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A cloud administrator is deprovisioning a virtual machine (VM) that was used to process sensitive financial data. The underlying physical server hosts multiple VMs from different clients. The administrator needs to ensure that no data from the deprovisioned VM can be accessed by the next VM allocated to the same physical memory space. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be the administrator's PRIMARY concern to mitigate?
Race condition
Buffer overflow
Resource reuse
VM escape
Answer Description
The correct answer is resource reuse. This vulnerability occurs when a resource, such as a physical memory block, is not properly sanitized before being reallocated. In this scenario, remnants of the sensitive financial data could remain in memory (a concept known as data remanence) and become accessible to the next VM that uses that same memory space. VM escape is an attack where a process breaks out of a VM and interacts with the host OS, which is a different threat. Buffer overflow and race conditions are application-level vulnerabilities and are not the primary concern related to sanitizing shared hardware after deprovisioning a VM.
Ask Bash
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What is data remanence?
What techniques can be used to sanitize memory to mitigate resource reuse vulnerabilities?
How does VM escape differ from resource reuse as a vulnerability?
A security analyst is reviewing intrusion detection system logs and must correlate them with recorded network traffic to determine the scope of a suspected breach. Which of the following data will be MOST useful for matching the IDS alert timestamps to the captured traffic?
Application error messages captured by the system's event logs
Device configuration settings from the network management system
User account changes logged in the authentication server records
Traffic flow metadata collected from network devices such as switches and routers
Answer Description
Traffic-flow metadata-such as timestamps, source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers-directly aligns network conversations with IDS alert times, making it the most effective data set for correlation. Logs of user account changes, device configuration files, and application error messages provide context but do not map cleanly to specific network sessions, so they are less helpful for time-based traffic correlation.
Ask Bash
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What is traffic flow metadata?
How does traffic flow metadata help correlate IDS alerts?
Why are user account changes or application error logs less useful in this scenario?
An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?
Phishing attempt
Brute force attack
Port scanning
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Brute force attack'. This type of activity suggests an attempt to guess the password by systematically trying numerous possible combinations. A brute force attack often generates many failed login attempts in a short time frame, which would be recorded by an IDS. An IDS is designed to detect this kind of anomalous behavior and raise alerts accordingly. 'Port scanning' involves probing a server for open ports and does not necessarily result in multiple failed login attempts and would not typically generate an IDS alert for this behavior. 'DDoS attack' and 'Phishing attempt' are also incorrect because although they are security threats, they generally do not result in repeated failed logins on a server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the role of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
How does a brute force attack work?
How does an IDS differentiate brute force attacks from other threats like port scanning?
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing the data lifecycle within their organization's financial systems. The analyst is focusing on securing sensitive data, such as credit card numbers and transaction details, at the moment it is being actively processed by an application in the system's RAM and CPU. Which data state is the analyst currently examining?
Data in transit
Data in use
Data at rest
Encrypted data
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Data in use'. Data in use refers to information that is actively being processed or manipulated by an application, which includes being loaded into system memory (RAM) or processed by the CPU. 'Data at rest' describes data that is stored on a physical medium like a hard drive or database and is not currently being accessed. 'Data in transit' refers to data that is moving across a network. 'Encrypted data' is not a data state itself but a security control that can be applied to data in any of the three states (at rest, in transit, or in use).
Ask Bash
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Why is 'Data in use' considered different from 'Data at rest' and 'Data in transit'?
How is 'encrypted data' related to the three data states?
What security risks are associated with 'Data in use'?
Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?
To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program
To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices
To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation
To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage
Answer Description
Governance committees (often called security or cybersecurity steering committees) exist to set the information-security strategy, approve or endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight and guidance to ensure the program aligns with business objectives and risk appetite. They do not perform hands-on technical work such as configuring devices, staffing the SOC, or running vulnerability scans; those tasks belong to operational teams.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of a security or risk committee in an organization's governance framework?
Why doesn't a security or risk committee handle technical tasks like vulnerability scans?
How does a security or risk committee align their responsibilities with an organization's risk appetite?
What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?
Reviewing security logs
Installing antivirus software
Modifying access control lists
Deploying security patches
Answer Description
Reviewing security logs is a key part of security monitoring. It allows security professionals to track events that have occurred within the network. Monitoring these logs helps to identify any unauthorized actions, security incidents, or policy violations. Other options listed do not directly correspond to the activity of identifying unauthorized actions through monitoring.
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Why are security logs important for monitoring unauthorized actions?
What tools are commonly used to review and analyze security logs?
What is the difference between security log monitoring and real-time threat detection?
A security analyst has just finished applying patches to a critical server to address several vulnerabilities discovered during a recent scan. What is the most important next step the analyst should take to validate the remediation efforts?
Perform a follow-up vulnerability scan on the server.
Review the server's event logs for new error messages.
Document the applied patches in the change management system.
Reboot the server to ensure all patches are fully applied.
Answer Description
The correct action is to perform a follow-up vulnerability scan. Rescanning is an essential step to verify that the applied patches have successfully remediated the identified vulnerabilities and to ensure that no new vulnerabilities were introduced in the process. Reviewing event logs, rebooting the server, and documenting the changes are all plausible activities, but they do not directly validate that the security flaw has been eliminated. Documentation is a procedural step, and rebooting is part of the patching process itself, not the validation phase.
Ask Bash
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Why is a follow-up vulnerability scan necessary after patching?
What is the difference between patching and validation?
Can a vulnerability scan detect all potential security risks on a server?
Your company’s network is configured to always check authentication/authorization each time a user tries to access data. The company is using which security model?
Zero trust
Extranet
VLAN
Intranet
Answer Description
The zero trust security model works on the basis of “never trust, always verify.” Devices and users on the network are always required to be authenticated even if they were previously.
Ask Bash
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What does 'Zero Trust' mean in cybersecurity?
How does Zero Trust differ from traditional network security?
What technologies are used to implement Zero Trust?
A system administrator has been notified that an audit has found certain files containing proprietary source code to be accessible by all employees through a shared network drive. The source code should only be accessible to members of the development team. To align with best practices for permissions management, which of the following actions should the system administrator implement FIRST to remediate this issue?
Disable the shared network drive until a full user account review can be performed
Initiate a company-wide training on the importance of data confidentiality
Modify the permissions on the files to restrict access solely to the development team
Set up an alert system to monitor file access patterns and flag any unauthorized attempts
Answer Description
The first and most effective action to address the issue is to modify the permissions on the files to ensure that only the development team has access. This alteration directly addresses the problem identified during the audit by enforcing proper access controls, thereby preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information. Disabling the shared network drive would remove access for the authorized development team and is not a precise method of access control. Performing a user account review may surface additional issues but will not rectify the immediate concern of unauthorized access to the proprietary source code. Monitoring the file access patterns is a reactive approach and would not prevent further unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
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Why is modifying permissions the first step in securing sensitive files?
What is the principle of least privilege and how does it apply here?
What tools or methods can be used to modify file permissions effectively?
A group of attackers targets a corporation's network because they disagree with its environmental practices. Which motivation best describes their actions?
Philosophical/political beliefs
Financial gain
Blackmail
Data exfiltration
Answer Description
The attackers are driven by their ideological differences with the corporation's environmental practices. This is a case of philosophical or political beliefs motivating cyber attacks. They are not seeking financial gain, engaging in blackmail, or attempting to steal data.
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What is the difference between ideological hacking and financially motivated hacking?
What are some other examples of attacks driven by philosophical or political beliefs?
What strategies can organizations use to protect against ideologically motivated cyber attacks?
A financial company utilizes a public cloud provider to store transactional data. Which method should the company implement to ensure the protection of this highly sensitive data while adhering to compliance with industry regulations for data at rest?
Tokenization
Data Masking
Hashing
Data Obfuscation
Answer Description
Tokenization is the appropriate method to secure sensitive data at rest, especially for financial transaction data which can contain credit card numbers or personal identification information. By replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive placeholders, tokenization allows the company to handle payment information without exposing actual sensitive data, thus maintaining compliance with industry regulations like PCI DSS. On the other hand, masking and obfuscation may hide data but still could leave it vulnerable to unauthorized access, and hashing, while useful for integrity checks, is not reversible and thus not suitable for data that needs to be retrieved in its original form.
Ask Bash
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What is tokenization and why is it used for securing data?
How does tokenization differ from encryption?
Why are data masking and hashing not suitable for protecting sensitive data at rest?
Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?
Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.
In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.
The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.
The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.
Answer Description
Under the shared-responsibility model, duties move up the stack as you transition from IaaS to SaaS:
- IaaS: The customer controls and secures the guest OS and anything above it, including the application code.
- PaaS: The provider secures the underlying OS and runtime, but the customer still secures any applications they develop and deploy on the platform.
- SaaS: The provider operates and patches the application itself, while the customer focuses on data protection, identity, and configuration. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that responsibility varies by service model: the customer handles the application layer in IaaS and usually in PaaS, whereas the provider handles it in SaaS.
Ask Bash
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What is the shared-responsibility model in cloud computing?
What does the customer secure in the IaaS service model?
How does responsibility differ between PaaS and SaaS in the shared-responsibility model?
The network administrator at a small organization prefers to allow resource owners to personally assign and revoke access permissions to files on a network share. Which access control model should they implement to accommodate individual control by resource owners?
Discretionary Access Control
Rule-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Answer Description
The network administrator's preference is indicative of the Discretionary Access Control (DAC) model, where resource owners have the freedom to provide or restrict access to other users at their discretion. While Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) autonomously assigns permissions based on the user's role and does not cater to individual resource owner preferences, it is not the best fit for the scenario described. Similarly, Rule-Based Access Control typically works alongside other mechanisms, applying rules (like time-of-day restrictions) that do not relate to individual owner discretion. The Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model enforces access decisions made by a central authority based on security labels, not by individual resource owners, and is thus also not suitable for this situation.
Ask Bash
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What is Discretionary Access Control (DAC)?
How does DAC compare to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
What are potential vulnerabilities of Discretionary Access Control?
A company has a policy to repurpose its storage devices internally before considering disposal. When preparing storage devices that were used for sensitive projects for repurposing within a less critical department, which measure should be employed to minimize the risk of data exposure?
Conduct a secure erasure conforming to a stipulated industry standard for data sanitization.
Degauss the drives to disrupt the magnetic field and render the data unreadable.
Reformat the drives using the quick format option to prepare for immediate reuse.
Perform a standard antivirus scan to ensure the absence of malware.
Answer Description
The correct measure when repurposing storage devices that previously contained sensitive data is to conduct a secure erasure process that adheres to industry standards (e.g., NIST SP 800-88), ensuring that the data recovery is not possible without extraordinary measures. Degaussing is also a method to sanitize data, but it's suitable for magnetic drives only and might not be practicable for solid-state drives (SSDs). Reformatting the drive is not secure enough, as most standard formatting procedures leave data recoverable. Running a standard antivirus scan, although important for detecting and removing malware, does not address the need to prevent data recovery from the storage device.
Ask Bash
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What is NIST SP 800-88?
Why isn't reformatting a drive secure enough for data sanitization?
What is degaussing, and why isn't it effective for all storage devices?
Malicious activity has been affecting various systems on your network. You want to put a system in place that can monitor network traffic and attempt to take defensive action when network intrusions are detected. Which of the following should you use?
HIDS
HIPS
NIPS
NIDS
Answer Description
A network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is the only one of the choices that you can place to monitor your entire network for intrusions while at the same time attempting to prevent the intrusion. HIPS and HIDS are only for a single host, while NIDS will only detect an intrusion.
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What is the difference between NIPS and NIDS?
How does HIPS differ from HIDS?
What are the key deployment scenarios for NIPS?
Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should manage security risk associated with a third-party vendor after the contract has been signed?
Perform the due-diligence review only at onboarding; reassess the vendor again only if a security incident occurs.
Rely solely on service-level agreements and accept residual risk without further monitoring.
Delegate all risk monitoring to the vendor's internal audit function and review their reports annually without independent verification.
Conduct an initial due-diligence review, then implement ongoing monitoring and periodic reassessments throughout the relationship.
Answer Description
Effective third-party risk management does not end with the onboarding due-diligence review. Organizations should establish continuous monitoring and schedule periodic reassessments so that new threats, regulatory changes, or changes in the vendor's security posture are detected and addressed in a timely manner. Simply relying on the initial review, contractual service-level agreements, or the vendor's own internal audits without independent follow-up can leave significant gaps in risk coverage.
Ask Bash
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Why is ongoing monitoring of third-party vendors important?
What are some examples of periodic reassessment activities?
What is a service-level agreement (SLA), and why is it not sufficient on its own for risk monitoring?
A systems administrator is implementing a new authentication policy that requires users to provide their password and a six-digit code from a hardware token. Which of the following security concepts does this scenario BEST describe?
Biometric authentication
Single sign-on
Multifactor authentication
Authorization
Answer Description
The correct option is multifactor authentication (MFA). MFA enhances security by requiring two or more different authentication factors to verify a user's identity. In this scenario, the password is 'something you know', and the hardware token is 'something you have'. Combining these two factors from different categories fulfills the requirement for MFA. Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme that allows a user to log in with a single set of credentials to access multiple applications. Biometric authentication uses unique physical characteristics like fingerprints or facial scans ('something you are'). Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to resources after a user has been successfully authenticated.
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What are the three main factors used in multifactor authentication?
How does MFA differ from single sign-on (SSO)?
What are common types of hardware tokens used in MFA?
An IT staff member is tasked with the day-to-day management of information assets, including implementing backup and recovery procedures and maintaining security controls, but does not have authority to make policy decisions regarding the data. What role does this staff member hold in the organization?
Data Processor
Data Custodian
Data Controller
Data Owner
Answer Description
The IT staff member in this scenario is fulfilling the role of a Data Custodian. Data Custodians are responsible for the technical management and operations of data assets, ensuring that data is properly backed up, secured, and maintained. They implement the policies and controls specified by Data Owners but do not set or decide on those policies themselves.
A Data Owner is typically a senior individual who has authority over and accountability for a specific set of data, making decisions about data classification, access permissions, and policy decisions.
A Data Controller is an entity or individual that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data, often in the context of privacy laws, which is not directly relevant to the described duties.
A Data Processor is an entity that processes data on behalf of a Data Controller, but again, this role is more about processing activities rather than managing and maintaining data assets.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary role of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from a Data Custodian?
What is the distinction between Data Controllers and Data Custodians?
An organization is preparing a compliance report that will be submitted to both internal stakeholders and an independent regulatory body. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to ensure that the report satisfies the requirements of both parties?
Limit the report to internal risk assessment findings without addressing regulatory compliance standards.
Focus solely on external compliance mandates without detailing the internal governance mechanisms.
Include evidence of alignment with regulatory compliance standards and internal policies and procedures.
Summarize only the internal auditing procedures followed during the reporting period.
Answer Description
When preparing a report that will be submitted to both internal stakeholders and an independent regulatory body, it is crucial to include evidence of alignment with regulatory compliance standards, as well as internal policies and procedures. This ensures that the report demonstrates adherence to external legal and compliance mandates, while also confirming that internal governance is in line with organizational objectives and practices. Incorrect answers may be plausible, but they do not fully satisfy the dual requirement of adherence to internal policies and external regulations.
Ask Bash
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What are regulatory compliance standards?
Why is internal policy alignment important in compliance reports?
What key evidence should be included in a compliance report?
During an audit, inspectors discovered that maintenance personnel without the required security clearance were routinely allowed into a secure data center. Which security control should be strengthened to prevent this unauthorized entry?
Intrusion detection systems
Access controls
Security awareness training
Firewalls
Answer Description
Access controls restrict entry to resources-whether a room, system, or dataset-to authorized subjects only. Because the breach involved unvetted staff walking into a sensitive area, the root cause is weak or missing door or identity-verification mechanisms. Strengthening access controls (for example, badge readers, biometric locks, or enforced approval lists) would ensure that only individuals with proper clearance may enter. Firewalls and intrusion detection systems protect logical network traffic, and security awareness training targets user behavior; none of those directly block physical entry to the data center.
Ask Bash
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What are access controls and how do they work?
What is the difference between firewalls and access controls?
How do biometric locks improve physical security in access controls?
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