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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

As a security administrator, you have implemented a new company policy to review firewall logs daily. During one review, you notice numerous login attempts from foreign IP addresses taking place outside of business hours. Based on this information, which of the following actions should be prioritized to enhance network security?

  • Conduct an additional security-awareness training session focusing on foreign cyber threats

  • Update the firmware on the firewall to the latest version

  • Configure account lockout thresholds to prevent brute-force attacks

  • Review the latest operating-system patches for all company servers

Question 2 of 15

A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?

  • Nation-state

  • Insider threat

  • Hacktivist

  • Organized crime

Question 3 of 15

During an incident response, your team has detected a compromised system that is a part of the network. Which of the following actions is the BEST initial containment strategy to minimize the spread of an attack while preserving the state of the system for further investigation?

  • Applying all missing patches to the affected system

  • Rebooting the system to remove the attack components

  • Isolating the affected system from the network

  • Changing all user passwords immediately

Question 4 of 15

Which type of procedure is specifically designed to ensure consistent and safe handling of changes to an IT environment?

  • Onboarding Procedure

  • Access Control Standard

  • Playbook for Incident Response

  • Change Management Procedure

Question 5 of 15

A junior administrator suggests configuring the company's patch management system to automatically deploy all security patches to production systems immediately upon release from vendors. They argue this will minimize the window of exposure to new threats. Which of the following is the BEST reason to advise against this policy?

  • Untested patches can introduce new bugs, cause system instability, or create conflicts with existing software, potentially leading to operational downtime.

  • Applying patches immediately consumes excessive network bandwidth during business hours.

  • Vendors often release faulty patches and recall them within the first 24 hours.

  • Automatic patching prevents security teams from properly documenting the changes in the system.

Question 6 of 15

A security analyst is reviewing the company's disaster recovery plan (DRP). The analyst notes that the DRP focuses heavily on restoring critical business functions but lacks a comprehensive inventory of IT hardware, software, and data assets. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this omission?

  • Recovery will be faster as teams can focus on broad functions rather than being slowed down by the details of specific assets.

  • Recovery efforts may be delayed and incomplete because there is no detailed inventory to guide prioritization and restoration.

  • The lack of an inventory primarily represents a financial risk for insurance claims but does not affect the technical recovery process.

  • The DRP's effectiveness is not impacted, as the primary goal of restoring business functions makes a specific asset inventory redundant.

Question 7 of 15

A systems administrator is implementing a new authentication policy that requires users to provide their password and a six-digit code from a hardware token. Which of the following security concepts does this scenario BEST describe?

  • Biometric authentication

  • Single sign-on

  • Authorization

  • Multifactor authentication

Question 8 of 15

You are working as a cybersecurity analyst for a 3rd party contractor. You have been brought in by an organization who believes they were hacked by a malicious actor. Their internal security team has hired you to determine the impact of the unauthorized access. At the time of the intrusion there were 5 servers online: DEV_APP_001, PRD_APP_002, PRD_DB_008, STG_DB_004 and FINANCE_009. What step should you take to begin the analysis?

  • Begin analyzing each server after prioritizing them based on the data stored on each server

  • Begin hardening all servers immediately before the impact analysis starts

  • Create a snapshot backup and then reformat each server

  • Create a new server running Kali Linux and make necessary firewall changes to allow it to access all the listed servers

Question 9 of 15

An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?

  • Warm site

  • Reciprocal site

  • Hot site

  • Cold site

Question 10 of 15

An organization intends to deploy an appliance capable of enhancing its telecommuting capabilities. The device must be adept at managing a large number of secure, authenticated connections, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality. Which network appliance should be implemented to meet these demands most efficiently?

  • Remote Access Server (RAS)

  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)

  • Content Filtering Appliance

  • Load Balancer

Question 11 of 15

In a Zero Trust model, which component focuses on making decisions about who or what is allowed to connect to which resources, based upon adherence to the enterprise's security policies?

  • Control Plane

  • Data Plane

  • Security Plane

  • Access Plane

Question 12 of 15

The company you work for has recently received several support complaints from customers who have received suspicious emails asking for personal information. These emails have the company's logo and formatting but are coming from an unusual email domain. What kind of threat is most likely occurring?

  • Insider threat

  • SQL Injection attack

  • Man-in-the-middle attack

  • Brand impersonation attack

Question 13 of 15

An IT security team has implemented fake files in the organization's network to deceive and trap potential attackers. These resources appear operational and contain seemingly valuable data but are monitored closely for interaction to detect malicious activity. Which of the following best describes these fake resources?

  • Honeynet

  • Honeytoken

  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Honeypot

Question 14 of 15

Which of the following attributes is MOST commonly associated with cyberattacks initiated by organized crime groups?

  • High level of resources and sophisticated capabilities

  • Primarily focuses on service disruption without financial motivations

  • Acts based primarily on philosophical or political beliefs

  • Low technical capacity and limited financial backing

Question 15 of 15

Which of the following ensures that an individual or entity cannot deny having performed a particular action related to data?

  • Digital signatures

  • Audit logs

  • Usernames

  • Time stamps