CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
As a security analyst in a large organization, you are responsible for establishing a secure baseline configuration for new Windows and Linux servers being deployed in the data center. What is the primary reason for creating this secure baseline?
To allow easy identification of servers in the network diagram and asset management database.
To provide a guide for troubleshooting server issues by the technical support team.
To document the standard administrative practices and server maintenance procedures.
To ensure that all systems start from a known state of security and configurations that address security concerns.
Answer Description
The primary reason for establishing a secure baseline configuration is to ensure that all systems start from a known state of security, with a consistent set of configurations that address security concerns. This makes it easier to manage, automate, and enforce security settings across multiple systems, reducing the likelihood of misconfigurations that could lead to vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
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What is a secure baseline configuration?
Why is consistency important in a secure baseline?
How can secure baselines be implemented and maintained?
A security analyst at a financial institution is tasked with conducting a risk analysis. The analyst needs to prioritize risks to present to the executive board, which prefers an overview based on the general magnitude of impact rather than precise numerical values. Which approach should the analyst use to assess and present the risk levels?
Annualized Rate of Occurrence Analysis
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Disaster Recovery Strategy
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Qualitative Risk Analysis.' Qualitative risk analysis evaluates and prioritizes risks using subjective measures, such as low, medium, and high, to describe the impact and likelihood of potential threats. This approach is useful for presenting an overview to stakeholders who prefer general magnitudes over detailed statistics. The incorrect answers involve either specific numerical values or do not align with the described scenario. 'Quantitative Risk Analysis' utilizes numerical values to quantify risk and is more complex and detailed than necessary for providing a general overview. 'Annualized Rate of Occurrence Analysis' focuses on the frequency of an event occurring over a year, which overly specifies the scenario at hand. 'Disaster Recovery Strategy' is a plan for resuming normal business operations after a disaster and is not a method for risk analysis.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary difference between Qualitative and Quantitative Risk Analysis?
What are some examples of scales used in Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Why would an executive board prefer Qualitative Risk Analysis over Quantitative Risk Analysis?
ACME Tech, an international software development company, has failed a recent audit due to not keeping adequate records of its European users' data activities. As the security manager, what is the most immediate action to take to rectify this situation and prevent substantial financial repercussions from European regulatory authorities?
Correct the record-keeping deficiencies to conform to the data-protection standards set forth by European authorities.
Deploy an updated firewall and intrusion-prevention system to better protect the perimeter of the corporate network.
Arrange an immediate security training session for the development team to reinforce best practices in secure coding.
Initiate a comprehensive review of the company's physical and electronic access controls.
Answer Description
Under the EU GDPR, Article 30 obligates controllers and processors to maintain detailed records of processing activities involving personal data. Failure to keep these records can lead to administrative fines of up to €10 million or 2 % of global annual turnover, whichever is higher. Therefore, the highest priority after the audit finding is to remedy the record-keeping gap and bring documentation into full compliance. While reviewing access controls, improving perimeter defenses, or holding training sessions may strengthen the overall security program, they do not directly address the specific violation that triggered the audit failure and potential fines.
Ask Bash
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What are the key data protection standards set forth by European authorities?
Why is maintaining accurate records of user data activities critical under GDPR?
What are some practical steps to correct record-keeping deficiencies under GDPR?
When developing information security policies and controls for a multinational organization, which set of legal and regulatory requirements must be considered to ensure full compliance?
Only international treaties, ignoring local and national statutes
All applicable local, national, and international laws and regulations
Only the organization's local municipal or state laws
Only the national (federal) laws of the country where headquarters is located
Answer Description
Organizations need to account for the complete legal landscape that applies to their operations and data, including all relevant local, national, and international laws and regulations. Global requirements such as the EU GDPR have extraterritorial reach and can impose significant penalties-up to €20 million or 4 % of worldwide annual turnover-for non-compliance. Focusing only on local or national statutes, or exclusively on international treaties, would leave important obligations unmet and expose the organization to fines, sanctions, and reputational damage.
Ask Bash
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What is the EU GDPR, and why is it important for multinational organizations?
What are some examples of international laws that multinational organizations must consider?
How can organizations ensure compliance with multiple legal and regulatory frameworks globally?
A healthcare company needs to ensure the privacy of its patients' health records. When deploying a new online patient portal, which measure is most effective for protecting the privacy of health records while they are being accessed and transmitted through the portal?
Encrypting data in transit
Implementing geographic restrictions on where the health records can be accessed
Requiring multi-factor authentication for user access to the portal
Applying data masking techniques to the records before storage
Answer Description
Encrypting data in transit is the most effective measure because it prevents unauthorized parties from intercepting and reading health information as it travels over the network. Data masking mainly protects data in storage or non-production environments, geographic restrictions primarily address legal or compliance boundaries, and multi-factor authentication verifies user identity but does not protect the content of data packets during transmission.
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Why is encrypting data in transit important for protecting privacy?
What is the difference between data encryption and data masking?
How does multi-factor authentication enhance security if it doesn’t protect data in transit?
A security administrator is implementing an encryption system that uses two distinct, but related keys. One key is used for encrypting data, and the other is used for decrypting it. What type of cryptography is being implemented?
Asymmetric key cryptography
Hashing
Symmetric key cryptography
Block cipher
Answer Description
Asymmetric key cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, is the correct answer because it uses a pair of keys for encryption and decryption-a public key and a private key. Symmetric key cryptography uses a single, shared key for both encryption and decryption. Hashing creates a fixed-size, non-reversible output and is used for integrity, not for encrypting and decrypting data. A block cipher is an algorithm that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks; it describes the method of encryption rather than the key management scheme and is commonly used in symmetric encryption.
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between asymmetric and symmetric key cryptography?
How does a public key and private key pair work in asymmetric cryptography?
How is asymmetric encryption different from hashing in terms of functionality?
A network technician is performing the initial setup of a new wireless router. Which of the following is the most important first step the technician should take to secure the device?
Updating the firmware to the latest beta release
Implementing port forwarding
Changing the default credentials
Disabling unused ports
Answer Description
Changing the default credentials of a router is the most effective first step in securing a router because factory-set usernames and passwords are often well-known and easily discoverable by malicious actors. Manufacturers often use the same default credentials across similar router models, which can be easily exploited if not changed. While other hardening steps like disabling unused ports and keeping firmware updated are important, an easily guessable default password presents the most immediate and critical vulnerability.
Ask Bash
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Why is changing the default credentials on a wireless router critical for security?
What are some best practices for creating strong credentials for a wireless router?
What is the significance of updating router firmware, and why is the latest beta firmware not recommended?
An organization has deployed a Unified Threat Management (UTM) device to consolidate multiple security functions. While reviewing security logs, it is noted that a specific alert keeps recurring, and it has been determined to be a false positive. To improve the efficiency of security operations, what should be done to handle this situation without compromising the actual threat detection capability of the UTM?
Increase the sensitivity of the UTM to capture more events.
Manually review all alerts generated by the UTM.
Perform alert tuning specific to the false positive condition.
Disable the alert to prevent further false positives.
Answer Description
Alert tuning involves adjusting the configuration and parameters of a security device to more accurately reflect true threats and minimize false positives. By tuning the alerts, the organization can reduce the number of incorrect alerts, which allows the security team to focus on actual threats, thereby improving operational efficiency without lowering the security posture.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is alert tuning in the context of a UTM device?
How do false positives impact security operations?
What other security features can typically be consolidated by a UTM device?
During a routine update, an IT administrator accidentally overwrites crucial configuration files, causing incorrect data to be displayed to users. Which fundamental security principle is most impacted by this incident?
Integrity
Confidentiality
Availability
Authentication
Answer Description
Integrity refers to the accuracy and reliability of data. When the IT administrator overwrote the configuration files, it led to incorrect data being presented, thus compromising data integrity. Confidentiality involves protecting information from unauthorized access, which is not the issue here. Availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, but the systems are still operational. Authentication relates to verifying the identity of users or systems, which is not impacted in this scenario.
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What does data integrity mean in cybersecurity?
What are some common methods to ensure data integrity?
How does a lack of integrity differ from a breach of confidentiality?
In an organization's risk management framework, when might an exemption be most appropriately granted?
When there is insufficient budget to implement any security measures and all risks need to be accepted
Whenever a key stakeholder dislikes the constraints imposed by a certain policy or standard
When compliance with a security policy or control is either not feasible or not cost-effective relative to the reduction in risk it would bring
As a habitual practice for lower-priority systems to minimize the effort spent on security
Answer Description
An exemption is appropriately granted when adherence to a specific security policy or control would not be feasible, such as when it would interfere with operational requirements or when the associated cost far outweighs the benefit. It is not a means to avoid implementing security measures altogether but a considered decision that requires approval by the appropriate level of management. The approval process must include an understanding of the potential risks and agreement that such risks are acceptable. This distinguishes exemptions from other risk strategies, like mitigation where risks are reduced, or transference where risks are shared.
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What is the difference between an exemption and risk acceptance in risk management?
What operational scenarios might make granting an exemption appropriate?
What approval process is typically required for exemptions in risk management?
A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?
Circuit-level gateway
Stateful inspection firewall
Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Stateless packet-filtering firewall
Answer Description
The correct choice is a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW). NGFWs are advanced firewalls that operate up to Layer 7 (the application layer) of the OSI model. Unlike traditional firewalls that are limited to inspecting traffic based on ports and IP addresses (Layers 3 and 4), NGFWs can perform deep packet inspection (DPI) to identify the specific applications in use and enforce security policies on them. They also integrate other security features like an intrusion prevention system (IPS) to block application-layer attacks. Stateless and stateful firewalls are older technologies that lack this deep application awareness. A circuit-level gateway operates at the session layer (Layer 5) and does not inspect application content.
Ask Bash
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What is deep packet inspection (DPI) in the context of NGFWs?
How does a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) differ from a traditional stateful firewall?
What role does an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) play in a Next-Generation Firewall?
A security analyst, reviewing alerts from an Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) system, notices suspicious command-line activity on a user's workstation indicative of a malware infection. The analyst needs to contain the threat while preserving evidence for a forensic investigation. What is the BEST immediate action for the analyst to take?
Immediately power off the workstation to stop the malware's execution.
Disconnect the workstation from the network and immediately re-image it from a known-good backup.
Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation while it remains connected to the network.
Isolate the workstation from the network but leave it powered on.
Answer Description
The best immediate action is to isolate the workstation from the network but keep it powered on. Isolating the system prevents the potential malware from spreading to other devices on the network (lateral movement) or communicating with external command-and-control servers. Keeping the system powered on is crucial because shutting it down would erase volatile memory (RAM), which contains valuable forensic evidence like running processes, active network connections, and other in-memory artifacts that are essential for analyzing the attack. Powering off the system immediately would destroy this evidence. Running a scan before isolation could allow the malware to spread further. Re-imaging the system is a remediation step that should only occur after a thorough investigation is complete.
Ask Bash
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Why is volatile memory important for forensic investigations?
How does isolating a workstation help prevent lateral movement?
What is the difference between containment and remediation in incident response?
Your organization is exploring the option of migrating some services to the cloud while maintaining critical systems onsite due to their sensitive nature. As the IT Security Specialist, you've been asked to assess the security considerations for the on-premises systems. Which of the following is a primary security advantage of retaining critical systems on-premises?
Reduced physical access risk to systems
Complete control over physical and logical security measures
Lower initial capital expenditure compared to cloud solutions
Increased scalability of critical systems
Answer Description
Complete control over physical and logical security measures is a primary advantage of on-premises solutions. The organization retains full control over all aspects of security, including access controls, surveillance, and response protocols, which are essential for sensitive systems. Cloud services, while secure, involve sharing some control with third-party providers. 'Reduced physical access risk' implies an advantage, but it is an aspect of complete control rather than a primary advantage in itself. 'Increased scalability' and 'Lower initial capital expenditure' are typically advantages of cloud solutions, not on-prem solutions. Therefore, they are not correct in the context of advantages for maintaining critical systems on-premises.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between physical and logical security in an IT context?
Why does cloud migration involve shared control with third-party providers?
How does maintaining critical systems on-premises reduce risks associated with sensitive data?
A corporation with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices deployed across multiple office locations is reviewing its security architecture to address concerns regarding the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data collected by these devices. Which of the following security approaches would BEST mitigate this risk?
Require multi-factor authentication for all users accessing the IoT devices.
Enable a host-based firewall on each IoT device to prevent unauthorized access.
Implement network segmentation to restrict IoT traffic to a dedicated portion of the network.
Enable full disk encryption on all IoT devices to protect data at rest.
Answer Description
Implementing network segmentation would be the most effective at mitigating the risk as it restricts the traffic between the IoT devices and the rest of the network, reducing the potential attack surface and the chance of an attacker reaching sensitive data if the IoT devices are compromised. While full disk encryption is important for data at rest, it doesn't address the transmission or collection of data. Enabling a host-based firewall on IoT devices may not be feasible due to their limited computing resources and wouldn't protect against attacks exploiting the IoT network itself. Requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA) improves the security of user accounts, but it does not specifically address the issue of securing sensitive data collected by IoT devices from network-based threats.
Ask Bash
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What is network segmentation, and how does it work?
Why is network segmentation more suitable for securing IoT devices compared to full disk encryption?
What challenges might arise from implementing network segmentation, especially for IoT networks?
A security analyst is reviewing the security posture of a manufacturing plant's Industrial Control System (ICS). The system is considered highly critical and is physically isolated from the company's main IT network. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate security principle to apply when establishing a baseline for this ICS?
A stringent, specialized baseline is required because critical systems must be protected from a wide range of threats, including those that do not originate from the network.
The vendor is solely responsible for providing security patches, so a custom baseline is unnecessary.
The security baseline can be less stringent than corporate IT systems because the air gap effectively mitigates all major threats.
The primary security control is the air gap, so baseline configurations should focus exclusively on preventing network bridging.
Answer Description
The correct principle is that ICS environments require stringent security baselines tailored to their unique operational needs, regardless of network isolation. Even physically isolated or 'air-gapped' systems are vulnerable to threats from removable media (like USB drives), insider threats, and supply chain attacks. Therefore, assuming isolation negates the need for strong security is a dangerous misconception. While an ICS baseline may differ from a standard IT baseline in its priorities (e.g., emphasizing availability and safety over confidentiality) and implementation details (e.g., patch management schedules), it must be comprehensive and robust. Relying on the vendor for all security or applying a less stringent baseline are both inadequate security practices.
Ask Bash
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What is an ICS and why is it considered critical?
What does 'air-gapped' mean, and does it guarantee security?
Why is relying solely on the vendor for security patches insufficient?
Crucial Technologies has an outside team coming in to conduct penetration testing. It has been decided that the engagement is going to be black box testing. This type of testing involves which of the following?
Known environment
Unknown environment
Partially known environment
Fully known environment
Answer Description
When a penetration test is black box testing no prior knowledge is given to the testers. They go into the test with a completely unknown environment.
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What is black box penetration testing?
How does black box testing differ from white box testing?
What are the advantages of black box testing?
A company is planning to deploy a major update to its customer relationship management (CRM) system. This update includes security enhancements and new features that customers have been requesting. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to ensure that the security operation aligns with the business impact of the deployment?
Conduct an Impact Analysis
Determine the Maintenance Window
Initiate the Approval Process
Update Network Diagrams and Policies
Answer Description
Before making significant changes to an operational system, it is essential to perform an Impact Analysis. This step helps in understanding the potential consequences of the change on the organization's operations and security. It allows stakeholders to evaluate the risks and benefits associated with the deployment of the update. Without this analysis, the company could inadvertently introduce new vulnerabilities or negatively affect business operations. Although approval processes and maintenance windows are important, they come into play after understanding the impact. Updating diagrams and policies is part of documenting the change, which typically happens after the approval and planning stages.
Ask Bash
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What is an Impact Analysis in the context of IT changes?
Why is conducting an Impact Analysis before the approval process important?
How does an Impact Analysis help organizations mitigate security risks?
An organization is conducting a Business Impact Analysis. Which metric should be determined to establish the maximum time frame that a critical system can be disrupted before severe impact to business operations occurs?
Establishing the data backup frequency is necessary for scheduling maintenance windows.
Assessing the annual likelihood of a system failure occurring will forecast the potential interruptions in operations.
Calculating the cost of system outages per day can provide insight into potential financial losses.
Determining the maximum tolerable downtime for critical systems, otherwise known as the Recovery Time Objective, is essential for prioritizing their restoration.
Answer Description
Identifying the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) during a Business Impact Analysis is critical because it denotes the maximum duration that a service or system can be unavailable before causing unacceptable detriment to the business. Setting the RTO helps in crafting prioritized recovery strategies, ensuring that the most crucial systems are restored within a timeframe that prevents significant operational or financial loss. The other options, while related to business continuity and disaster recovery, do not directly address the focus on time frame for critical system recovery, like the RTO does.
Ask Bash
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What is the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
How is RTO different from Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
How is the RTO determined during a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?
Modifying access control lists
Deploying security patches
Installing antivirus software
Reviewing security logs
Answer Description
Reviewing security logs is a key part of security monitoring. It allows security professionals to track events that have occurred within the network. Monitoring these logs helps to identify any unauthorized actions, security incidents, or policy violations. Other options listed do not directly correspond to the activity of identifying unauthorized actions through monitoring.
Ask Bash
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Why are security logs important for monitoring unauthorized actions?
What tools are commonly used to review and analyze security logs?
What is the difference between security log monitoring and real-time threat detection?
An organization needs to securely establish encryption keys with external partners over the internet without any prior shared secrets. Which cryptographic method BEST facilitates this secure key establishment?
Symmetric key distribution
MD5 hashing algorithm
RSA digital signatures
Diffie-Hellman algorithm
Answer Description
The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is specifically designed for secure key exchange over insecure channels without requiring prior shared secrets. It enables two parties to independently generate a shared secret key, which can then be used for symmetric encryption. Symmetric key distribution assumes that keys are already shared or delivered securely, which doesn't address the need to establish keys without prior arrangement. RSA digital signatures provide authentication and integrity but are not primarily used for key establishment. MD5 is a hashing algorithm used for data integrity verification, not for key exchange or encryption key establishment.
Ask Bash
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What is the Diffie-Hellman algorithm and how does it work?
Why isn’t symmetric key distribution the best choice in this scenario?
How does Diffie-Hellman differ from RSA in key exchange?
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