CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which solution is employed to collect and analyze security-related data from various hardware and software sources in order to identify unusual patterns and alert on potential security incidents?
Unified Threat Management (UTM)
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
Automated Vulnerability Scanning tool
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Answer Description
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) is the solution that aggregates data from different sources across an organization's network to provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. It helps in identifying suspicious activities that could indicate a security incident and assists with incident response, making it a critical security tool within an organization.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main purpose of a SIEM solution?
How does a SIEM differ from an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
What are some key features to look for in a SIEM solution?
A company is experiencing compliance issues due to inconsistent application of security settings across its servers. To address this, management has decided to implement secure baselines for all server configurations. What is the MOST effective action to ensure all servers adhere to the established secure baseline?
Provide training for IT staff on the importance of secure server configurations.
Deploy configuration management tools to ensure secure settings.
Establish regularly scheduled security updates for all servers.
Conduct manual reviews of server configurations on a quarterly basis.
Answer Description
Deploying configuration management tools allows the company to automate the enforcement of secure baselines across all servers. This ensures that the secure settings are applied consistently, and any deviations are automatically corrected. Manual review, while important, is not as effective or efficient for ensuring consistency across a large number of servers. Providing training to IT staff is useful for awareness but does not guarantee consistent application or enforcement of the secure baselines. Regularly scheduled security updates are critical for maintaining server security but do not ensure that all security settings align with the secure baseline.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a configuration management tool?
Why are secure baselines important for servers?
How do configuration management tools handle configuration drift?
An organization is reviewing its security policies to better protect against unauthorized access to employee accounts. Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation strategy to prevent a brute force attack on user passwords?
Implementing strong password policies that require complex passwords
Enabling account lockouts after a specified number of failed login attempts
Monitoring for unauthorized access attempts on user accounts
Disabling unused accounts
Answer Description
Account lockouts are an effective mitigation strategy against brute force attacks because they prevent unlimited, rapid guessing of passwords by locking the account after a certain number of failed login attempts. This drastically reduces the attacker's ability to systematically try all possible password combinations, thus safeguarding against brute force attacks. While all other options can enhance security, they do not specifically address the prevention of brute force attacks on passwords as directly as account lockouts do. Strong password policies make it more difficult for brute force attacks to succeed but do not stop attempts. Monitoring for unauthorized access can detect an ongoing attack but may not prevent it. Disabling unused accounts helps reduce the attack surface but does not directly prevent a brute force attack on active accounts.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a brute force attack?
How do account lockouts protect against brute force attacks?
Why are strong password policies not sufficient to stop brute force attacks?
Which mitigation technique is used to protect sensitive data by converting it into a coded form that is unreadable to unauthorized users?
Digital Signature
Hashing
Tokenization
Encryption
Answer Description
Encryption is a process that encodes sensitive information so that only authorized parties can access it. When data is encrypted, it is converted into ciphertext, which appears random and meaningless. This makes it an effective mitigation technique against a variety of threats, such as data eavesdropping or theft. Hashing, being a one-way function, is designed for verifying the integrity of data and is not meant for encrypting or securing data itself. Tokenization substitutes sensitive data with non-sensitive equivalents, which does not entail converting data into a coded form. Hence, it is not the correct answer in the context of data encoding for protection.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between encryption and hashing?
What are the main types of encryption used to secure data?
How is encryption used to protect data during transmission?
A medium-sized financial institution is looking to improve its security operations. Among the numerous improvements, the institution's IT management team is evaluating how implementing automation and orchestration could be advantageous. Which of the following would be considered a primary benefit of incorporating automation and orchestration into their security operations?
It permits individual users to set their preferences for security settings on their own devices, enhancing user satisfaction.
All event logs will be stored in a centralized repository without the need for a dedicated team to manage the storage solutions.
They enable unlimited scaling of resources without any additional cost implications.
Automation and orchestration can enforce security baselines efficiently throughout the organization.
Answer Description
The main advantage of automation and orchestration is the ability to enforce security baselines across the organization in an efficient manner. Automation allows for the rapid deployment of consistent configurations, policies, and security controls, ensuring all systems and devices adhere to the organization's security standards. This process is not only efficient but also reduces human error that may occur with manual configuration. It is thus a significant benefit for any medium-sized institution like the one described.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between automation and orchestration in security operations?
What are security baselines, and why are they important?
How does automation reduce human error in security operations?
An organization wants to ensure its systems are protected against known security vulnerabilities promptly while maintaining operational stability. Which of the following approaches would BEST achieve this objective?
Implement an automated testing and deployment process for software fixes
Schedule annual security assessments to identify vulnerabilities
Restrict user permissions to prevent unauthorized software changes
Discontinue the use of software that requires frequent updates
Answer Description
Implementing an automated testing and deployment process for software fixes ensures that updates are applied promptly after being validated, reducing the window of exposure to known vulnerabilities while minimizing disruptions to operations. Scheduling annual security assessments is important but too infrequent to address vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Discontinuing the use of software that requires frequent updates is impractical and may hinder business functions. Restricting user permissions enhances security but does not directly address the prompt application of fixes to known vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is automated testing and deployment for software fixes?
Why is scheduling annual security assessments insufficient for addressing vulnerabilities?
Why isn't discontinuing frequently updated software a good solution?
Which of the options below is typically advisory and not mandatory to adhere to?
Policy
Procedure
Standard
Guideline
Answer Description
A guideline is considered a recommendation/best practice and is not considered mandatory to follow.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a guideline and a policy?
How does a guideline differ from a procedure?
Why are guidelines important in security frameworks?
An administrator needs to securely access and manage servers located in an isolated, high-security network segment. To minimize the attack surface, direct administrative access from the general corporate network is prohibited. Which of the following should be used to provide a controlled and monitored entry point for this purpose?
Jump server
Load balancer
Proxy server
VPN concentrator
Answer Description
A jump server, also known as a jump host or bastion host, is a hardened server that acts as a secure intermediary and single point of entry for administrators to connect to other devices in a separate security zone. This approach centralizes access control and monitoring.
A proxy server primarily acts as an intermediary for user requests to other servers (like web servers), but it is not specifically designed for administrative access sessions. A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers to improve availability and performance but does not serve as a secure administrative gateway. A VPN concentrator is used to establish secure, encrypted tunnels for remote access, but it typically provides broader network-level access rather than the specific, audited host-to-host administrative access that a jump server provides.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a jump server and how does it provide secure access?
Why is a VPN concentrator not suitable for controlling administrative access?
How does a jump server differ from a proxy server in function?
Which containment technique would be the best response when a system is believed to be infected with malware?
Immediately segment the network into the smallest possible groups
Propagation
Isolate the affected systems
Determine the attack vector and disable it
Answer Description
Containment techniques are options for limiting the spread of malware after it has been discovered on a network. The best response is to isolate any systems that are infected or believed to be infected so they cannot propagate the malware to other systems. From the security and IT teams can begin determining the impact and remediation options.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is isolating the affected systems considered the best containment method for malware?
What steps should be taken after a system is isolated due to suspected malware?
How does malware propagation work, and why is it important to prevent it early?
Your company is revising its security strategy to better protect its network against cyber threats. As a security analyst, you have been tasked with selecting appropriate controls that would actively identify and log security breaches in real-time. Which type of control should you implement to fulfill this requirement?
Warning signs
Security awareness training
Firewalls
Intrusion detection systems
Answer Description
Detective controls are designed to identify and record incidents as they occur, which helps in analyzing and understanding the threats that the organization faces. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are a specific example of a detective control which monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and security breaches in real-time.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What are detective controls and how do they differ from preventive controls?
What’s the difference between IDS and IPS?
In an organization's risk management framework, when might an exemption be most appropriately granted?
Whenever a key stakeholder dislikes the constraints imposed by a certain policy or standard
When there is insufficient budget to implement any security measures and all risks need to be accepted
As a habitual practice for lower-priority systems to minimize the effort spent on security
When compliance with a security policy or control is either not feasible or not cost-effective relative to the reduction in risk it would bring
Answer Description
An exemption is appropriately granted when adherence to a specific security policy or control would not be feasible, such as when it would interfere with operational requirements or when the associated cost far outweighs the benefit. It is not a means to avoid implementing security measures altogether but a considered decision that requires approval by the appropriate level of management. The approval process must include an understanding of the potential risks and agreement that such risks are acceptable. This distinguishes exemptions from other risk strategies, like mitigation where risks are reduced, or transference where risks are shared.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between an exemption and risk acceptance in risk management?
What operational scenarios might make granting an exemption appropriate?
What approval process is typically required for exemptions in risk management?
What is the primary purpose of using questionnaires in third-party risk assessment and management?
To systematically collect security-related information from third-party vendors
To legally bind the third-party vendors to a contract
To evaluate the financial stability of the third-party vendors
To conduct penetration testing on the vendor's systems
Answer Description
Questionnaires are used to collect specific information about the security practices and policies of third-party vendors to assess their risk level. They are a structured form of inquiry enabling the organization to gather necessary details systematically to inform their risk analysis and make informed decisions regarding the engagement with the vendor.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What kind of information is typically collected in third-party risk assessment questionnaires?
How do organizations use the responses from third-party risk assessment questionnaires?
What happens if a vendor has inadequate security policies identified during a questionnaire review?
Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?
To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.
To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.
To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.
To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.
Answer Description
Regular self-assessments allow an organization to measure and analyze the effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance of its security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements. This proactive approach serves to identify gaps or weaknesses before they can be exploited, providing an opportunity for improvements and risk mitigation strategies to be implemented. Assessments focused only on technology do not capture the full scope of security governance, and limiting assessments to after an incident occurs would not provide the proactive benefits of regular, preemptive analysis and adjustments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is security governance important for an organization?
What are some examples of internal standards and regulatory requirements in security governance?
What are the main components of a regular self-assessment in security governance?
A company is seeking to enhance its security posture by ensuring consistent enforcement and adherence to its established security policies and regulations. Which of the following methods is the BEST approach to achieve continuous compliance monitoring?
Establishing regular feedback loops with employees to discuss potential improvements to compliance policies.
Increasing the frequency of compliance training for employees to reinforce policy awareness.
Conducting periodic manual checks to ensure policies and procedures are being followed.
Implementing automated compliance monitoring tools that provide real-time alerts and scheduled compliance reports.
Answer Description
Automated compliance monitoring tools provide a continuous and objective means of enforcing and verifying compliance with security policies and regulations. They can offer real-time alerts and reports, thus enabling the security team to act swiftly on non-compliant issues. While all options could play a role in compliance monitoring, automated tools are specifically designed to provide ongoing assurance of compliance and therefore are the best choice for continuous monitoring. Manual compliance checks, though important, are more intermittent and subject to human error. Training enhances the awareness of compliance requirements but does not monitor compliance itself. Feedback loops aid in adjusting policies but do not conduct the actual monitoring.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are automated compliance monitoring tools?
How do automated tools differ from manual compliance checks?
What are some key features to look for in compliance monitoring tools?
An administrator must ensure that nonessential employees cannot establish a VPN session to the corporate network outside of normal business hours (09:00-17:00 local time). Which access control model should the administrator configure to BEST enforce this requirement?
Role-based access control
Mandatory access control
Rule-based access control
Discretionary access control
Answer Description
Rule-based access control relies on administrator-defined rules that the system evaluates whenever a user requests access. A common rule condition is the current time, allowing the administrator to permit VPN connections only between 09:00 and 17:00 and automatically block attempts made outside that window.
Role-based access control groups permissions by job function, but it does not inherently evaluate environmental factors such as time. Mandatory access control enforces access decisions through centrally assigned security labels, and discretionary access control leaves permission settings to the resource owner. None of these models offers a straightforward way to enforce a time-of-day policy, making rule-based access control the best fit for this scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does Rule-Based Access Control enforce time restrictions?
What is the main difference between Rule-Based and Role-Based Access Control?
Can Rule-Based Access Control be combined with other models?
A company is looking to protect its customers' credit card information within its database while still using the data for transactional processes. Which method ensures the original data cannot be derived from the information stored in the database without access to a separate mapping system?
Tokenization
One-way Hashing
Format-Preserving Encryption
Data Masking with Fixed Mask Characters
Answer Description
Tokenization transforms sensitive data into a token, which is a unique identifier that has no meaningful value outside of the tokenization system. Unlike encryption that can be reversed with the decryption key, tokenized data requires access to the original mapping in the tokenization system to convert it back, ensuring enhanced security by preventing reverse-engineering of the tokens if the database is compromised. In the case of protecting credit card information, tokenization is ideal because the tokens can be used for transactional processes without exposing actual credit card numbers.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does tokenization differ from encryption?
What are common use cases for tokenization in data security?
Can tokenization be integrated with compliance standards like PCI DSS?
As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?
IDS
Jump Server
IPS
Unified Threat Management
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is adept at continuously monitoring network traffic for abnormal behavior and is specifically designed to alert the security team about potential threats without modifying, discarding, or preventing the flow of traffic, which aligns with the requirement in the given scenario. On the other hand, an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) not only detects but also takes action to prevent the identified threats, which could interfere with data flow. A Jump Server is a hardened and monitored device that acts as a bridging point for administrators to connect to other servers but does not perform real-time threat monitoring. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device combines several security functions into one, yet its threat detection capabilities are broader and not solely focused on network traffic monitoring.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS detect anomalies in network traffic?
Where is the best place to position an IDS within a network?
Which type of threat actor is most likely to attack an organization's IT infrastructure for ideological reasons, such as to promote political change or to draw attention to social issues?
Nation-state
Unskilled attacker
Hacktivist
Insider threat
Answer Description
A hacktivist is typically motivated by philosophical or political beliefs and may perpetrate attacks to promote political change or to advance social issues. This contrasts with other types of threat actors, like nation-state actors who might engage in espionage, or organized crime groups who are usually motivated by financial gain.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What methods might hacktivists use to attack an organization?
How do hacktivists differ from nation-state threat actors?
What are some real-world examples of hacktivist groups or attacks?
An organization operates multiple offices that frequently communicate sensitive information to the central office. Management wants to ensure that the transmitted data remains confidential and unaltered during transfer. What is the BEST implementation to achieve this goal?
Implementing an encrypted communications channel between the offices
Using context-aware network access solutions to determine connectivity
Strengthening endpoint authentication mechanisms at each office
Deploying traffic optimization appliances across the network
Answer Description
Implementing an encrypted communications channel is crucial for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data being transferred between offices. This channel uses cryptographic protocols to secure the data against eavesdropping and tampering. While context-aware network access solutions provide a holistic security framework for access decisions, they focus more on user and device authentication rather than data transit security. Traffic optimization appliances help distribute network traffic efficiently but do not inherently provide encryption for data in transit. Endpoint authentication mechanisms are important for verifying device identities but do not protect data as it traverses the network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does an encrypted communications channel do?
What is the difference between encryption and endpoint authentication?
How does SSL/TLS differ from IPSec?
A security analyst is reviewing intrusion detection system logs and must correlate them with recorded network traffic to determine the scope of a suspected breach. Which of the following data will be MOST useful for matching the IDS alert timestamps to the captured traffic?
User account changes logged in the authentication server records
Device configuration settings from the network management system
Application error messages captured by the system's event logs
Traffic flow metadata collected from network devices such as switches and routers
Answer Description
Traffic-flow metadata-such as timestamps, source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers-directly aligns network conversations with IDS alert times, making it the most effective data set for correlation. Logs of user account changes, device configuration files, and application error messages provide context but do not map cleanly to specific network sessions, so they are less helpful for time-based traffic correlation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is traffic flow metadata?
How does traffic flow metadata help correlate IDS alerts?
Why are user account changes or application error logs less useful in this scenario?
Gnarly!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.