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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?

  • Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.

  • Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.

  • Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.

  • A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.

Question 2 of 20

Your organization is experiencing rapid growth and expects a significant increase in online transaction volume over the next year. As a security professional assessing the infrastructure to accommodate future demands, which of the following would be the BEST measure to ensure the infrastructure can scale securely and effectively?

  • Consolidate all data storage into a single geographic region to reduce complexity and ensure all users access the same resources.

  • Vertically scale the existing infrastructure by upgrading the current server to a model with more processing power and memory.

  • Plan for horizontal scaling by adding additional servers or utilizing cloud-based resources to distribute the load evenly across multiple hardware platforms.

  • Invest in a more powerful server to replace the current one, ensuring that the new hardware can handle the anticipated load for the next year.

Question 3 of 20

An attacker sets up a fraudulent website that perfectly mimics a company's webmail service and sends an email to an employee, tricking her into entering her username and password. The attacker successfully captures these credentials. Which of the following attacks can the adversary now directly perform using the captured username and password?

  • DNS poisoning

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • Session hijacking

  • Credential replay

Question 4 of 20

An organization is reviewing its security policies to better protect against unauthorized access to employee accounts. Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation strategy to prevent a brute force attack on user passwords?

  • Enabling account lockouts after a specified number of failed login attempts

  • Monitoring for unauthorized access attempts on user accounts

  • Disabling unused accounts

  • Implementing strong password policies that require complex passwords

Question 5 of 20

In the context of enhancing security operations, what is a primary benefit of implementing automation?

  • Improvement of user authentication protocols

  • Enforcement of stronger password policies

  • Automated patch management for out-of-date software

  • Minimization of human error in repetitive tasks

Question 6 of 20

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of corrective controls in a security context?

  • To substitute for primary security controls when they are not available

  • To identify and detect security incidents as they happen

  • To limit the damage and impact after a security incident has occurred

  • To prevent security incidents from occurring in the first place

Question 7 of 20

Under common security-control taxonomies (e.g., NIST SP 800-53 and CompTIA), a periodic security audit that reviews system activity and policy compliance is BEST categorized as which type of control?

  • Detective control

  • Deterrent control

  • Corrective control

  • Preventive control

Question 8 of 20

A financial firm is migrating some of its services to a third-party cloud platform. When reviewing the terms of the migration, it must be clear who is responsible for the protection of physical servers and network infrastructure. According to the typical shared responsibility model for cloud security, who is accountable for this aspect?

  • The cloud service provider

  • The third-party auditors conducting regular security reviews

  • The application developers of the firm

  • The financial firm's internal IT department

Question 9 of 20

Which of the following is a system designed to attract and trap potential attackers, allowing cybersecurity professionals to study their methods and techniques?

  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Honeypot

  • Firewall

Question 10 of 20

A company is revising its strategic plan and wants to balance its growth objectives with its information security risks. The company seeks neither to aggressively pursue risk for potential gains nor to minimize risk at the expense of new opportunities. Which of the following best describes the company's risk strategy?

  • The company assesses security risks on a case-by-case basis, with no predefined strategy towards risk.

  • The company is aggressively expanding into new markets, often prioritizing potential gains over the strict management of information security risks.

  • The company is adopting a neutral risk strategy to support steady growth while efficiently managing security risks.

  • The company strictly minimizes any potential security risks, even if it means passing on potentially lucrative opportunities.

Question 11 of 20

What is the primary goal of conducting a tabletop exercise as part of cybersecurity testing?

  • To conduct an automated penetration test against the organization's IT infrastructure.

  • To physically test the security measures in place by attempting to gain unauthorized access to a facility.

  • To perform a live-action simulation of a cyberattack on the organization's network.

  • To facilitate a scenario-driven discussion that tests an organization's incident response plan.

Question 12 of 20

What is the purpose of conducting a simulation exercise as part of an organization's incident response training?

  • To test the effectiveness of the incident response plan and train the team.

  • To ensure compliance with industry regulations and standards.

  • To deploy new security tools within the IT infrastructure.

  • To identify and patch vulnerabilities within the organization's network.

Question 13 of 20

What is the primary purpose of performing a packet capture in the context of network security?

  • To increase the bandwidth and performance of the network

  • To collect and analyze network traffic for security monitoring and investigative purposes

  • To restrict access to network resources based on IP addresses

  • To provide network users with a secure method of file transfer

Question 14 of 20

An IT security analyst notices multiple user accounts from the administrative department are simultaneously locked out after a series of failed login attempts. What is the MOST likely indicator of malicious activity?

  • Legitimate users forgetting their passwords

  • A misconfiguration of account lockout policies

  • Routine system maintenance causing accidental lockouts

  • Password spraying attempt

Question 15 of 20

A security operations center (SOC) wants to implement an automated workflow that automatically isolates an endpoint as soon as the EDR platform confirms malware execution. Which PRIMARY benefit of security automation does this approach provide?

  • Centralized storage of log data for long-term retention

  • Automatic generation of detailed compliance reports for auditors

  • Delegation of security policy creation to senior management

  • Reduced response time by eliminating manual containment steps

Question 16 of 20

When building a customer-facing web application, what approach to input validation should be implemented to MOST EFFECTIVELY mitigate injection attacks?

  • Enforcing data type constraints and requiring inputs to match the expected data types

  • Relying on a blocklist input validation to exclude known dangerous characters and patterns

  • Using cryptographic hashing of all inputs to avoid storing or processing plaintext input data

  • Implementing a allowlist input validation mechanism that accepts only specified inputs

Question 17 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why containerization cannot fully prevent a compromise in one container from affecting other containers that run on the same host?

  • Containers run their own independent kernels, so a vulnerability in one kernel can be exploited to compromise others.

  • Containers share the host operating-system kernel, so a kernel-level exploit can allow code to escape one container and access others.

  • Containers require hardware virtualization extensions that allow direct memory access between containers.

  • Containers always run with unrestricted network access to every other container on the host, regardless of configuration.

Question 18 of 20

During a quarterly risk assessment, the IT manager notes that several web servers are regularly exposed to unauthorized traffic in the DMZ. She recommends deploying a next-generation firewall that will block malicious packets before they reach the servers. This firewall is an example of which type of security control?

  • A control that substitutes for a primary control when it is not feasible or practical to implement.

  • A control that identifies and responds to security incidents after they have occurred.

  • A control that directs the actions of individuals or systems to maintain security.

  • A control that stops a security incident or attack from happening before it can cause harm.

Question 19 of 20

Which of the following best describes the action a security specialist should take to identify and mitigate the risk of a file that seems legitimate but is suspected to perform malicious activity when executed?

  • Update antivirus software and perform a full system scan

  • Review firewall rules to ensure no unauthorized traffic is allowed

  • Execute the file within a sandbox to monitor its behavior

  • Reinstall the operating system to remove all potentially compromised files

Question 20 of 20

After a recent data breach where an adversary successfully exfiltrated sensitive data, the incident response team has completed the containment and eradication stages. Which action would BEST equip the team to perform root cause analysis and determine the original vulnerability exploited?

  • Conducting a thorough analysis of security logs for signs of initial compromise

  • Initiating a campaign to re-educate all users about phishing and social engineering

  • Running a comprehensive vulnerability scan on all networked systems

  • Scheduling a complete review of all organizational security policies and procedures