CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A security analyst is reviewing a report from a recent vulnerability scan that identified over 200 issues across various systems, including web servers, databases, and network switches. To manage the remediation process effectively, the analyst groups the vulnerabilities based on common characteristics, such as the type of weakness (e.g., SQL injection, cross-site scripting) and the affected technology stack. What is this process of categorizing vulnerabilities called?
Vulnerability indexing
Vulnerability classification
Vulnerability scoring
Vulnerability enumeration
Answer Description
Vulnerability classification is the process of systematically categorizing security weaknesses based on their nature, such as the type of flaw (e.g., buffer overflow, misconfiguration) or the affected system. This allows an organization to group similar issues, assign them to the correct teams, and develop a prioritized and organized approach to remediation. Vulnerability scoring, like CVSS, assigns a severity score but does not categorize the vulnerability type. Vulnerability enumeration, like CVE, involves identifying and listing individual vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between vulnerability classification and vulnerability scoring?
What role does CVE play in vulnerability management?
How does vulnerability classification improve remediation efforts?
What is the primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure?
Enforcing policy by shutting down systems that do not adhere to predefined configurations
Remediating vulnerabilities to prevent the exploitation of a system
Identifying unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident
Conducting retrospective analysis to determine the root cause of a security incident
Answer Description
The primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure is to identify unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident. While it might also help in enforcing policy by triggering alerts when anomalies are detected, and can be instrumental in retrospective analysis after an incident, its essential function centers on the prompt detection of potentially malicious activity. Understanding the nuances of monitoring's main role is important in distinguishing it from ancillary benefits such as policy enforcement or post-incident analysis.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are examples of unusual patterns or behavior in a security infrastructure?
How do monitoring systems detect these unusual patterns?
How does monitoring help distinguish a potential threat from false positives?
In the event of a planned software upgrade impacting the critical infrastructure of a financial institution's transaction system, which of these actions is MOST crucial to ensure the upgrade can be rolled back without affecting the normal operational capability and security of the system?
Maintain strict version control during the upgrade process.
Update all operational documentation prior to the upgrade.
Ensure effective communication with stakeholders about the upgrade.
Establish a detailed backout plan in case the upgrade fails.
Answer Description
Developing a backout plan is indispensable in change management, especially for crucial systems within a financial institution. A backout plan ensures that in the event the upgrade introduces new vulnerabilities or disrupts services, the system can be returned to its pre-upgrade state, thereby maintaining operational capability and security. While engaging stakeholders, implementing version control, and updating documentation are all essential components of change management, none of these steps address the immediate preservation of system operational integrity and security in the case of an unsuccessful upgrade as directly and effectively as a well-structured backout plan does.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a backout plan in change management?
Why is a backout plan more critical than version control in this scenario?
What makes a backout plan effective in critical operations?
A systems administrator is implementing a new authentication policy that requires users to provide their password and a six-digit code from a hardware token. Which of the following security concepts does this scenario BEST describe?
Biometric authentication
Multifactor authentication
Authorization
Single sign-on
Answer Description
The correct option is multifactor authentication (MFA). MFA enhances security by requiring two or more different authentication factors to verify a user's identity. In this scenario, the password is 'something you know', and the hardware token is 'something you have'. Combining these two factors from different categories fulfills the requirement for MFA. Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme that allows a user to log in with a single set of credentials to access multiple applications. Biometric authentication uses unique physical characteristics like fingerprints or facial scans ('something you are'). Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to resources after a user has been successfully authenticated.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the three main factors used in multifactor authentication?
How does MFA differ from single sign-on (SSO)?
What are common types of hardware tokens used in MFA?
A company is assessing various options to enhance the security of their facility and data center. Which of the following would serve as the best deterrent control to discourage trespassers from entering the secured premises of the data center?
Installing highly visible security cameras around the perimeter and entry points
Deploying mantraps at the primary entrance to the data center
Implementing badge readers at all points of entrance and exit
Erecting security awareness posters regarding tailgating in employee areas
Answer Description
Security cameras are a form of deterrent control designed to discourage unauthorized individuals from attempting to access a secure area. Their presence is often enough to dissuade potential attackers as it increases the likelihood of being caught and recorded, which can lead to identification and potential prosecution. In contrast, badge readers and mantraps, while part of physical security measures, are types of preventive controls that actively prevent unauthorized access. Security awareness posters do not directly discourage trespassers from entering secured premises, as they are more focused on educating authorized personnel on maintaining security practices.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between deterrent and preventive controls?
Why are visible security cameras effective as a deterrent?
What role do mantraps play in physical security compared to deterrents like cameras?
Which authentication protocol uses a ticket-granting service as part of its mechanism to provide access to resources across a network?
Direct Access
Simple Sign-On
Kerberos
Network Access Token
Answer Description
This protocol is known for using a trusted third-party ticket-granting service to provide secure access to resources. It mitigates the risk of eavesdropping and replay attacks by avoiding the need to transmit passwords over the network. Instead, a client requests an access ticket from the ticket-granting service, which if granted, allows the client to access the desired service using that ticket. In contrast, Direct Access grants remote access to internal networks over IPv6 transitions, Simple Sign-On represents a one-time authentication process across multiple systems, which is not particularly related to ticket-granting, and Network Access Token is a made-up term not associated with a real-world authentication protocol.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does the ticket-granting process in Kerberos work?
Why is Kerberos considered secure against eavesdropping and replay attacks?
What is the role of the Key Distribution Center (KDC) in Kerberos?
A company is deploying a new critical web application that must ensure continuous operation even in the event of a single system failure. Which of the following strategies should the company employ to best align with high availability considerations for this application?
Implement load balancing across multiple servers
Take frequent snapshots of the application's data
Increase the memory capacity on the primary server
Configure a failover cluster for the application servers
Answer Description
Implementing load balancing is the correct strategy because it distributes traffic across multiple active servers, ensuring that if one server goes down, the application remains available via the other servers. This directly meets the requirement for continuous operation. Taking frequent snapshots is a data recovery and backup strategy, not a high availability solution for preventing downtime. Increasing memory capacity improves performance but does not address a single point of failure. Configuring a failover cluster is a valid high availability strategy, but it typically involves a primary server handling all traffic until it fails, at which point a secondary server takes over. This process can cause a brief service interruption, making load balancing the superior choice for ensuring seamless, continuous operation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is load balancing, and how does it ensure high availability?
How does a failover cluster differ from load balancing in high availability setups?
Why is increasing memory capacity not a viable high availability solution?
A network administrator wants to implement an intrusion detection system that can monitor network traffic without impacting network performance or flow. Which of the following device attributes would be most suitable for this requirement?
Inline active device
Tap active device
Tap passive device
Inline passive device
Answer Description
A tap passive device monitors network traffic by copying data from the network without being in the direct flow of traffic. This means it does not impact network performance or flow because it is not inline with the traffic; instead, it passively receives a copy of the data. Inline devices, whether active or passive, are placed directly in the path of network traffic and can introduce latency or points of failure. Active devices can take actions such as blocking or modifying traffic, which could impact performance. Therefore, a tap passive device is the most suitable for monitoring without affecting network performance.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a tap passive device?
How is an inline device different from a passive device?
When would you choose an active device over a passive device?
To comply with a new security policy, an organization must guarantee that only explicitly approved software can execute on its high-value database servers. The security team configures the host operating systems so that every process is blocked by default unless the executable appears on a predefined list of trusted applications. Which type of control does this configuration implement?
Discretionary access control (DAC)
Role-based access control (RBAC)
Allow list (application allowlisting)
Deny list (application denylisting)
Answer Description
The scenario describes an allow list (application allowlisting). With an allow list, the default action is to deny all code execution except for applications that have been explicitly approved, thereby enforcing a "deny-by-default, allow-by-exception" model. A deny list works in the opposite manner by allowing everything except items specifically blocked. Role-based and discretionary access controls govern user or role permissions, not which binaries may run, so they do not fit the scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is application allowlisting?
How does allowlisting differ from denylisting?
Why is allowlisting preferred for high-value systems?
A systems administrator observes that every Friday afternoon, right after the stock market closes, a series of unauthorized transactions and excessive resource utilization occurs on a finance company's trading application server. What type of malware is most likely responsible for this recurring incident?
Trojan
Spyware
Worm
Logic bomb
Answer Description
A logic bomb is a type of malware that is designed to execute a malicious action when certain conditions are met, such as a specific time or event. The recurring nature of the incident every Friday suggests that it is triggered by a time-based event, characteristic of a logic bomb. Other types of malware like Trojans or worms do not have this behavior tied to a specific condition and typically continue to execute or propagate regardless of specific events or times.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes a logic bomb different from other types of malware?
How can systems administrators detect and prevent logic bombs?
Why is it important to address insider threats related to logic bombs?
A security administrator has deployed vendor patches to a group of web servers after a critical vulnerability was discovered. According to the vulnerability-management process, which of the following activities should be performed next to confirm that the servers are no longer susceptible to the original flaw?
Document an exception for systems that could not be patched.
Perform a vulnerability rescan of the patched servers.
Assign new Common Vulnerability Enumeration (CVE) identifiers.
Calculate the exposure factor to determine business impact.
Answer Description
Performing a vulnerability rescan immediately after patch deployment verifies that the patch was installed correctly and that the previously detected vulnerability is no longer present. This validation step helps identify any systems where the patch failed and ensures that no new issues were introduced. The other choices (calculating exposure factor, assigning new CVE identifiers, or documenting an exception) do not test whether the vulnerability has truly been mitigated.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is a vulnerability rescan necessary after patch deployment?
What is the difference between a vulnerability scan and a penetration test?
What is the role of a Common Vulnerability Enumeration (CVE) identifier?
Which of the following actions provides logical (software-defined) segmentation rather than physical segmentation within an enterprise network?
Installing an air-gapped workstation that has no network interface card.
Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on existing switch ports to keep voice and data traffic isolated.
Running a point-to-point dark-fiber link between two database servers to separate their traffic from the LAN.
Deploying dedicated cabling and standalone switches to isolate the payroll network.
Answer Description
Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on the existing switch infrastructure isolates traffic at Layers 2-3 using software-defined settings. This is a logical segmentation method because it relies on switch port configuration and IP addressing, not on additional physical hardware or cabling. Installing air-gapped systems, dedicating separate switches/cabling, or running a stand-alone dark-fiber link all require new physical infrastructure and therefore constitute physical segmentation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between logical segmentation and physical segmentation in networks?
How do VLANs work to create logical segmentation?
Why is logical segmentation often preferred over physical segmentation?
Which of the following best describes the process of ensuring that each information asset receives a label to indicate its value, owners, and level of sensitivity within an organization?
Ownership
Classification
Monitoring
Enumeration
Answer Description
Classification is the correct answer because it involves assigning labels to assets to indicate their importance, ownership, and the degree of sensitivity or confidentiality. This step is crucial for determining how the assets should be handled and protected. Ownership refers to who is responsible for the asset and not the process of labeling assets. Monitoring refers to the ongoing process of tracking asset state and is not specifically about labeling assets. Enumeration is the act of creating a detailed list of assets, which is a broader concept than specifically determining their classification.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is classification important in information security?
How is classification different from enumeration?
What role does asset ownership play in the classification process?
Before beginning a penetration test, a document must be established to outline the boundaries and methods of the test. Which document is specifically designed for this purpose?
A detailed document specifying tasks to be completed under a contract, often as part of a larger agreement
A document that specifies the actions, scope, methods, and protocols to be adhered to during a penetration test
A document that outlines the delivered services, their standards, and the legal framework for ongoing relationships
A document that formalizes the mutual understanding and general intent of the collaborating parties
Answer Description
The Rules of Engagement document is critical in penetration testing as it outlines the scope, methods, timeline, and contact points, and it defines what activities are permitted during the test. This mitigates the risk of unauthorized or unintended actions that could cause harm to the organization or lead to legal complications. While service agreements, memorandums, and work statements have their respective places in the formalization of services, they do not provide the detailed rules and limitations required for a penetration test.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Rules of Engagement (RoE) document in penetration testing?
Why is the Rules of Engagement document important in cybersecurity testing?
What is the difference between a Rules of Engagement document and a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
Which of the following statements BEST explains why a network firewall alone cannot provide the same level of protection as encryption for data stored on a network file server?
Encryption secures data moving across the network, whereas a firewall secures all data that resides on the server's drives.
Neither firewalls nor encryption protect data at rest; only physical security controls such as locks and guards can do so.
A firewall enforces access rules for network traffic, but only encryption renders the stored data unreadable to unauthorized users, so both controls are required to protect data at rest.
A properly configured firewall automatically encrypts any files transmitted or stored behind it, eliminating the need for separate data-at-rest encryption.
Answer Description
A firewall filters or blocks network traffic according to predefined rules, helping to prevent unauthorized access over the network. It does not transform the actual data on the server. If an attacker bypasses the firewall-through stolen credentials, an insider threat, or physical access-the files remain readable unless they are encrypted. Encrypting the disk, volume, or files converts them into ciphertext that is unintelligible without the decryption key, preserving confidentiality even if the storage media is stolen or the system is compromised. Therefore, encryption-not the firewall-provides protection for data at rest.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why doesn't a firewall encrypt data?
What is 'data at rest,' and how does encryption protect it?
How might an attacker bypass a firewall, and why does encryption matter in that situation?
Your employer has always been very security conscious and to date does not use any company owned mobile or wireless devices like laptops and smart phones. A new project aims to evaluate options on the market for security implementing laptops within the company. One requirement is that all data stored on the laptop's drive must be encrypted. What type of drive could fulfill this requirement?
RAID 0
VPN
SED
PKI-SSD
Answer Description
A Self Encrypting Drive (SED) is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypted all data saved to the disk. It is a hardware based encryption meaning that a circuit built in the disk drive controller handles the encrypted/decryption itself. All contents of the drive are encrypted including the operating system and any user files or documents.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does an SED (Self-Encrypting Drive) differ from software-based encryption?
What happens if the encryption key for an SED is lost?
Can SEDs protect data if the laptop is stolen while powered on?
Your company has recently deployed endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions across the organization. As a security analyst, you are reviewing the endpoint logs and notice several hundred login attempts that were successful after multiple failures from the same IP address. What is the MOST likely security issue these logs indicate?
Phishing attack
Brute force attack
Insider threat
Man-in-the-middle attack
Denial of Service (DoS) attack
Answer Description
A large amount of failed login attempts followed by a successful login from the same IP address is a strong indicator of a brute force attack, where an attacker systematically tries different passwords or passphrases with the hope of eventually guessing correctly. The other options, although plausible under different circumstances, do not align as closely with the specific pattern of login attempts described in the question.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a brute force attack?
How can EDR solutions help detect brute force attacks?
What steps can organizations take to prevent brute force attacks?
Which of the following best describes a method that packages an application along with its dependencies into a standardized unit for software development?
Virtual machines
Containerization
Function as a Service (FaaS)
Hardware security module (HSM)
Answer Description
Containerization allows developers to create containers, which are standardized units that package up code and all its dependencies so the application runs quickly and reliably from one computing environment to another. Virtual machines, on the other hand, include a full copy of an operating system along with the application, which is not as lightweight or portable as containerization. Function as a Service (FaaS) is a cloud computing service that provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage application functionalities without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an app. Hardware security modules are physical devices that safeguard and manage digital keys for strong authentication and provide cryptoprocessing; they do not package applications with their dependencies.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between containerization and virtual machines?
What are some common tools used for containerization?
How does containerization improve software development and deployment?
A security analyst needs to investigate a potential data breach that is suspected to have occurred over the past week. The investigation requires correlating log data from firewalls, servers, and intrusion detection systems to identify suspicious patterns and trace the timeline of events. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this type of historical analysis and data correlation?
A real-time network performance monitor
A packet capture utility
A security operations dashboard
A system vulnerability scanner
Answer Description
The correct answer is a security operations dashboard. These dashboards, typically integrated with a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, are specifically designed to aggregate, correlate, and visualize log data from numerous sources over time. This makes them the ideal tool for historical analysis and identifying trends or patterns indicative of a breach. A real-time network performance monitor focuses on current bandwidth and latency, not historical log correlation. A packet capture utility provides deep, low-level data but is cumbersome for analyzing long-term, aggregated trends across multiple systems. A system vulnerability scanner is used to identify unpatched systems and misconfigurations, not for analyzing event logs to investigate an active or past incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a SIEM system and how does it function?
How does a security operations dashboard differ from a packet capture utility?
Why are real-time network performance monitors unsuitable for historical data analysis?
During a routine vulnerability assessment of the network, an analyst receives a notification of potential malicious traffic that, upon further investigation, turns out to be legitimate and normal network activity. What does this notification exemplify?
A false negative
A false positive
An intrusion attempt
A true positive
Answer Description
A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity as a threat. In this scenario, the system erroneously flagged normal network traffic as potentially malicious, which is a classic example of a false positive. It is crucial for security analysts to recognize and address false positives to avoid unnecessary responses to non-threatening activities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What causes a false positive in cybersecurity tools?
How do false positives differ from false negatives?
How can analysts reduce the occurrence of false positives?
Cool beans!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.