CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
As a security administrator, you have implemented a new company policy to review firewall logs daily. During one review, you notice numerous login attempts from foreign IP addresses taking place outside of business hours. Based on this information, which of the following actions should be prioritized to enhance network security?
Conduct an additional security-awareness training session focusing on foreign cyber threats
Update the firmware on the firewall to the latest version
Configure account lockout thresholds to prevent brute-force attacks
Review the latest operating-system patches for all company servers
Answer Description
Although several measures could improve the organization's overall security posture, the activity in the logs indicates a likely brute-force or credential-stuffing attack against user accounts. Establishing appropriate account lockout thresholds restricts the number of consecutive failed authentication attempts, effectively limiting an attacker's ability to guess valid credentials. Routine tasks such as updating firewall firmware and applying operating-system patches improve resilience against known vulnerabilities but do not directly curtail the observed login attempts. Additional user security-awareness training is valuable but likewise does nothing to stop automated, external password-guessing activity. Therefore, configuring and enforcing account lockout thresholds is the most immediate and relevant mitigation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are account lockout thresholds?
What constitutes a brute-force attack?
How do I know if a foreign IP address is a threat?
A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?
Nation-state
Insider threat
Hacktivist
Organized crime
Answer Description
The correct answer is Hacktivist. Hacktivists are often motivated by philosophical or political beliefs, which lead them to target organizations or governments that they perceive as acting against their values or agendas. The nature of these attacks, including website defacements and public message spreads, are typical of hacktivist groups that aim to broadcast a political message or to create awareness about their cause. The other options listed do not align as closely with the details given.
Ask Bash
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What motivates hacktivists to carry out cyber-attacks?
What are some common tactics used by hacktivists?
How do hacktivists differ from other threat actors like organized crime and nation-states?
During an incident response, your team has detected a compromised system that is a part of the network. Which of the following actions is the BEST initial containment strategy to minimize the spread of an attack while preserving the state of the system for further investigation?
Applying all missing patches to the affected system
Rebooting the system to remove the attack components
Isolating the affected system from the network
Changing all user passwords immediately
Answer Description
Isolating the affected system or segment of the network is the best initial containment strategy. It helps to prevent the spread of an attack while allowing the investigation to proceed with minimal interference. Changing access control lists could impact normal operations and may not effectively contain the incident. Rebooting the system could potentially destroy volatile evidence. Applying patches, while important, does not address immediate containment and may alter the state of the system, complicating any ongoing investigation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is isolating the affected system the best initial strategy?
What are some other containment strategies besides isolation?
What risks are associated with rebooting a compromised system?
Which type of procedure is specifically designed to ensure consistent and safe handling of changes to an IT environment?
Onboarding Procedure
Access Control Standard
Playbook for Incident Response
Change Management Procedure
Answer Description
A Change Management Procedure is vital for controlling the lifecycle of all changes, enabling beneficial changes to be made with minimal disruption to IT services. It is a formal process used to ensure that changes to a product or system are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner. This is opposed to other procedures mentioned which do not deal directly with the process of change.
Ask Bash
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What are the key steps in a Change Management Procedure?
What are the benefits of having a Change Management Procedure in place?
How does Change Management differ from Incident Response?
A junior administrator suggests configuring the company's patch management system to automatically deploy all security patches to production systems immediately upon release from vendors. They argue this will minimize the window of exposure to new threats. Which of the following is the BEST reason to advise against this policy?
Untested patches can introduce new bugs, cause system instability, or create conflicts with existing software, potentially leading to operational downtime.
Applying patches immediately consumes excessive network bandwidth during business hours.
Vendors often release faulty patches and recall them within the first 24 hours.
Automatic patching prevents security teams from properly documenting the changes in the system.
Answer Description
The correct answer highlights the primary risk of deploying patches without prior evaluation. Untested patches can introduce new bugs, create software or hardware incompatibilities, and cause system instability, which may lead to significant operational disruptions and downtime. While other concerns like bandwidth consumption, patch documentation, and occasional vendor recalls are valid, the direct risk of causing system failures is the most critical reason for testing patches in a non-production environment before a full rollout.
Ask Bash
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What are potential issues with applying patches immediately after release?
What is the importance of testing patches before deployment?
What are some best practices for patch management?
A security analyst is reviewing the company's disaster recovery plan (DRP). The analyst notes that the DRP focuses heavily on restoring critical business functions but lacks a comprehensive inventory of IT hardware, software, and data assets. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this omission?
Recovery will be faster as teams can focus on broad functions rather than being slowed down by the details of specific assets.
Recovery efforts may be delayed and incomplete because there is no detailed inventory to guide prioritization and restoration.
The lack of an inventory primarily represents a financial risk for insurance claims but does not affect the technical recovery process.
The DRP's effectiveness is not impacted, as the primary goal of restoring business functions makes a specific asset inventory redundant.
Answer Description
A detailed and current asset inventory is a foundational component of an effective disaster recovery plan. Without it, an organization cannot accurately prioritize which systems to restore first, understand dependencies between assets, or ensure that all necessary components are recovered. This leads to inefficient and delayed recovery efforts, potentially preventing the organization from meeting its Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). The inventory is essential for knowing what needs to be restored to bring critical business functions back online.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is having a detailed asset inventory crucial for disaster recovery?
What types of information should be included in an asset inventory?
How does an asset inventory help in risk assessment and management?
A systems administrator is implementing a new authentication policy that requires users to provide their password and a six-digit code from a hardware token. Which of the following security concepts does this scenario BEST describe?
Biometric authentication
Single sign-on
Authorization
Multifactor authentication
Answer Description
The correct option is multifactor authentication (MFA). MFA enhances security by requiring two or more different authentication factors to verify a user's identity. In this scenario, the password is 'something you know', and the hardware token is 'something you have'. Combining these two factors from different categories fulfills the requirement for MFA. Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme that allows a user to log in with a single set of credentials to access multiple applications. Biometric authentication uses unique physical characteristics like fingerprints or facial scans ('something you are'). Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to resources after a user has been successfully authenticated.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of security tokens used in multifactor authentication?
Why is multifactor authentication (MFA) important for security?
How does a security token work in conjunction with other authentication methods?
You are working as a cybersecurity analyst for a 3rd party contractor. You have been brought in by an organization who believes they were hacked by a malicious actor. Their internal security team has hired you to determine the impact of the unauthorized access. At the time of the intrusion there were 5 servers online: DEV_APP_001, PRD_APP_002, PRD_DB_008, STG_DB_004 and FINANCE_009. What step should you take to begin the analysis?
Begin analyzing each server after prioritizing them based on the data stored on each server
Begin hardening all servers immediately before the impact analysis starts
Create a snapshot backup and then reformat each server
Create a new server running Kali Linux and make necessary firewall changes to allow it to access all the listed servers
Answer Description
You are hired to do an analysis on the systems to determine the impact of a malicious actor. Hardening and wiping the servers is outside of the scope of this analysis, but may be a recommended next step based on your findings. The logical step is to determine which servers are the most critical based on the data hosted on them, and begin analyzing them one-by-one in order of most important/critical data.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean to prioritize servers based on data importance?
What is the role of a cybersecurity analyst in an incident response?
Why is hardening servers not the first step in impact analysis?
An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?
Warm site
Reciprocal site
Hot site
Cold site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped backup facility that is operational and ready to activate immediately after a disaster. It maintains up-to-date copies of data, hardware, and software, allowing an organization to resume normal operations rapidly. Warm sites are partially equipped and require additional time to become fully functional, while cold sites have only the basic infrastructure and need significant time to set up equipment and restore data.
Ask Bash
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What are the advantages of having a hot site compared to warm and cold sites?
How does a hot site maintain up-to-date data?
What are some typical use cases for implementing a hot site?
An organization intends to deploy an appliance capable of enhancing its telecommuting capabilities. The device must be adept at managing a large number of secure, authenticated connections, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality. Which network appliance should be implemented to meet these demands most efficiently?
Remote Access Server (RAS)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Content Filtering Appliance
Load Balancer
Answer Description
A Remote Access Server (RAS) is specifically designed to handle a significant number of secure, authenticated connections, which typically involve telecommuting scenarios. It provides a centralized solution for remote workers to access the corporate network, offering encryption and authentication to maintain data integrity and confidentiality. Despite being capable of various security functions, an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS) primarily focuses on identifying and mitigating potential threats and breaches, rather than facilitating remote access. A Load Balancer excels at distributing networking or application traffic across multiple servers but does not inherently provide connectivity solutions for remote workers. 'Content Filtering Appliance' might seem like a viable option because it implies data protection, but it serves a different role — typically screening incoming web content for malware or policy violations — rather than enabling secure remote access.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Remote Access Server (RAS) and how does it work?
What is the difference between a Remote Access Server (RAS) and an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)?
Can load balancers be used for remote access?
In a Zero Trust model, which component focuses on making decisions about who or what is allowed to connect to which resources, based upon adherence to the enterprise's security policies?
Control Plane
Data Plane
Security Plane
Access Plane
Answer Description
The Control Plane component is responsible for making decisions about access to resources based upon security policies in a Zero Trust model. It acts as a gatekeeper, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized entities can access networked resources.
Ask Bash
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What are the main principles of a Zero Trust model?
What is the difference between the Control Plane and Data Plane?
What role do security policies play in a Zero Trust model?
The company you work for has recently received several support complaints from customers who have received suspicious emails asking for personal information. These emails have the company's logo and formatting but are coming from an unusual email domain. What kind of threat is most likely occurring?
Insider threat
SQL Injection attack
Man-in-the-middle attack
Brand impersonation attack
Answer Description
Brand impersonation involves mimicking the official brand to deceive people into providing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. In this scenario, the use of the company's logo and formatting in emails from an unfamiliar domain indicates an attempt to pose as the company, which is characteristic of a brand impersonation attack.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is brand impersonation and how does it work?
How can one identify a brand impersonation email?
What are the potential consequences of a brand impersonation attack?
An IT security team has implemented fake files in the organization's network to deceive and trap potential attackers. These resources appear operational and contain seemingly valuable data but are monitored closely for interaction to detect malicious activity. Which of the following best describes these fake resources?
Honeynet
Honeytoken
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Honeypot
Answer Description
The correct answer is Honeytoken. Honeytokens are decoy data, such as fake files or credentials, used to detect data breaches or unauthorized access. Unlike honeypots, which are decoy systems, or honeynets, which are entire decoy networks, honeytokens are specific pieces of data. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a tool used to monitor a network for malicious activity, and it might be used to monitor a honeytoken, but it is not the decoy itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between Honeytokens, Honeypots, and Honeynets?
How are Honeytokens monitored for interaction?
What are the benefits of using Honeytokens in cybersecurity?
Which of the following attributes is MOST commonly associated with cyberattacks initiated by organized crime groups?
High level of resources and sophisticated capabilities
Primarily focuses on service disruption without financial motivations
Acts based primarily on philosophical or political beliefs
Low technical capacity and limited financial backing
Answer Description
The correct answer is that organized crime groups are known for their high level of resources and sophisticated capabilities. These groups are typically well-funded and deploy a range of technical and human resources to carry out complex attacks, often with a primary motivation of financial gain. The other options are incorrect. Acting based on philosophical or political beliefs is characteristic of hacktivists. Focusing on service disruption without financial motives can also be a trait of hacktivists. Low technical capacity and limited financial backing are attributes of an unskilled attacker, not a sophisticated organized crime group.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are organized crime groups in the context of cyberattacks?
What distinguishes cyberattacks by organized crime from those by hacktivists?
How do organized crime groups maintain their level of sophistication in cyberattacks?
Which of the following ensures that an individual or entity cannot deny having performed a particular action related to data?
Digital signatures
Audit logs
Usernames
Time stamps
Answer Description
Digital signatures provide non-repudiation because they use cryptographic techniques to prove the origin and integrity of a message, document, or transaction. Once a digital signature is attached, the signer cannot credibly deny signing the document or message, because the digital signature is unique to both the signer and the document. Audit logs, while useful for tracking activities, do not tie an action irrefutably to an initiator. Time stamps indicate when an action took place but do not necessarily tie that action to an individual. Usernames can be repudiated as they can sometimes be shared or stolen, whereas a digital signature is secured and much harder to forge or repudiate.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are digital signatures and how do they work?
What are the differences between audit logs and digital signatures?
How does non-repudiation enhance security in communication?
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