CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Crucial Technologies is creating an incident response capability. During which phase of the incident response process are the incident response team and their roles and responsibilities established?
Detection and analysis
Containment
Preparation
Recovery
Answer Description
The incident response team must exist before any incident occurs. Establishing the team, defining its roles, and putting supporting processes and tools in place are all part of the Preparation phase of the incident response lifecycle. Subsequent phases focus on detecting, containing, and recovering from actual incidents.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of the Preparation phase in the incident response process?
How does Preparation differ from the Detection and Analysis phase in incident response?
Who should be included in the incident response team during the Preparation phase?
An organization needs to ensure the integrity and authenticity of its software by proving the software has not been tampered with after release. Which type of certificate should be used to sign the software digitally before distribution?
Email certificate
Root certificate
Self-Signed certificate
Code Signing certificate
Answer Description
A Code Signing certificate allows developers to sign software digitally, which verifies the integrity of the software and ensures that it has not been tampered with since being signed. Self-Signed certificates could be used but aren't typically trusted by users' operating systems or browsers by default, thereby potentially raising security warnings. An Email certificate is used for securing email communication and ensuring the authenticity of the sender, not for software integrity. A Root certificate is at the top of a certificate chain and signs other certificates rather than being directly used to sign software.
Ask Bash
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What is a Code Signing certificate?
Why aren't Self-Signed certificates typically trusted?
How does a Root certificate differ from a Code Signing certificate?
What can an organization implement when a vulnerability cannot be patched immediately, to mitigate the risk while maintaining business functionality?
Encryption
Threat intelligence
Penetration testing
Compensating controls
Answer Description
Compensating controls are security measures that are put in place to mitigate the risk associated with identified vulnerabilities that cannot be immediately resolved. They serve as alternatives to the direct remediation of security weaknesses, often due to technical, business, or financial constraints. Implementing compensating controls allows an organization to continue operations securely by reducing the potential impact of the vulnerability until it can be properly addressed. Encryption is not inherently a compensating control but might be part of one, depending upon the context. Threat intelligence and Penetration testing are methods for identifying vulnerabilities, not compensating for them.
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What are examples of compensating controls?
How do compensating controls differ from primary security measures?
When should compensating controls be reassessed or removed?
You are selecting a biometrics system for your company. You want to make sure you select a system that is going to be the most accurate choice. What calculation would you use to compare the different systems?
CER
Efficacy rates
FAR
FRR
Answer Description
The crossover error rate (CER) is the point at which the false acceptance rate (FAR) and the false rejection rate (FRR) are equal. The lower the CER the more accurate the biometric system is.
Ask Bash
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What are FAR and FRR in biometrics?
How is the crossover error rate (CER) calculated?
Why is CER important when selecting a biometric system?
Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?
Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.
Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.
Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.
Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL Injections
Answer Description
A Web application firewall (WAF) provides specialized protection to web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic and can specifically target and mitigate threats like SQL injection and cross-site scripting. While network-based, host-based, and cloud-based firewalls can offer protection at different levels, a WAF is specifically designed to secure web applications against these types of web-based threats. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device provides broad network security solutions but is not specialized in web application security like a WAF is.
Ask Bash
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What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
How is a WAF different from a network-based firewall?
Why can't blocking HTTP/80 traffic alone prevent SQL injection attacks?
An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?
PII
PHI
PDI
PCI
Answer Description
Protected health information (PHI) is any individually identifiable health data-such as diagnoses, treatment details, or prescriptions-maintained or transmitted by a covered entity. Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, a breach involving the unsecured PHI of more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction requires the covered entity to notify the affected individuals and prominent media outlets within 60 days. Because that 500-person threshold and media-notice requirement apply specifically to PHI, the stolen data was almost certainly PHI, not general PII, payment-card data (PCI), or another category.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between PHI and PII?
What is the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule?
How is PHI commonly secured to prevent breaches?
An organization with a low risk tolerance but high risk appetite is likely to engage in aggressive growth strategies while accepting significant potential losses.
True
False
Answer Description
This statement is incorrect because risk appetite and risk tolerance are closely related concepts. An organization with a high risk appetite is willing to accept more risk in pursuit of higher returns, which correlates with a high risk tolerance. Conversely, a low risk tolerance implies a cautious approach to risk-taking, which would not align with aggressive growth strategies or accepting significant losses. Therefore, an entity with a low risk tolerance would typically also have a low risk appetite, not a high one.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?
How would a low risk tolerance affect decision-making in an organization?
Can an organization have a high risk appetite and low risk tolerance simultaneously?
An organization wants to enhance server security by implementing a hardware device that can securely generate and manage cryptographic keys and offload cryptographic operations from the servers, thereby improving performance and security. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?
Hardware Security Module
TPM
Secure Enclave
Key Management System
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a dedicated hardware device designed to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys and perform cryptographic operations. By offloading these tasks from servers, HSMs improve both security and performance in enterprise environments.
A TPM is a hardware chip embedded on a computer's motherboard, primarily used to store cryptographic keys and ensure platform integrity, but it's not designed to offload cryptographic processing from servers.
A Secure Enclave is a secure area within a processor for executing sensitive code, commonly found in mobile devices; it does not function as a separate hardware device for server cryptographic operations.
A Key Management System typically refers to software solutions for managing cryptographic keys' lifecycle but does not provide hardware-based processing capabilities.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary function of a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
How does a TPM differ from an HSM?
Why is a Key Management System (KMS) not the best solution for securely generating and managing cryptographic keys?
Which access control model assigns permissions to roles or security groups that reflect specific job functions, and then assigns users to those roles instead of granting permissions directly to each user?
ABAC
RBAC
RuBAC
Answer Description
Role-based access control (RBAC) links permissions to roles that correspond to organizational job functions. Administrators add users to the appropriate roles or security groups, which automatically grants the permissions needed for their duties. Permissions therefore are not managed on a per-user basis, simplifying administration and enforcing least privilege.
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What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
How does RBAC differ from Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
Why is RBAC beneficial for enforcing the principle of least privilege?
A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?
Circuit-level gateway
Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Stateful inspection firewall
Stateless packet-filtering firewall
Answer Description
The correct choice is a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW). NGFWs are advanced firewalls that operate up to Layer 7 (the application layer) of the OSI model. Unlike traditional firewalls that are limited to inspecting traffic based on ports and IP addresses (Layers 3 and 4), NGFWs can perform deep packet inspection (DPI) to identify the specific applications in use and enforce security policies on them. They also integrate other security features like an intrusion prevention system (IPS) to block application-layer attacks. Stateless and stateful firewalls are older technologies that lack this deep application awareness. A circuit-level gateway operates at the session layer (Layer 5) and does not inspect application content.
Ask Bash
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What is deep packet inspection (DPI) in the context of NGFWs?
How does a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) differ from a traditional stateful firewall?
What role does an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) play in a Next-Generation Firewall?
A pharmaceutical company stores its proprietary drug formulas, which are considered trade secrets, on an internal file server. A security analyst is tasked with protecting this sensitive data from disclosure, even if an attacker or an unauthorized employee gains access to the server itself. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective at achieving this specific goal?
Isolating the server on its own network segment
Encrypting the files containing the formulas
Implementing strict access control lists (ACLs) on the file share
Placing the server in a locked data center with biometric access
Answer Description
The most effective control to protect the confidentiality of data at rest, such as proprietary formulas on a server, is encryption. Even if an attacker or unauthorized user gains access to the file system, the encrypted data will remain unreadable without the proper decryption key. While physical security, access control lists (ACLs), and network segmentation are important layers of defense, they do not protect the data itself if those layers are breached. Encryption directly protects the data from unauthorized disclosure.
Ask Bash
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What is data-at-rest encryption?
How do decryption keys ensure data confidentiality?
Why are additional controls like ACLs or network segmentation insufficient for protecting sensitive data?
Which operational control involves identifying, containing, and recovering from security incidents?
Access controls
Change management
Incident response
Answer Description
Incident response is the correct answer because it is an operational control that focuses on identifying, containing, and recovering from security incidents. Change management is incorrect because it deals with managing changes to systems and applications, not specifically security incidents. Access controls are preventive measures that limit access to resources, but do not directly address incident handling.
Ask Bash
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What is the main purpose of incident response?
How does change management differ from incident response?
What are access controls, and how do they complement incident response?
The administrative (native) VLAN on a switch should be left as VLAN 1 for security best practices.
False
True
Answer Description
This statement is incorrect. The administrative (native) VLAN on a switch should not be left at the default which is usually VLAN 1. It is a security best practice to change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID to mitigate VLAN hopping attacks.
Ask Bash
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What is the native VLAN on a switch?
What is VLAN hopping, and how does it work?
Why is it insecure to leave the native VLAN as VLAN 1?
A domain's DNS includes the record 'v=spf1 -all', suggesting that emails can originate from any mail server, and thus, messages should be assumed legitimate regardless of the originating mail server.
False
True
Answer Description
The SPF (Sender Policy Framework)
record is used to specify which mail servers are allowed to send emails on behalf of a domain. The correct interpretation of 'v=spf1 -all' is:
v=spf1
indicates the start of the SPF record.-all
means that no mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of the domain. This configuration tells receiving mail servers to reject all emails claiming to be from this domain because they are not coming from any authorized source.
Therefore, 'v=spf1 -all' suggests that any email claiming to come from this domain should be considered illegitimate because no mail servers are allowed to send emails for the domain.
Ask Bash
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What is an SPF record, and why is it important?
What does 'v=spf1 -all' mean in an SPF record?
How is an SPF record different from a DKIM or DMARC record?
A company's proprietary application is critical for daily operations, but it runs on an operating system that no longer receives vendor updates. The company's IT team is currently unable to upgrade the system or migrate the application due to compatibility issues. What is the most effective risk mitigation strategy the IT team should implement to secure the legacy system against potential threats?
Implement network segmentation and restrict the system's network connectivity to essential services
Increase security monitoring specifically targeting the unsupported system to detect anomalies
Conduct regular security audits on the system to ensure compliance with security policies
Encourage users to employ stronger passwords for system access
Answer Description
Implementing network segmentation and limiting the legacy system's connectivity to essential services is the correct answer. This approach reduces the risk of attacks from both internal and external threat vectors, as it would prevent the potentially compromised system from affecting unrelated parts of the network. While increasing security monitoring is a useful tactic, it does not directly mitigate the exposure of the legacy system to threats. Conducting regular security audits on the system is a good practice, but it does not provide real-time protection against threats. Encouraging the use of strong passwords is important but does not address the specific risks associated with an unsupported operating system.
Ask Bash
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Why is network segmentation effective for securing legacy systems?
What are the risks of running a legacy system without updates?
How does restricting connectivity to essential services enhance security?
What is the main function of Group Policy within a Windows domain environment?
Remote installation and configuration of software applications across all domain-joined desktops
Centralized management and configuration of users' settings and security policies
Monitoring real-time performance data for servers within a domain
Synchronization of user files across different devices within the domain
Answer Description
Group Policy is used to control the working environment of user and computer accounts. It provides centralized management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment. By using Group Policy, administrators can specify settings for groups of users and computers, ensuring consistency and compliance with security policies. Other options, while related to domain environments, do not accurately describe the primary function of Group Policy.
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What is Active Directory in relation to Group Policy?
How does Group Policy enhance security in a domain?
What is a Group Policy Object (GPO), and how is it applied?
During a security audit, an administrator needs to ensure that only company-approved laptops can connect to the office's wired switches. Which network technology should be configured on each switch port so a user or device must successfully authenticate before any LAN or WLAN traffic is permitted?
Deploy a next-generation firewall module in each switch to filter traffic at Layer 7.
Create IPSec VPN tunnels between endpoints and the core router for secure connectivity.
Enable WPA3 encryption on the wired interfaces to secure all transmitted data.
Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch ports to require credentials before granting access.
Answer Description
IEEE 802.1X is a port-based network access-control protocol that works at the data-link layer. A supplicant (client) must authenticate through the switch (authenticator) to a backend RADIUS server before the port transitions from an unauthorized to an authorized state. This prevents unauthorized devices from gaining network access. 802.1X itself does not define encryption, provide VPN tunneling, or perform firewall functions-those are handled by other mechanisms.
Ask Bash
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How does 802.1X differ from other authentication mechanisms like WPA2-Enterprise?
What role does the RADIUS server play in 802.1X authentication?
Which protocols are commonly used with 802.1X for device authentication?
A security analyst is reviewing the physical security controls for a new data center. To protect the main entrance from vehicle-based threats, the analyst recommends installing bollards. Which type of security control do bollards primarily represent?
Detective
Corrective
Compensating
Preventive
Answer Description
Bollards are a type of physical security control designed to prevent an incident from occurring. In this case, they physically block unauthorized vehicles from ramming the building's entrance, making them a preventive control. Detective controls (e.g., alarms, surveillance), corrective controls (e.g., disaster recovery plans), and compensating controls (e.g., using a different security measure when the primary one fails) serve different purposes.
Ask Bash
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What are preventive security controls?
How do bollards work as a preventive control?
What is the difference between preventive, detective, and corrective controls?
During a regular security scan of the network you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs you find that they all accessed a industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted for this malware. What type of attack would best describe this theory?
Watering hole
Spoofing
SYN Flood
SQL injection
Answer Description
In a watering hole attack the attacker infects a website that is known to be commonly used by an organisation or industry. For example a specific industry news site to attack a business in that industry or the entire industry in general. With the knowledge that users frequent the website the attackers are able to target them with malware and if the attack is successful to install malicious software.
Ask Bash
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What is a watering hole attack?
How do attackers typically choose websites for a watering hole attack?
What preventative measures can organizations take to minimize the risks of watering hole attacks?
What defines the term 'reputational damage' when considering the consequences of non-compliance with security policies and regulations?
An ethical violation that occurs due to an organization not adhering to agreed-upon moral standards.
The time when company operations are not functioning, often due to system maintenance or failures.
Harm to a company's prestige or esteem that can lead to a loss of customers and difficulty in attracting talent.
A temporary loss of consumer or partner confidence in a company's products or services.
Answer Description
Reputational damage refers to the harm to a company’s prestige or esteem that occurs following a detrimental event, such as a security breach. This can result in lost customers, partners, reduced sales, and difficulty in attracting talent. Understanding this concept is essential because it transcends the immediate financial impact and can have long-term effects on the organization's success. 'Loss of confidence' refers to a more temporary or individualistic perception which might not necessarily translate into widespread damage to the organization's reputation. 'Ethical violation' is a specific behavior of non-compliance but does not directly equate to reputational damage. 'Operational downtime' refers to periods when systems or services are not operational; while it can contribute to reputational damage if it results from a security incident, on its own it does not encapsulate the broader implications of reputational damage.
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Why does reputational damage have long-term effects on an organization?
How does reputational damage differ from financial damage?
What steps can an organization take to mitigate reputational damage after a security incident?
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