00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Crucial Technologies is creating an incident response capability. During which phase of the incident response process are the incident response team and their roles and responsibilities established?

  • Detection and analysis

  • Containment

  • Preparation

  • Recovery

Question 2 of 20

An organization needs to ensure the integrity and authenticity of its software by proving the software has not been tampered with after release. Which type of certificate should be used to sign the software digitally before distribution?

  • Email certificate

  • Root certificate

  • Self-Signed certificate

  • Code Signing certificate

Question 3 of 20

What can an organization implement when a vulnerability cannot be patched immediately, to mitigate the risk while maintaining business functionality?

  • Encryption

  • Threat intelligence

  • Penetration testing

  • Compensating controls

Question 4 of 20

You are selecting a biometrics system for your company. You want to make sure you select a system that is going to be the most accurate choice. What calculation would you use to compare the different systems?

  • CER

  • Efficacy rates

  • FAR

  • FRR

Question 5 of 20

Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?

  • Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.

  • Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.

  • Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.

  • Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL Injections

Question 6 of 20

An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?

  • PII

  • PHI

  • PDI

  • PCI

Question 7 of 20

An organization with a low risk tolerance but high risk appetite is likely to engage in aggressive growth strategies while accepting significant potential losses.

  • True

  • False

Question 8 of 20

An organization wants to enhance server security by implementing a hardware device that can securely generate and manage cryptographic keys and offload cryptographic operations from the servers, thereby improving performance and security. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

  • Hardware Security Module

  • TPM

  • Secure Enclave

  • Key Management System

Question 9 of 20

Which access control model assigns permissions to roles or security groups that reflect specific job functions, and then assigns users to those roles instead of granting permissions directly to each user?

  • ABAC

  • RBAC

  • RuBAC

Question 10 of 20

A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?

  • Circuit-level gateway

  • Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

  • Stateful inspection firewall

  • Stateless packet-filtering firewall

Question 11 of 20

A pharmaceutical company stores its proprietary drug formulas, which are considered trade secrets, on an internal file server. A security analyst is tasked with protecting this sensitive data from disclosure, even if an attacker or an unauthorized employee gains access to the server itself. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective at achieving this specific goal?

  • Isolating the server on its own network segment

  • Encrypting the files containing the formulas

  • Implementing strict access control lists (ACLs) on the file share

  • Placing the server in a locked data center with biometric access

Question 12 of 20

Which operational control involves identifying, containing, and recovering from security incidents?

  • Access controls

  • Change management

  • Incident response

Question 13 of 20

The administrative (native) VLAN on a switch should be left as VLAN 1 for security best practices.

  • False

  • True

Question 14 of 20

A domain's DNS includes the record 'v=spf1 -all', suggesting that emails can originate from any mail server, and thus, messages should be assumed legitimate regardless of the originating mail server.

  • False

  • True

Question 15 of 20

A company's proprietary application is critical for daily operations, but it runs on an operating system that no longer receives vendor updates. The company's IT team is currently unable to upgrade the system or migrate the application due to compatibility issues. What is the most effective risk mitigation strategy the IT team should implement to secure the legacy system against potential threats?

  • Implement network segmentation and restrict the system's network connectivity to essential services

  • Increase security monitoring specifically targeting the unsupported system to detect anomalies

  • Conduct regular security audits on the system to ensure compliance with security policies

  • Encourage users to employ stronger passwords for system access

Question 16 of 20

What is the main function of Group Policy within a Windows domain environment?

  • Remote installation and configuration of software applications across all domain-joined desktops

  • Centralized management and configuration of users' settings and security policies

  • Monitoring real-time performance data for servers within a domain

  • Synchronization of user files across different devices within the domain

Question 17 of 20

During a security audit, an administrator needs to ensure that only company-approved laptops can connect to the office's wired switches. Which network technology should be configured on each switch port so a user or device must successfully authenticate before any LAN or WLAN traffic is permitted?

  • Deploy a next-generation firewall module in each switch to filter traffic at Layer 7.

  • Create IPSec VPN tunnels between endpoints and the core router for secure connectivity.

  • Enable WPA3 encryption on the wired interfaces to secure all transmitted data.

  • Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch ports to require credentials before granting access.

Question 18 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing the physical security controls for a new data center. To protect the main entrance from vehicle-based threats, the analyst recommends installing bollards. Which type of security control do bollards primarily represent?

  • Detective

  • Corrective

  • Compensating

  • Preventive

Question 19 of 20

During a regular security scan of the network you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs you find that they all accessed a industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted for this malware. What type of attack would best describe this theory?

  • Watering hole

  • Spoofing

  • SYN Flood

  • SQL injection

Question 20 of 20

What defines the term 'reputational damage' when considering the consequences of non-compliance with security policies and regulations?

  • An ethical violation that occurs due to an organization not adhering to agreed-upon moral standards.

  • The time when company operations are not functioning, often due to system maintenance or failures.

  • Harm to a company's prestige or esteem that can lead to a loss of customers and difficulty in attracting talent.

  • A temporary loss of consumer or partner confidence in a company's products or services.