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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Your organization is reviewing its vulnerability management process and requires a method to routinely identify new and unaddressed vulnerabilities on its network devices, servers, and workstations. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this?

  • Implementing an enterprise-level firewall with advanced threat detection capabilities

  • Subscribing to threat feeds that include intelligence on the latest security risks

  • Conducting regular vulnerability scanning

  • Performing annual penetration testing

Question 2 of 15

Data stored on a SAN and not being processed is in which state?

  • Data in transit

  • Data in motion

  • Data in use

  • Data at rest

Question 3 of 15

Your company is deploying a proxy server to centralize and control internet traffic for improved monitoring and access control. Which of the following scenarios best describes a security benefit of implementing this proxy server?

  • Automating the encryption of sensitive files stored on the server

  • Filtering out malicious web traffic

  • Increasing the network speed by compressing data

  • Providing a platform for hosting the company's internal chat application

Question 4 of 15

In a Zero Trust security model, what is the primary role of a Policy Engine?

  • It logs all policy approvals to the SIEM for auditing.

  • It evaluates access requests against security policies and returns allow or deny decisions.

  • It acts as the primary user authentication mechanism.

  • It routes data packets between subnets in the network.

Question 5 of 15

An organization needs to prevent unauthorized external access to its internal network but still allow employees to access external resources necessary for their work. Which security technology should the organization implement to best achieve this goal?

  • Deploy an intrusion detection system to monitor network activities for suspicious behavior.

  • Implement a firewall to control and filter network traffic based on security rules.

  • Use encryption to secure sensitive data transmitted over the network.

  • Install physical access controls to restrict entry to the organization's facilities.

Question 6 of 15

A security manager observes that the organization's IT environment and external threat-intelligence feeds have shown no significant changes during the past six months. Several executives propose skipping the annual tabletop exercise and document review for the incident response plan. Which of the following is the MOST compelling reason to proceed with the scheduled review and update?

  • Because the environment is static, proactive changes are unnecessary until after a major breach takes place.

  • Regular reviews uncover otherwise hidden weaknesses and allow the plan to be improved before an actual incident occurs.

  • Skipping the review conserves budget and staff time for higher-priority projects.

  • Regulatory and contractual obligations may require documented evidence of regular plan maintenance.

Question 7 of 15

A network scan of a public-facing server reveals that several ports are open. A system administrator confirms that one of these ports is not required for any of the server's intended applications or services. What is the primary security risk associated with this unnecessary open port?

  • It will cause immediate data exfiltration from the server's primary application.

  • It prevents legitimate users from accessing the server's intended services.

  • It increases the attack surface, providing an additional entry point for potential exploits or unauthorized access attempts.

  • It consumes a significant amount of CPU and memory resources, degrading server performance.

Question 8 of 15

A company is assessing various options to enhance the security of their facility and data center. Which of the following would serve as the best deterrent control to discourage trespassers from entering the secured premises of the data center?

  • Deploying mantraps at the primary entrance to the data center

  • Implementing badge readers at all points of entrance and exit

  • Installing highly visible security cameras around the perimeter and entry points

  • Erecting security awareness posters regarding tailgating in employee areas

Question 9 of 15

A cybersecurity analyst has been notified of an active exploitation of a critical vulnerability within the organization's public facing web application. Which of the following incident response steps should the analyst perform FIRST?

  • Conduct a lessons learned meeting to review the incident response process.

  • Initiate the recovery process to restore systems to normal operation.

  • Isolate the affected systems to prevent potential spread.

  • Inform senior management and other relevant stakeholders about the incident.

Question 10 of 15

A company is drafting its initial set of IT security documents. Among them, there is a need to establish a document that offers general advice and recommended practices for users to follow when dealing with company IT resources. Which type of security document should the company develop to fulfill this requirement?

  • Procedures

  • Policies

  • Standards

  • Guidelines

Question 11 of 15

What is the primary function of SELinux in a Linux environment?

  • It optimizes the Linux kernel for better performance on enterprise servers.

  • It enforces mandatory access controls to provide an additional layer of security.

  • It provides a graphical user interface for managing firewall rules in Linux.

  • It is a tool for scanning and removing malware from a Linux system.

Question 12 of 15

Geolocation restrictions can be employed to protect data in transit by blocking unauthorized access attempts based on the user's geographic location.

  • This statement is correct

  • This statement is incorrect

Question 13 of 15

A network administrator is deploying an inline intrusion prevention system (IPS). Security policy dictates that if the IPS software crashes or the appliance loses power, no traffic may bypass inspection. Which of the following failure modes should the administrator configure on the IPS to satisfy this requirement?

  • Fail-closed

  • Fail-open

  • Fail-safe

  • Failover

Question 14 of 15

A company's network was infiltrated by an attacker who used sophisticated techniques to bypass advanced security measures. The attacker was well-funded and had advanced capabilities. Sensitive data was exfiltrated over an extended period without detection. Which type of threat actor is most likely responsible for this attack?

  • Hacktivist

  • Nation-State Actor

  • Unskilled Attacker

  • Insider Threat

Question 15 of 15

As the lead security analyst at a financial institution, you have been tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of the implemented security controls. During the audit, you need to verify that access control policies are correctly enforced and that there are no deviations from the standard configurations across all servers. Which of the following audit practices would be the MOST effective for this purpose?

  • Conducting a configuration audit

  • Executing a financial audit

  • Undertaking an operational audit

  • Performing a performance audit