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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A cloud administrator is deprovisioning a virtual machine (VM) that was used to process sensitive financial data. The underlying physical server hosts multiple VMs from different clients. The administrator needs to ensure that no data from the deprovisioned VM can be accessed by the next VM allocated to the same physical memory space. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be the administrator's PRIMARY concern to mitigate?

  • Race condition

  • Buffer overflow

  • Resource reuse

  • VM escape

Question 2 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing intrusion detection system logs and must correlate them with recorded network traffic to determine the scope of a suspected breach. Which of the following data will be MOST useful for matching the IDS alert timestamps to the captured traffic?

  • Application error messages captured by the system's event logs

  • Device configuration settings from the network management system

  • User account changes logged in the authentication server records

  • Traffic flow metadata collected from network devices such as switches and routers

Question 3 of 20

An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?

  • Phishing attempt

  • Brute force attack

  • Port scanning

  • Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

Question 4 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing the data lifecycle within their organization's financial systems. The analyst is focusing on securing sensitive data, such as credit card numbers and transaction details, at the moment it is being actively processed by an application in the system's RAM and CPU. Which data state is the analyst currently examining?

  • Data in transit

  • Data in use

  • Data at rest

  • Encrypted data

Question 5 of 20

Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?

  • To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program

  • To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices

  • To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation

  • To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage

Question 6 of 20

What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?

  • Reviewing security logs

  • Installing antivirus software

  • Modifying access control lists

  • Deploying security patches

Question 7 of 20

A security analyst has just finished applying patches to a critical server to address several vulnerabilities discovered during a recent scan. What is the most important next step the analyst should take to validate the remediation efforts?

  • Perform a follow-up vulnerability scan on the server.

  • Review the server's event logs for new error messages.

  • Document the applied patches in the change management system.

  • Reboot the server to ensure all patches are fully applied.

Question 8 of 20

Your company’s network is configured to always check authentication/authorization each time a user tries to access data. The company is using which security model?

  • Zero trust

  • Extranet

  • VLAN

  • Intranet

Question 9 of 20

A system administrator has been notified that an audit has found certain files containing proprietary source code to be accessible by all employees through a shared network drive. The source code should only be accessible to members of the development team. To align with best practices for permissions management, which of the following actions should the system administrator implement FIRST to remediate this issue?

  • Disable the shared network drive until a full user account review can be performed

  • Initiate a company-wide training on the importance of data confidentiality

  • Modify the permissions on the files to restrict access solely to the development team

  • Set up an alert system to monitor file access patterns and flag any unauthorized attempts

Question 10 of 20

A group of attackers targets a corporation's network because they disagree with its environmental practices. Which motivation best describes their actions?

  • Philosophical/political beliefs

  • Financial gain

  • Blackmail

  • Data exfiltration

Question 11 of 20

A financial company utilizes a public cloud provider to store transactional data. Which method should the company implement to ensure the protection of this highly sensitive data while adhering to compliance with industry regulations for data at rest?

  • Tokenization

  • Data Masking

  • Hashing

  • Data Obfuscation

Question 12 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?

  • Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.

  • In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.

  • The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.

  • The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.

Question 13 of 20

The network administrator at a small organization prefers to allow resource owners to personally assign and revoke access permissions to files on a network share. Which access control model should they implement to accommodate individual control by resource owners?

  • Discretionary Access Control

  • Rule-Based Access Control

  • Mandatory Access Control

  • Role-Based Access Control

Question 14 of 20

A company has a policy to repurpose its storage devices internally before considering disposal. When preparing storage devices that were used for sensitive projects for repurposing within a less critical department, which measure should be employed to minimize the risk of data exposure?

  • Conduct a secure erasure conforming to a stipulated industry standard for data sanitization.

  • Degauss the drives to disrupt the magnetic field and render the data unreadable.

  • Reformat the drives using the quick format option to prepare for immediate reuse.

  • Perform a standard antivirus scan to ensure the absence of malware.

Question 15 of 20

Malicious activity has been affecting various systems on your network. You want to put a system in place that can monitor network traffic and attempt to take defensive action when network intrusions are detected. Which of the following should you use?

  • HIDS

  • HIPS

  • NIPS

  • NIDS

Question 16 of 20

Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should manage security risk associated with a third-party vendor after the contract has been signed?

  • Perform the due-diligence review only at onboarding; reassess the vendor again only if a security incident occurs.

  • Rely solely on service-level agreements and accept residual risk without further monitoring.

  • Delegate all risk monitoring to the vendor's internal audit function and review their reports annually without independent verification.

  • Conduct an initial due-diligence review, then implement ongoing monitoring and periodic reassessments throughout the relationship.

Question 17 of 20

A systems administrator is implementing a new authentication policy that requires users to provide their password and a six-digit code from a hardware token. Which of the following security concepts does this scenario BEST describe?

  • Biometric authentication

  • Single sign-on

  • Multifactor authentication

  • Authorization

Question 18 of 20

An IT staff member is tasked with the day-to-day management of information assets, including implementing backup and recovery procedures and maintaining security controls, but does not have authority to make policy decisions regarding the data. What role does this staff member hold in the organization?

  • Data Processor

  • Data Custodian

  • Data Controller

  • Data Owner

Question 19 of 20

An organization is preparing a compliance report that will be submitted to both internal stakeholders and an independent regulatory body. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to ensure that the report satisfies the requirements of both parties?

  • Limit the report to internal risk assessment findings without addressing regulatory compliance standards.

  • Focus solely on external compliance mandates without detailing the internal governance mechanisms.

  • Include evidence of alignment with regulatory compliance standards and internal policies and procedures.

  • Summarize only the internal auditing procedures followed during the reporting period.

Question 20 of 20

During an audit, inspectors discovered that maintenance personnel without the required security clearance were routinely allowed into a secure data center. Which security control should be strengthened to prevent this unauthorized entry?

  • Intrusion detection systems

  • Access controls

  • Security awareness training

  • Firewalls