CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A security administrator is verifying a new software update from a trusted vendor. The administrator confirms that the update is digitally signed with the vendor's valid code-signing certificate. Why might this update still pose a security risk to the organization?
A valid digital signature automatically bypasses all antivirus and endpoint protection scanning.
The vendor's build environment could have been compromised, allowing malicious code to be signed with a legitimate certificate.
Code-signing certificates cannot be revoked by the Certificate Authority (CA) once issued.
Digital signatures only provide confidentiality for the update package through encryption.
Answer Description
A digital signature provides assurance that a file has not been altered since it was signed (integrity) and that it originated from the holder of the private key (authenticity). However, it does not guarantee the code is free from malware. As seen in major supply chain attacks, if an attacker compromises a vendor's internal build process, they can inject malicious code into the software before it is signed. The software, now containing malware, is then legitimately signed by the vendor, making it appear trustworthy. Another primary attack vector is the theft of a vendor's code-signing private key, which allows an attacker to sign their own malicious files. Therefore, relying solely on a digital signature is insufficient.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a digital signature and how does it ensure integrity and authenticity?
How can a compromised build environment pose a security risk, even with a valid digital signature?
What are the risks if a vendor's code-signing private key is stolen?
A company is drafting its initial set of IT security documents. Among them, there is a need to establish a document that offers general advice and recommended practices for users to follow when dealing with company IT resources. Which type of security document should the company develop to fulfill this requirement?
Standards
Procedures
Policies
Guidelines
Answer Description
Guidelines are recommendations and best practices for users to follow. They are not strictly enforced but are designed to provide general advice on how to use IT resources securely. An organization would develop guidelines to offer staff general security advice. Policies, on the other hand, are mandatory rules that must be followed, and standards are specific low-level mandatory controls. Procedures are detailed step-by-step instructions on how to perform specific tasks.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of security guidelines?
How do security guidelines differ from policies and procedures?
What are some examples of IT security guidelines?
As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?
IDS
Unified Threat Management
IPS
Jump Server
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is adept at continuously monitoring network traffic for abnormal behavior and is specifically designed to alert the security team about potential threats without modifying, discarding, or preventing the flow of traffic, which aligns with the requirement in the given scenario. On the other hand, an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) not only detects but also takes action to prevent the identified threats, which could interfere with data flow. A Jump Server is a hardened and monitored device that acts as a bridging point for administrators to connect to other servers but does not perform real-time threat monitoring. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device combines several security functions into one, yet its threat detection capabilities are broader and not solely focused on network traffic monitoring.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS detect anomalies in network traffic?
Where is the best place to position an IDS within a network?
This email protocol provides a mechanism for senders and receivers to determine whether a message is legitimately from the claimed domain and what action to take if it is not. The protocol builds on the results of Sender Policy Framework and DomainKeys Identified Mail checks.
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC)
Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
Brand Indicators for Message Identification (BIMI)
Answer Description
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC) lets domain owners publish a policy that instructs receiving mail servers how to handle messages that fail SPF and/or DKIM checks-typically to monitor (none), quarantine, or reject them. By aligning the visible From domain with authenticated domains, DMARC significantly reduces successful spoofing attacks, thereby strengthening an organization's email security posture.
Ask Bash
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What is SPF and how does it work with DMARC?
What role does DKIM play in email authentication?
What are DMARC alignment and its key policies?
Users within a company are experiencing intermittent inability to access critical file-sharing services, while internet connectivity is unaffected. The IT department notes unusually high network traffic directed at the servers during these outages. What is the MOST likely cause behind the file-sharing service being inaccessible?
An ARP spoofing attack causing content redirection.
Switching infrastructure failure leading to intermittent network partitioning.
A DDoS attack on the company's file-sharing servers.
A misconfigured ACL blocking access to the file-sharing service.
Answer Description
The correct answer is a DDoS attack. This type of attack floods the server with an excessive amount of traffic, intending to exceed the server's capacity to handle requests, leading to inaccessibility for legitimate users. The described symptoms—high traffic volume and service-specific disruption without affecting the entire network—are indicative of such an attack. Incorrect answers offer alternatives such as ARP spoofing, which might lead to network connectivity problems, but does not typically cause a massive surge in traffic to one particular service. Likewise, problems with the switching infrastructure or a misconfigured ACL, while they can cause network issues, wouldn't typically result in a sudden increase in traffic and would be more likely to affect multiple services or result in different symptoms.
Ask Bash
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What is a DDoS attack?
How does high traffic indicate a DDoS attack instead of other issues?
What measures can protect against DDoS attacks?
A security administrator at a mid-size company is selecting an algorithm for secure email encryption that relies on a public/private key pair rather than a shared secret, to implement digital signatures as well. Which of the following algorithms satisfies this requirement?
AES
RC4
RSA
Blowfish
Answer Description
RSA uses mathematically linked public and private keys to encrypt or sign data, making it an asymmetric algorithm. The other listed algorithms-AES, Blowfish, and RC4-are all symmetric ciphers that rely on the same shared key for both encryption and decryption.
Ask Bash
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What is RSA and why is it suitable for secure email encryption?
How does RSA differ from symmetric encryption algorithms like AES or Blowfish?
What role do digital signatures play in RSA and email encryption?
Which of the following scenarios would most likely warrant an investigation into potential account compromise due to indications of 'Concurrent session usage'?
A user logs into a VPN from their home network and then logs into a web application using the same credentials from the same network
A user's corporate email account is accessed simultaneously from a workstation in the company's New York office and a mobile device in Paris
After changing passwords, a user experiences a series of re-authentication prompts on their previously authenticated devices
A user logs into their email from a new device in their home country a day after logging in from their office computer
Answer Description
In the correct scenario, two sessions are initiated from geographically distant locations at the exact same time, which is unlikely to occur under normal circumstances and could indicate that the user's credentials have been compromised and used by an unauthorized party. The other options, although they may also raise some concerns, do not present the clear-cut, simultaneous nature of concurrent session usage that strongly suggests an account compromise.
Ask Bash
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What does 'concurrent session usage' mean in cybersecurity?
How can organizations detect and respond to concurrent session usage?
Why does geographically distant concurrent access indicate a potential compromise?
Your company is engaging with a vendor to implement a new customer relationship management system. To protect your proprietary data and client information during discussions, what should be signed prior to sharing detailed system specifications and data flows?
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
Master Service Agreement (MSA)
Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
Service-Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer Description
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) should be signed by the vendor before sharing any sensitive information. The NDA is a legal contract that establishes a confidential relationship between the parties and specifies that the information shared is to be used only for the purposes outlined in the agreement. NDAs are essential for protecting sensitive information from being disclosed to unauthorized parties or used inappropriately.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of an NDA in business agreements?
How is an NDA different from an MOU?
Can an NDA cover all types of sensitive data, including client information?
What type of risk assessment is conducted as needed, often in response to specific events or changes in the environment?
Qualitative
Ad Hoc
Recurring
Continuous
Answer Description
An 'Ad Hoc' risk assessment is performed as required, without a regular schedule, often in response to significant changes or new threats to an organization's environment. It contrasts with recurring or continuous assessments that happen at regular intervals or constantly, respectively. A 'Qualitative' risk assessment refers to the process that prioritizes risks based on their severity and impact, rather than their frequency or timing.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between Ad Hoc and Continuous risk assessments?
What types of events might trigger an Ad Hoc risk assessment?
How does a Qualitative risk assessment compare to other types of risk assessments?
After applying a security patch, an administrator notes that the patching process completed without any reported errors. What is the BEST next step to verify that the underlying vulnerability has actually been eliminated?
Initiate a targeted rescan of the system with the organization's vulnerability scanner to confirm remediation.
Rely on the patch management tool's success log and close the ticket without additional action.
Wait until the next scheduled quarterly enterprise-wide scan to see if the vulnerability reappears.
Monitor SIEM alerts for seven days; if no new alerts are generated, assume the vulnerability is resolved.
Answer Description
Even when a patching job reports success, the vulnerability might persist because the patch failed to install on every file, did not reach all affected hosts, or introduced new issues. Running a follow-up vulnerability scan (or targeted rescan of the affected system) provides objective evidence that the vulnerability identifier (e.g., CVE) no longer appears and that no additional findings were introduced, thereby closing the remediation loop.
Ask Bash
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Why is a targeted rescan important after applying a patch?
What is a CVE, and how is it relevant to vulnerability scanning?
What is the role of a vulnerability scanner in system security?
Which of the following BEST describes a decentralized security governance structure?
Decisions are made exclusively at the executive level.
All security decisions are outsourced to a third-party vendor.
Lower-level departments have decision-making authority.
A single, rigid security policy is enforced across all departments.
Answer Description
In a decentralized governance structure, decision-making authority is distributed among various departments or business units, allowing for policies and procedures tailored to their specific needs. This contrasts with a centralized model where decisions are made at the executive level and a single policy is enforced company-wide. While security functions can be outsourced, this is a separate concept from the internal decision-making structure of an organization's governance model.
Ask Bash
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What are the main advantages of a decentralized security governance structure?
How does a decentralized security model differ from a centralized model?
What are some risks associated with a decentralized security governance structure?
Your coworker is out sick due to an illness. In his absence you have received the results of a vulnerability scan he ordered from an external provider. Unfortunately your coworker did not give you any information on what type of scan was conducted or what methods were used. The results show that 3 injection vulnerabilities were identified but are only possible when attempted from an authenticated user account. Based on the information you have, what type of vulnerability scan was most likely completed?
Gray box
Credentialed
Intrusive
Non-intrusive
Answer Description
A credentialed vulnerability scan was done. While the other answers could also be correct (e.g. it could have been an intrusive and credentialed scan) but with the information given in the question you could not know this. When a credentialed scan is used the scanner has valid user credentials while in a non-credentialed attack they do not.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between a credentialed and non-credentialed vulnerability scan?
Why are injection vulnerabilities often linked to authenticated user accounts?
What makes a credentialed scan more effective for certain types of vulnerabilities?
A company's network was infiltrated by an attacker who used sophisticated techniques to bypass advanced security measures. The attacker was well-funded and had advanced capabilities. Sensitive data was exfiltrated over an extended period without detection. Which type of threat actor is most likely responsible for this attack?
Unskilled Attacker
Insider Threat
Nation-State Actor
Hacktivist
Answer Description
Nation-state actors are typically well-funded and possess advanced capabilities, enabling them to conduct sophisticated attacks that can bypass even the most robust security measures. They often focus on long-term objectives, such as espionage and data exfiltration over extended periods. Insider threats involve individuals within the organization but may not have the resources or need to use advanced techniques for prolonged undetected access. Hacktivists are motivated by political or social causes but generally lack the resources for highly sophisticated attacks. Unskilled attackers, also known as script kiddies, lack the expertise and resources to perform advanced and prolonged infiltration without detection.
Ask Bash
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What makes nation-state actors different from other threat actors?
What is data exfiltration, and how do attackers achieve it?
What are zero-day exploits, and why are they dangerous?
What does the term 'resource provisioning' refer to in the context of securing computing resources?
The act of installing antivirus software on workstations and servers
The process of allocating and managing computing resources to users or systems according to security policies
The step-by-step methodology of responding to security incidents
The storage and classification of organizational data in accordance with established compliance requirements
Answer Description
Resource provisioning refers to the process of allocating and managing computing resources, like user accounts and permission sets, to users or systems in a way that aligns with organizational security policies. Incorrect answers might seem plausible because they involve similar processes, but they do not accurately describe the act of resource allocation and management as resource provisioning does.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of computing resources involved in resource provisioning?
How do organizations ensure security during resource provisioning?
What is the role of automation in resource provisioning?
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between managerial controls and technical controls?
Managerial controls replace the need for technical controls
Managerial controls are solely responsible for preventing security incidents
Managerial controls provide the framework for implementing technical controls
Managerial controls are a subset of technical controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls, such as security policies and risk management, provide the framework and guidelines for implementing technical controls. Technical controls, like firewalls and encryption, are the tools used to enforce the policies and procedures established by managerial controls. Managerial controls do not replace the need for technical controls, but rather work in conjunction with them to create a comprehensive security strategy. While managerial controls can help prevent incidents, they are not solely responsible for incident prevention, as that requires a combination of various control types.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of managerial controls?
How do technical controls enforce managerial controls?
Why is it important to combine managerial and technical controls?
A company needs to systematically manage updates and modifications to its IT systems to prevent unintended consequences during regular operations. Which operational control MOST effectively addresses this need?
Change management
Intrusion detection
Encryption protocols
Security awareness training
Answer Description
Change management is an operational control that provides a structured approach for handling modifications to systems. It ensures that all changes are properly reviewed, tested, and approved before implementation, minimizing the risk of disruptions. Intrusion detection is a technical control that monitors for security breaches, security awareness training is a managerial control focused on educating staff, and encryption protocols are technical controls for data protection. Therefore, change management is the most effective operational control for managing system updates and modifications in day-to-day operations.
Ask Bash
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What are operational controls in IT management?
How does change management minimize risk in IT systems?
Why is change management better suited for system updates than intrusion detection?
A company has multiple online services with different compute requirements, ranging from high-intensity processing for video rendering to low-intensity processes for a document storage system. The CTO wants to ensure that these services remain operational with minimal disruption in the event of a hardware failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST address the compute resilience needs for the company's diverse set of services?
Single powerful server with a hot spare
Clustered servers with resource balancing
Multiple air-gapped systems for each service
Decentralized servers without load balancing
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Clustered servers with resource balancing' because it allows for the distribution of compute tasks across multiple servers, providing high availability for the various services with differing compute requirements. In the event of a server failure, tasks can be redistributed to other servers in the cluster, minimizing downtime. The incorrect answers are: 'Single powerful server with a hot spare' does not address the diverse compute needs and may lead to underutilization or bottlenecks. 'Multiple air-gapped systems' could provide isolation for security but would not be efficient for resource management across services with different compute needs. 'Decentralized servers without load balancing' would not efficiently distribute compute tasks and could result in suboptimal performance and higher risk of service disruptions.
Ask Bash
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What are clustered servers, and how do they work?
How does resource balancing improve compute resilience?
Why is load balancing critical in clustered server environments?
Which of the following best describes why an organization must be aware of local and regional regulations when developing their security program?
To ensure compliance with specific legal requirements that may not be covered by national or global standards.
To avoid the need for customizing security measures for different company branches.
To apply universal standards of cybersecurity that are recognized globally.
To simplify the security program management by adhering to broader compliance laws.
Answer Description
An organization needs to comply with local and regional regulations to ensure that they are not violating any laws that may be specific to the jurisdictions they operate in. Not understanding these local nuances could lead to legal issues, such as fines or sanctions. For example, certain regions may have specific requirements for data protection that differ from national laws, such as stricter privacy regulations that mandate data residency within the region. National and global standards, while essential, may not cover all aspects of the local regulatory environment, and universal standards do not typically exist for cybersecurity, hence the specificity of the correct answer.
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What are some examples of local or regional regulations that organizations must consider for their security programs?
How do local regulations differ from national or global cybersecurity standards?
What are the consequences of failing to comply with local or regional regulations in a security program?
Under a Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) mobile deployment model, employees are permitted to connect any personal device they prefer to the corporate network, without having to select from a company-approved list of devices.
False
True
Answer Description
The statement is false. The Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) model requires employees to select a device from a curated list of company-approved options. This approach allows the organization to ensure that devices meet its security and compatibility standards, giving IT more control than a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) model. The scenario described, where any personal device is allowed, is characteristic of a BYOD policy, not CYOD.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between CYOD and BYOD?
Why does CYOD offer better security than BYOD?
What tools can organizations use to manage CYOD devices?
When deploying a new fleet of servers, what is the BEST initial step to ensure that they adhere to the company's security policy?
Conduct a security awareness training for IT staff before server deployment
Scan the servers with a vulnerability scanner immediately after deployment
Use industry best practices as a guide for system configuration
Create and implement a documented security configuration baseline
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Create and implement a documented security configuration baseline'. This is because before deploying new servers or any computing resources, it is essential to have a standard, documented configuration that aligns with organizational security policies. This security configuration baseline serves as a reference point to ensure all systems start from a secure state. Using industry best practices as a guide does not guarantee alignment with the specific organization's policies, which is why it is not the best initial step. Scanning the servers with a vulnerability scanner after deployment or conducting a security awareness training for IT staff are important practices, but they come after establishing a baseline for system configuration.
Ask Bash
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What is a security configuration baseline?
Why is using industry best practices alone not enough for server configuration?
How does scanning for vulnerabilities differ from implementing a security baseline?
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