CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which term describes the requirement to control access to data based on the physical location of the user accessing the data or the location of the data processing?
Geolocation restrictions
Data sovereignty
Data classification
Data residency
Answer Description
Geolocation restrictions are security controls that limit access to data based on the geographical location from where the data access attempt is made or where the data processing takes place. This ensures that data remains within legal or regulatory boundaries and that an organization maintains compliance with local laws.
Ask Bash
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How do geolocation restrictions work?
What is the difference between geolocation restrictions and data sovereignty?
What technologies are used to implement geolocation restrictions?
Which set of rules is typically used by an organization to define the complexity and renewal frequency requirements for user credentials?
Network configuration protocols
Password policy
Audit guidelines
Data classification standards
Answer Description
A password policy is the set of rules used to define how users create and maintain their passwords within an organization. This policy establishes the minimum requirements for password complexity, such as the use of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, special characters, and the frequency at which passwords must be changed. This helps to prevent unauthorized access by ensuring that passwords are sufficiently complex and changed regularly. Other options do not directly apply to user credentials and their security requirements.
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Why is password complexity important in a password policy?
What are some common requirements included in a password policy?
How does a password policy help prevent cyberattacks like phishing or credential stuffing?
Which of the following best describes a common use case for automation in a security operations context?
Conducting manual penetration tests on network assets
Providing live technical support to end-users
Automating the process of provisioning and de-provisioning user accounts
Monitoring individual bandwidth usage and allocating resources accordingly
Answer Description
Automating the user provisioning process is a common use case in security operations. It helps in efficiently managing user access by creating and setting up new user accounts, roles, and permissions when needed, and revoking them when no longer in use. This is often done to reduce manual workload and enforce consistent security policies. In contrast, monitoring bandwidth usage and manual penetration testing are tasks that can be assisted by automation tools but are not typically fully automated due to the need for human judgment and analysis. Providing live technical support is a task that usually requires direct human interaction and cannot be automated.
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What is user provisioning and de-provisioning?
Why is automation important in user provisioning and de-provisioning?
What tools are commonly used for automating user provisioning and de-provisioning?
What type of security threat occurs when an attacker manipulates file-referencing variables with sequences like ../
to access files and commands located outside the web server's intended root folder?
Buffer overflow
Cross-site scripting
Directory traversal
SQL injection
Answer Description
A directory traversal attack, also known as path traversal, involves an attacker manipulating variables that reference files with dot-dot-slash (../
) sequences to access restricted directories. This can lead to unauthorized viewing of sensitive files or execution of commands located outside of the web server's document root directory. SQL injection targets databases, buffer overflows target memory allocation, and cross-site scripting involves injecting malicious scripts into websites for users to execute; none of these match the described threat.
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What is a directory traversal attack?
How can organizations prevent directory traversal attacks?
What are common indicators of a directory traversal attack?
Your company has recently rolled out a new security awareness training program focused on recognizing social engineering attacks. To ensure the effectiveness of the training, what is the MOST effective method to evaluate employee understanding and application of the training content?
Conducting unannounced phishing simulation campaigns
Including a quiz at the end of the training session
Unannounced network scans after training completion
Publishing a quarterly newsletter highlighting social engineering threats
Answer Description
Phishing simulations are a practical method of testing employees' abilities to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. This type of simulation provides actionable insights by creating realistic scenarios similar to actual phishing attempts, without the associated risk. This helps measure the effectiveness of the training and identifies areas where additional training may be necessary. Answer options like 'Unannounced network scans' and 'Publishing quarterly newsletters' are less direct and less effective methods of assessing the specific understanding of recognizing social engineering attacks. Although helpful in a broader security context, they do not directly test the application of the training content. 'Including a quiz at the end of the training session' can validate immediate retention but does not measure long-term understanding or practical application in an actual work environment.
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Why are phishing simulations more effective than quizzes for evaluating training?
What is a social engineering attack?
How should phishing simulations be designed for maximum effectiveness?
What type of security device passively monitors network traffic and alerts administrators or other systems when it detects suspicious activities or known threats?
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Firewall
Load balancer
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for the passive monitoring of network traffic and alerting when suspicious activities or known threats are detected. Unlike an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), an IDS does not actively block potential threats; it instead focuses on the detection aspect and relies on others to respond to the threats it identifies. A Firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an applied rule set and is not designed solely for the detection of threats. A Load balancer distributes network or application traffic across a number of servers to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, reduce response time, and avoid overload on any one server.
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What is the difference between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS detect suspicious activities?
What are the advantages of using an IDS in a network?
A security manager has placed conspicuous warning signs around the perimeter of a data center. The signs state, "No Trespassing - Violators Will Be Prosecuted." What type of security control does this action represent?
Compensating
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Answer Description
Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential attackers. Warning signs are a classic example as they inform individuals of the consequences of trespassing, aiming to deter the action. This is not a preventive control, as it does not physically stop an intruder (e.g., a fence or a lock). It is not a corrective control, which is used after an incident to limit damage (e.g., restoring from backups). It is also not a compensating control, which serves as an alternative when a primary control is not feasible.
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What is the purpose of a deterrent control?
How does a deterrent control differ from a preventive control?
What are examples of other deterrent controls besides warning signs?
Which factor is a direct financial consideration when assessing the implementation of a new security control within an organization?
Time to remediate vulnerabilities
Total cost of ownership
Number of users supported
Time-to-market
Answer Description
Total cost of ownership includes the direct and indirect costs incurred throughout the life cycle of a security control, encompassing purchase price, maintenance fees, operational costs, and potential training expenses. This is critical as it reflects the overall investment needed and impacts the budgeting and financial planning of an organization's security strategy. Other options, like the time-to-market or the number of users, may indirectly influence costs but are not direct financial considerations on their own. The time to remediate vulnerabilities focuses on the duration of the response rather than on financial implications.
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What is Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?
How does TCO differ from initial purchase cost?
Why is TCO important for security planning?
A financial organization is moving its internally developed customer-facing web portal to a public Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) provider. Because the site processes regulated personal data, the security team reviews the shared-responsibility matrix. Which activity will remain the organization's responsibility after the migration?
Implementing secure coding practices and patch management for the portal's application code.
Maintaining environmental controls such as humidity and temperature within the cloud data center.
Upgrading the provider's core network components, such as routers and switches, to support higher throughput.
Ensuring the physical servers hosting the service are updated with the latest firmware patches.
Answer Description
In the IaaS model, the cloud provider handles the underlying facilities, physical servers, network hardware, and virtualization layer. The customer retains control of everything it installs on top of that stack-including the guest operating system, application code, and associated patches. Therefore, the organization must continue to apply secure coding practices and keep its portal software up-to-date. Environmental controls, firmware updates on the provider's servers, and backbone network hardware upgrades are handled by the cloud provider.
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What is the shared-responsibility model in cloud computing?
Why is secure coding important in the IaaS model?
What are some examples of IaaS services, and how do users interact with them?
What technique should be used to restrict dedicated administrative access to only the necessary times when it is needed, thereby reducing the exposure time of elevated privileges?
Just-in-time permissions
Multifactor authentication
Security group assignments
Password vaulting
Answer Description
Just-in-time permissions restrict the timeframe during which administrative or elevated rights are granted to users, minimizing the potential for misuse of those privileges. By limiting access to only when it is required for a specific task and automatically revocating those permissions after a set time, the attack window is reduced. This prevents risks associated with standing privileged accounts, which could be exploited if compromised.
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What are just-in-time (JIT) permissions?
How are JIT permissions implemented in practice?
What are some benefits of using JIT permissions over traditional administrative accounts?
Which of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of version control in the context of change management and security?
To automatically update documentation and diagrams when changes are made
To manage and control software code, configurations, and other artifacts
To quickly identify and resolve issues caused by recent changes
To facilitate collaboration between different teams and departments
Answer Description
Version control is primarily used to manage and control different versions of software, configurations, and other artifacts. It allows for tracking changes, reverting to previous versions if needed, and maintaining a clear audit trail of modifications. While version control can help with documentation, collaboration, and identifying issues, its main purpose is to effectively manage and control versions of various assets.
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What is version control in software development?
How does version control improve security?
What is the difference between version control and change management?
Which of the following statements BEST explains why a network firewall alone cannot provide the same level of protection as encryption for data stored on a network file server?
Encryption secures data moving across the network, whereas a firewall secures all data that resides on the server's drives.
A properly configured firewall automatically encrypts any files transmitted or stored behind it, eliminating the need for separate data-at-rest encryption.
Neither firewalls nor encryption protect data at rest; only physical security controls such as locks and guards can do so.
A firewall enforces access rules for network traffic, but only encryption renders the stored data unreadable to unauthorized users, so both controls are required to protect data at rest.
Answer Description
A firewall filters or blocks network traffic according to predefined rules, helping to prevent unauthorized access over the network. It does not transform the actual data on the server. If an attacker bypasses the firewall-through stolen credentials, an insider threat, or physical access-the files remain readable unless they are encrypted. Encrypting the disk, volume, or files converts them into ciphertext that is unintelligible without the decryption key, preserving confidentiality even if the storage media is stolen or the system is compromised. Therefore, encryption-not the firewall-provides protection for data at rest.
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Why doesn't a firewall encrypt data?
What is 'data at rest,' and how does encryption protect it?
How might an attacker bypass a firewall, and why does encryption matter in that situation?
A junior security administrator has been tasked with recommending solutions to prevent unauthorized individuals from physically entering a company's new sensitive data center. The administrator is considering options such as biometric scanners, mantraps, and security guards. Which category of security controls do these solutions fall under?
Physical controls
Perimeter controls
Administrative controls
Logical controls
Answer Description
Physical access controls are measures designed to restrict entry to physical areas like data centers. The recommended solutions, such as biometric scanners, mantraps, and security guards, are all examples of physical controls. Logical access controls refer to software-based mechanisms like passwords, firewalls, and access control lists (ACLs) that protect data and systems. Administrative controls are policies and procedures, such as security awareness training and personnel background checks. Perimeter controls can refer to the physical perimeter (fences) or network perimeter (firewalls), but 'physical controls' is the specific category for controlling entry into a room.
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What are some examples of physical access controls?
How do physical access controls differ from logical access controls?
What is a mantrap and how does it enhance security?
Which concept refers to designing a system capable of handling increased demand by adding resources?
Resilience
Redundancy
Scalability
Availability
Answer Description
Scalability is the ability of a system to handle a growing amount of work by adding resources. It ensures that as demand increases, the system can scale up or out to maintain performance levels. Resilience refers to a system's ability to recover from failures, availability is about the system being accessible when needed, and redundancy involves duplicating components to prevent failure but does not directly address increasing demand.
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What is the difference between scalability and redundancy?
How does vertical scaling differ from horizontal scaling in system design?
What role does scalability play in cloud computing?
You work for a company that has a contract with the US government. As part of that contract there is a document that outlines the scope of the work to be performed, period of performance and schedule of deliverables. Which of the following best describes this document?
SOW
MOA
SLA
MOU
Answer Description
A statement of work (SOW) is a contractual agreement between a service provider and a client that specifies work requirements such as scope of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, etc.
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What is the purpose of a Statement of Work (SOW)?
How does a SOW differ from an SLA?
What is the relationship between a SOW and a contract?
A network administrator is configuring a new file server. The goal is to simplify permissions by creating groups such as 'Marketing', 'Developers', and 'Executives'. Each user will be assigned to one or more of these groups, and their access to files and folders will be determined solely by their group memberships. Which access control model is the administrator implementing?
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
Answer Description
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is being implemented. This model grants or denies access based on the roles or groups assigned to users. In this scenario, the 'Marketing', 'Developers', and 'Executives' groups are the roles that determine access rights.
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is incorrect because it allows the owner of the resource to grant access at their discretion, rather than relying on predefined group-based permissions.
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is incorrect because it is a stricter model that uses security labels (like 'Confidential' or 'Secret') assigned to both users and resources, which are enforced by the system. It is not based on user-defined groups or roles.
Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) is incorrect because it uses a more dynamic set of rules based on attributes of the user, resource, and environment (like time of day or location), not just a user's role or group membership.
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What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
How does RBAC differ from Discretionary Access Control (DAC)?
Can RBAC be combined with other access control models like ABAC?
An employee receives a phone call from an individual claiming to be a member of the IT department's security audit team. The caller explains that due to a recent security incident, they are verifying all user credentials. The caller uses a professional tone, refers to a non-existent ticket number, and asks the employee to provide their username and password for verification. Which social engineering technique does this scenario BEST describe?
Pretexting
Phishing
Smishing
Watering hole
Answer Description
This scenario is a classic example of pretexting. Pretexting involves an attacker creating a believable, fabricated scenario (the pretext) to manipulate a victim into providing sensitive information. In this case, the pretext is a security audit by a fake IT department member. Phishing is incorrect as it typically refers to attacks via email. Smishing is incorrect as it involves attacks via SMS text messages. A watering hole attack is incorrect as it involves compromising a website that targets are known to frequent.
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What distinguishes pretexting from phishing?
What are common signs of a pretexting attack?
How can employees be trained to avoid pretexting attacks?
As an IT manager, you've been tasked with ensuring that electronic transactions between suppliers and your company cannot later be denied by either party. Which of the following security goals and concepts should you prioritize to meet this requirement?
Availability
Integrity
Non-repudiation
Confidentiality
Answer Description
Non-repudiation ensures that neither party can deny the authenticity of their electronic communications or transactions. This is achieved through methods such as digital signatures, which provide proof of origin and verify that the content has not been tampered with. Integrity ensures that data has not been altered, but does not prevent denial of participation in the communication. Confidentiality ensures information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, but does not necessarily prove who was involved in the exchange. Availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, but does not address the issue of denying the transaction.
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What is non-repudiation in cybersecurity?
How do digital signatures provide non-repudiation?
How is non-repudiation different from integrity and confidentiality?
Which of the following best describes the legal implications that should be considered when managing a security program for an organization operating within a specific country?
Adherence to local business norms
Alignment with regional trends
Compliance with national laws and regulations
Following global standards
Answer Description
The correct answer is Compliance with national laws and regulations, as it directly relates to the obligations an organization has to adhere to the legal framework set forth by the government of the country in which it operates. Non-compliance can result in legal actions, fines, or sanctions against the organization. Local business norms are relevant to cultural practices but do not hold regulatory authority. Regional trends may influence business strategy but lack the legal impact of national laws. Global standards are best practices that might be adopted internationally, yet they do not replace national legal requirements.
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What is the distinction between national laws and global standards in security programs?
What are the consequences of non-compliance with national laws and regulations for security programs?
How can organizations ensure compliance with national laws and regulations when managing security programs?
During an audit, your company's security policies regarding endpoint protection are under review. While examining the current solutions, you note that the recently deployed security system on critical endpoints is not relying solely on signature-based detection to mitigate attacks. Considering its capabilities, which feature of this system aligns with those of a robust HIPS to enhance the security of these endpoints?
Behavioral monitoring to analyze and block activities that may signify malicious intent
Performing retrospective log analysis to identify the source and method of a data breach
Updating its database of virus definitions frequently to catch the latest known malware
Applying system hardening techniques to reduce the attack surface of the endpoints
Answer Description
The ability of a robust HIPS to perform analysis of system calls, application state, and overall system behavior to prevent malicious activity distinguishes it from signature-based detection methods. This functionality allows it to identify and block potentially malicious actions, such as those associated with zero-day attacks, by looking at abnormal activities that do not match the typical behavior of the system, rather than relying on a database of known threats. The incorrect answers either describe functions of other security tools or are more reactive measures, rather than the proactive behavioral monitoring performed by HIPS. Antivirus primarily relies on signature matching; system hardening includes measures like closing unused ports and disabling unnecessary services, and log analysis, while critical for identifying past incidents, is not a prevention method.
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What is the role of behavioral monitoring in HIPS?
How do zero-day attacks differ from traditional malware, and why is behavioral monitoring effective against them?
How does HIPS differ from traditional antivirus software?
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