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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which solution is employed to collect and analyze security-related data from various hardware and software sources in order to identify unusual patterns and alert on potential security incidents?

  • Unified Threat Management (UTM)

  • Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

  • Automated Vulnerability Scanning tool

  • Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

Question 2 of 20

A company is experiencing compliance issues due to inconsistent application of security settings across its servers. To address this, management has decided to implement secure baselines for all server configurations. What is the MOST effective action to ensure all servers adhere to the established secure baseline?

  • Provide training for IT staff on the importance of secure server configurations.

  • Deploy configuration management tools to ensure secure settings.

  • Establish regularly scheduled security updates for all servers.

  • Conduct manual reviews of server configurations on a quarterly basis.

Question 3 of 20

An organization is reviewing its security policies to better protect against unauthorized access to employee accounts. Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation strategy to prevent a brute force attack on user passwords?

  • Implementing strong password policies that require complex passwords

  • Enabling account lockouts after a specified number of failed login attempts

  • Monitoring for unauthorized access attempts on user accounts

  • Disabling unused accounts

Question 4 of 20

Which mitigation technique is used to protect sensitive data by converting it into a coded form that is unreadable to unauthorized users?

  • Digital Signature

  • Hashing

  • Tokenization

  • Encryption

Question 5 of 20

A medium-sized financial institution is looking to improve its security operations. Among the numerous improvements, the institution's IT management team is evaluating how implementing automation and orchestration could be advantageous. Which of the following would be considered a primary benefit of incorporating automation and orchestration into their security operations?

  • It permits individual users to set their preferences for security settings on their own devices, enhancing user satisfaction.

  • All event logs will be stored in a centralized repository without the need for a dedicated team to manage the storage solutions.

  • They enable unlimited scaling of resources without any additional cost implications.

  • Automation and orchestration can enforce security baselines efficiently throughout the organization.

Question 6 of 20

An organization wants to ensure its systems are protected against known security vulnerabilities promptly while maintaining operational stability. Which of the following approaches would BEST achieve this objective?

  • Implement an automated testing and deployment process for software fixes

  • Schedule annual security assessments to identify vulnerabilities

  • Restrict user permissions to prevent unauthorized software changes

  • Discontinue the use of software that requires frequent updates

Question 7 of 20

Which of the options below is typically advisory and not mandatory to adhere to?

  • Policy

  • Procedure

  • Standard

  • Guideline

Question 8 of 20

An administrator needs to securely access and manage servers located in an isolated, high-security network segment. To minimize the attack surface, direct administrative access from the general corporate network is prohibited. Which of the following should be used to provide a controlled and monitored entry point for this purpose?

  • Jump server

  • Load balancer

  • Proxy server

  • VPN concentrator

Question 9 of 20

Which containment technique would be the best response when a system is believed to be infected with malware?

  • Immediately segment the network into the smallest possible groups

  • Propagation

  • Isolate the affected systems

  • Determine the attack vector and disable it

Question 10 of 20

Your company is revising its security strategy to better protect its network against cyber threats. As a security analyst, you have been tasked with selecting appropriate controls that would actively identify and log security breaches in real-time. Which type of control should you implement to fulfill this requirement?

  • Warning signs

  • Security awareness training

  • Firewalls

  • Intrusion detection systems

Question 11 of 20

In an organization's risk management framework, when might an exemption be most appropriately granted?

  • Whenever a key stakeholder dislikes the constraints imposed by a certain policy or standard

  • When there is insufficient budget to implement any security measures and all risks need to be accepted

  • As a habitual practice for lower-priority systems to minimize the effort spent on security

  • When compliance with a security policy or control is either not feasible or not cost-effective relative to the reduction in risk it would bring

Question 12 of 20

What is the primary purpose of using questionnaires in third-party risk assessment and management?

  • To systematically collect security-related information from third-party vendors

  • To legally bind the third-party vendors to a contract

  • To evaluate the financial stability of the third-party vendors

  • To conduct penetration testing on the vendor's systems

Question 13 of 20

Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?

  • To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.

  • To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.

  • To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.

  • To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.

Question 14 of 20

A company is seeking to enhance its security posture by ensuring consistent enforcement and adherence to its established security policies and regulations. Which of the following methods is the BEST approach to achieve continuous compliance monitoring?

  • Establishing regular feedback loops with employees to discuss potential improvements to compliance policies.

  • Increasing the frequency of compliance training for employees to reinforce policy awareness.

  • Conducting periodic manual checks to ensure policies and procedures are being followed.

  • Implementing automated compliance monitoring tools that provide real-time alerts and scheduled compliance reports.

Question 15 of 20

An administrator must ensure that nonessential employees cannot establish a VPN session to the corporate network outside of normal business hours (09:00-17:00 local time). Which access control model should the administrator configure to BEST enforce this requirement?

  • Role-based access control

  • Mandatory access control

  • Rule-based access control

  • Discretionary access control

Question 16 of 20

A company is looking to protect its customers' credit card information within its database while still using the data for transactional processes. Which method ensures the original data cannot be derived from the information stored in the database without access to a separate mapping system?

  • Tokenization

  • One-way Hashing

  • Format-Preserving Encryption

  • Data Masking with Fixed Mask Characters

Question 17 of 20

As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?

  • IDS

  • Jump Server

  • IPS

  • Unified Threat Management

Question 18 of 20

Which type of threat actor is most likely to attack an organization's IT infrastructure for ideological reasons, such as to promote political change or to draw attention to social issues?

  • Nation-state

  • Unskilled attacker

  • Hacktivist

  • Insider threat

Question 19 of 20

An organization operates multiple offices that frequently communicate sensitive information to the central office. Management wants to ensure that the transmitted data remains confidential and unaltered during transfer. What is the BEST implementation to achieve this goal?

  • Implementing an encrypted communications channel between the offices

  • Using context-aware network access solutions to determine connectivity

  • Strengthening endpoint authentication mechanisms at each office

  • Deploying traffic optimization appliances across the network

Question 20 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing intrusion detection system logs and must correlate them with recorded network traffic to determine the scope of a suspected breach. Which of the following data will be MOST useful for matching the IDS alert timestamps to the captured traffic?

  • User account changes logged in the authentication server records

  • Device configuration settings from the network management system

  • Application error messages captured by the system's event logs

  • Traffic flow metadata collected from network devices such as switches and routers