CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A data center's security policy requires that critical network services remain available to users even during equipment failures. To comply with this policy, the network engineer needs to configure a security appliance so that if it experiences a malfunction, legitimate network traffic is not interrupted, though it might reduce security temporarily. Which of the following failure modes should the engineer configure?
Fail-secure
Fail-safe
Fail-closed
Fail-open
Answer Description
Configuring the security appliance to fail-open ensures that in the event of a malfunction, network traffic continues to flow, maintaining availability for users. While this may temporarily reduce security by allowing potentially malicious traffic, it aligns with the policy priority of uninterrupted service. In contrast, fail-closed or fail-secure modes would block all traffic upon failure, prioritizing security over availability, which does not meet the organization's requirements. Fail-safe can be ambiguous but often implies defaulting to a secure state, similar to fail-closed. Therefore, choosing fail-open addresses the need for continuous availability despite equipment failures.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does fail-open mean in network security?
How does fail-safe differ from fail-open?
What are the implications of using fail-closed in network security?
Within the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework, which component is specifically responsible for tracking user activities-such as logon time, commands executed, and data transferred-and generating audit records that hold users accountable for their actions?
Authorization
Authentication
Auditing
Accounting
Answer Description
Accounting is the AAA component that records session details (e.g., start and stop times, data volume, commands issued). These logs provide an audit trail that can be reviewed to attribute actions to individual users and verify compliance. Authentication verifies identity, Authorization determines what an authenticated user is allowed to do, and Auditing is a broader review process rather than a core AAA element.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between Authorization and Accounting?
What are some common methods of implementing Authorization?
Why is Accounting important in a security context?
A security analyst is reviewing the design of an embedded system. The system is designed to periodically download firmware updates from a public HTTP server and install them. The analyst notes that the update process does not validate a digital signature for the new firmware file before installation. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the MOST significant security risk in this design?
Time-of-check to time-of-use (TOCTOU)
VM escape
Directory traversal
Malicious update
Answer Description
The correct option is 'Malicious update'. The most significant vulnerability in this design is that the lack of digital signature validation allows an attacker to introduce a malicious update. An attacker could use an on-path attack to provide a compromised firmware file. Because the device does not verify the file's authenticity and integrity, it will install the malicious firmware, potentially leading to a full system compromise. VM escape is a vulnerability specific to virtualized environments. A TOCTOU attack is a type of race condition. Directory traversal is an attack to access unauthorized files. None of these other options describe the primary flaw in the described firmware update process.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is firmware and why is it important for devices?
What is signature validation and how does it enhance security?
What are the potential consequences of not validating firmware updates?
A company's IT department is implementing a new web application that will store sensitive customer information. As part of the design, they need to ensure appropriate user access to data within the application. Which of the following methods is MOST effective in restricting access to the data based on a user's role within the company?
Requiring username and password authentication for application logins
Using MAC to assign classification labels to data
Allowing DAC where users control access to their data
RBAC
Answer Description
Role-based access control (RBAC) is effective for restricting access to data within an application based on a user's role within an organization. RBAC policies ensure that only authorized users are granted the permissions necessary to access, modify, or interact with sensitive data, thus maintaining the principle of least privilege. It simplifies management and helps in effectively enforcing enterprise security policies.
While mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC) are valid access control models, MAC is more commonly used in environments requiring high security and enforces access based on classified levels, which may be overly complex for a web application in a business setting. DAC, on the other hand, is based on the discretion of the owner, which could lead to a lack of consistent policy enforcement.
Username and password authentication, although necessary for verifying identity, does not inherently restrict actions based on user roles, hence it would not be effective on its own in this scenario for controlling permissions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key principles behind Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
How does RBAC differ from Discretionary Access Control (DAC)?
Why is role assignment important in an RBAC system?
A member of the IT department received a call from an individual claiming to be from the telecommunications company that provides services to the organization. The caller requested the IT staff member to confirm sensitive configuration details about the company's PBX system to help resolve an alleged network issue. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the IT staff member to take?
Verify the caller's identity by calling back on a known, official number of the telecommunications company before providing any information
Place the caller on a brief hold to inform a supervisor about the request and then return to share the information
Tell the caller to send an official request for information through email and then proceed with the call
Share the requested information to resolve the network issue promptly as the caller seems knowledgeable about the company's telecommunications setup
Answer Description
The best action is to verify the identity of the caller through a callback to a known, official phone number for the telecommunications provider before discussing sensitive information. This is because providing such details over the phone without verification can lead to potential security breaches. Unverified calls, especially those requesting sensitive information, are likely to be vishing attacks where attackers attempt to extract critical information by impersonating legitimate entities. Unlike the incorrect options, immediate verification is critical and proper protocol in such situations; informing a supervisor is also advisable but does not directly address the potential immediate threat. Sharing the requested information or placing the caller on a brief hold without attempting to verify their identity doesn't reduce the risk associated with the potential vishing attempt.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is vishing and how can it affect organizations?
What are the best practices for verifying a caller's identity?
What are PBX systems and why is their security important?
A financial services company notices that their online banking platform becomes unresponsive during certain peak hours despite having no unusual activity from legitimate users. The IT team suspects a network-based attack designed to overwhelm their servers. Which type of attack are they most likely experiencing?
Credential Replay
Wireless Eavesdropping
DNS Spoofing
DDoS
Answer Description
The correct answer is a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack. DDoS attacks aim to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources, disrupting legitimate user access. Credential Replay involves reusing stolen credentials to gain unauthorized access, DNS Spoofing redirects traffic to malicious sites, and Wireless Eavesdropping intercepts wireless communications. None of these directly cause service unavailability through traffic overload.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a DDoS attack and how does it work?
What measures can organizations take to protect against DDoS attacks?
What are botnets and how are they related to DDoS attacks?
What best describes a site that typically has infrastructure in place but lacks active systems and data, and requires a longer time to become operational after a disaster?
A backup location with no infrastructure in place, requiring complete setup from scratch
A backup location with infrastructure but without active systems requiring extended time to activate
A backup location that is partially operational with some systems and processes
A fully operational and synchronized replica of the primary site with real-time data replication
Answer Description
A 'Cold' site is a backup site that has the necessary infrastructure to resume operations but does not have any active systems or data. It takes a more extended period to set up and become fully operational compared to 'Hot' or 'Warm' sites. This type of site is often used as a cost-effective disaster recovery solution where immediate resumption of operations is not critical.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a Cold Site and a Hot Site?
What does 'data replication' mean?
What are the different types of disaster recovery sites?
During a post-incident review meeting, a security analyst is tasked with improving the incident response process based on recent events. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure a positive impact on future incident response capabilities?
Conducting a review of historical incident trends without making changes to existing procedures.
Deciding that the existing Incident Response Plan is sufficient since the incident was eventually contained.
Revising all security training materials without assessing their relevance to the incident.
Updating the Incident Response Plan with specific improvements identified from the incident.
Answer Description
The correct answer involves updating the Incident Response Plan with improvements identified during the review of a recent incident. This is the best choice because it directly applies feedback from actual incidents to enhance procedures and readiness for future events. Simply reviewing historical trends or concluding that the existing plan is sufficient does not provide the iterative improvement needed for effective incident response. Updating training materials without specific reference to the improvements identified may not address the issues encountered during the incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
What are some specific improvements that can be made to an Incident Response Plan?
Why is iterative improvement important in incident response?
You are selecting a biometrics system for your company. You want to make sure you select a system that is going to be the most accurate choice. What calculation would you use to compare the different systems?
Efficacy rates
FRR
CER
FAR
Answer Description
The crossover error rate (CER) is the point at which the false acceptance rate (FAR) and the false rejection rate (FRR) are equal. The lower the CER the more accurate the biometric system is.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Crossover Error Rate (CER)?
What are the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) and False Rejection Rate (FRR)?
How do you minimize the Crossover Error Rate (CER) in biometric systems?
Which system is implemented to safeguard sensitive information from being leaked outside of the corporate network?
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system
Firewall
Antivirus software
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Answer Description
A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system is implemented within an organization to ensure that sensitive information does not exit the corporate network in an unauthorized manner. It monitors, detects, and blocks the flow of data to prevent data breaches. Whereas an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is primarily used to identify and prevent known threats from affecting a network, and a Firewall provides a barrier between trusted and untrusted networks. Antivirus software is used to prevent, detect, and remove malware.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What types of sensitive information does a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system protect?
How does a DLP system monitor and block data flow?
What are the differences between a DLP system and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
What is the primary purpose of security groups in cloud computing?
They define rules for controlling network traffic to and from resources within a cloud environment.
They are used to group user accounts into a single administrative unit for assigning permissions across multiple resources.
They specify the encryption algorithms that must be used for data at rest in the cloud storage services.
They determine the geographical regions where the cloud provider is authorized to store data.
Answer Description
Security groups in cloud computing act as a virtual firewall for your servers to control inbound and outbound traffic. They are used to define rules that allow or deny network traffic to resources based on IP address, port, and protocol. The correct answer represents the purpose of a security group, while the incorrect answers either describe other security concepts or configurations not directly related to security groups.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the rules that can be defined in a security group?
How do security groups differ from network access control lists (ACLs)?
Can you apply security groups to multiple cloud resources at once?
A web hosting company is expanding its services to support high-traffic websites. The company needs to ensure that the resources are evenly distributed across servers to manage dynamic loads effectively. Which solution should the company primarily consider implementing to address this requirement?
Set up a server cluster that treats multiple servers as a single system for failover redundancy.
Adopt a serverless computing model to eliminate the need to manage server resources entirely.
Implement a load balancer to manage the distribution of the network traffic across the servers.
Utilize containerization to encapsulate the web applications on a single server.
Answer Description
Load balancing distributes workload across multiple servers or resources, often to improve responsiveness and availability of applications or websites. This solution is appropriate when there is a need to manage dynamic, uneven loads, and provide redundancy in case one of the servers fails. Clustering, on the other hand, is often used for increasing the availability of services by linking multiple servers so that they behave like a single entity, but it's not primarily responsible for distributing workloads to manage variable traffic levels. Serverless computing abstracts the server layer completely and automatically scales to handle load, but for a web hosting company looking for balanced distribution across their own servers, load balancing is more appropriate. Containerization enables applications to run in isolated user spaces called containers, but it does not directly relate to distributing a workload.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does a load balancer do?
What are the benefits of using server clustering?
How does serverless computing differ from load balancing?
When establishing a Business Partners Agreement with a new vendor, what element is most crucial to ensure the protection of sensitive data?
Specific definitions of the parties involved
Terms of conflict resolution processes
Clearly defined security requirements
Regularly scheduled review cycles
Answer Description
While all listed aspects are important in their own right, clearly defined security requirements are the most critical to protect sensitive data. These requirements set the minimum security standards that the business partner must adhere to, directly impacting the safeguarding of data involved in the partnership. Elements such as review cycles and party definitions are also important, but their impact on data protection is more indirect compared to the explicit security requirements.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are clearly defined security requirements?
Why are security requirements more crucial than review cycles or conflict resolution terms?
What types of organizations should consider Business Partners Agreements?
Which system is responsible for examining network traffic to identify undesirable activity and can actively intervene to prevent or block such activities?
A system that reinforces network architecture by enhancing data packet routing efficiency.
A system that optimizes web traffic by caching frequently accessed resources for better performance.
A system dedicated to monitoring for compliance with data governance and regulatory standards.
A system that actively engages to interrupt or block potential security threats detected in network traffic.
Answer Description
A system that has the ability to not only monitor network activities for malicious actions but also take proactive measures to interrupt or stop these activities serves as a protective mechanism against threats. This is the essential function of an Intrusion Prevention System, which is what separates it from similar systems that only detect and alert but do not take preventative actions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
How does an IPS differ from an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What types of threats can an IPS help prevent?
What can an organization implement when a vulnerability cannot be patched immediately, to mitigate the risk while maintaining business functionality?
Encryption
Threat intelligence
Compensating controls
Penetration testing
Answer Description
Compensating controls are security measures that are put in place to mitigate the risk associated with identified vulnerabilities that cannot be immediately resolved. They serve as alternatives to the direct remediation of security weaknesses, often due to technical, business, or financial constraints. Implementing compensating controls allows an organization to continue operations securely by reducing the potential impact of the vulnerability until it can be properly addressed. Encryption is not inherently a compensating control but might be part of one, depending upon the context. Threat intelligence and Penetration testing are methods for identifying vulnerabilities, not compensating for them.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are examples of compensating controls?
How do compensating controls differ from regular security measures?
Why might an organization choose to use compensating controls instead of waiting for a patch?
That's It!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.