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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A network administrator is configuring a new firewall. To prioritize security, the firewall is set up to block all network traffic if the device experiences a critical error or power loss. This configuration is an example of which concept?

  • Fail-open

  • Fail-closed

  • Fail-on

  • Fail-safe

Question 2 of 20

Which of the following best describes how a modern software supply chain attack typically gains initial access to its victims?

  • Compromising a trusted third-party vendor or service provider so that malicious code is distributed to downstream customers.

  • Launching a direct distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the organization's public web servers.

  • Physically stealing network switches from the data center to intercept traffic.

  • Exploiting a critical vulnerability in internally developed source code after breaching the organization's perimeter firewall.

Question 3 of 20

During preliminary negotiations for a new project, your company needs to ensure that strategic plans, trade secrets, and innovative processes are kept confidential when shared with a potential partner. Which type of legal contract is most appropriate to enforce confidentiality before sharing any detailed project information?

  • Non-Disclosure Agreement

  • Employment Agreement

  • Master Services Agreement

  • Letter of Intent

Question 4 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why containerization cannot fully prevent a compromise in one container from affecting other containers that run on the same host?

  • Containers require hardware virtualization extensions that allow direct memory access between containers.

  • Containers run their own independent kernels, so a vulnerability in one kernel can be exploited to compromise others.

  • Containers always run with unrestricted network access to every other container on the host, regardless of configuration.

  • Containers share the host operating-system kernel, so a kernel-level exploit can allow code to escape one container and access others.

Question 5 of 20

After downsizing its IT department, your company terminated its system administrator. Exactly at midnight on the day after the administrator's last day, every network server's data was wiped. Forensic analysis shows that the former employee had embedded malicious code in the environment that activated at the specified time. Which term best describes this type of malware attack?

  • Logic bomb

  • Cryptomalware

  • Ransomware

  • Worm

Question 6 of 20

An organization stores highly sensitive financial records in an on-premises relational database. Role-based access control (RBAC) already limits each employee to only the tables required for their job duties. Security analysts are concerned that an attacker could still read the data if they steal a legitimate user's password. Which of the following additional controls would BEST mitigate this risk?

  • Increase the minimum password length for all database users from 8 to 12 characters.

  • Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all database logins.

  • Enable full-disk encryption on the database server.

  • Disable verbose SQL error messages returned to clients.

Question 7 of 20

During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?

  • Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.

  • Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.

  • Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.

  • Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.

Question 8 of 20

An IT security manager wants to ensure that users can employ complex and unique passwords for each of their accounts without the need to remember each one individually. Which of the following solutions would best meet this requirement?

  • Implementing a password manager application

  • Deploying single sign-on authentication for all services

  • Implementing biometric authentication methods

  • Enforcing strict password complexity and expiration policies

Question 9 of 20

Which data source would an investigator most likely review to trace unauthorized internal traffic patterns indicative of post-breach attacker movement?

  • Endpoint logs

  • Network logs

  • System health reports

  • Application logs

Question 10 of 20

Data integrity is the concept that you can trust that a piece of data is complete and has not been altered or tampered with. Which of the following technologies can be used to ensure the integrity of data?

  • Checksum

  • Encryption

  • Authentication

  • Confidentiality

Question 11 of 20

An organization has been the victim of a recent data breach. During the breach financial data was stolen that showed the organization was running a ponzi scheme with investor money. These documents were then released to the press. What type of threat actor does this generally describe?

  • Unskilled attacker

  • Nation-state

  • Organized crime

  • Hacktivist

Question 12 of 20

Which scenario best illustrates the principle of 'Continuous' risk assessment in an organization's risk management process?

  • Integrating real-time threat intelligence with security systems to dynamically assess risks

  • Scheduling biannual security audits to review and assess organizational risks

  • Conducting thorough risk assessments at the end of each fiscal year based on yearly metrics

  • Performing risk assessments after major changes to IT infrastructure or system updates

Question 13 of 20

A country's primary power grid and water treatment facilities have experienced a series of sophisticated, coordinated cyber attacks aimed at causing widespread service disruption. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely responsible for this type of attack?

  • Insider threat

  • Nation-state

  • Organized crime

  • Hacktivist

Question 14 of 20

The administrative (native) VLAN on a switch should be left as VLAN 1 for security best practices.

  • False

  • True

Question 15 of 20

A security manager observes that the organization's IT environment and external threat-intelligence feeds have shown no significant changes during the past six months. Several executives propose skipping the annual tabletop exercise and document review for the incident response plan. Which of the following is the MOST compelling reason to proceed with the scheduled review and update?

  • Regular reviews uncover otherwise hidden weaknesses and allow the plan to be improved before an actual incident occurs.

  • Because the environment is static, proactive changes are unnecessary until after a major breach takes place.

  • Regulatory and contractual obligations may require documented evidence of regular plan maintenance.

  • Skipping the review conserves budget and staff time for higher-priority projects.

Question 16 of 20

Your organization is in the process of selecting a new vendor for cloud storage services. As part of this process, what should be conducted to evaluate and address the risks associated with the potential vendor prior to formalizing an agreement?

  • Due Diligence

  • Business Impact Analysis

  • Vendor risk assessment

  • Right-to-Audit Clause

Question 17 of 20

During the process of choosing a new third-party provider for cybersecurity services, it has come to light that a member of the leadership team has a close family member who holds a significant position at one of the contending firms. What is the most appropriate step to ensure that the selection process remains unbiased?

  • Continue the process without a specific protocol in place, as the organization lacks a policy regarding such situations.

  • The selection should move ahead without acknowledgment, treating all vendors equally.

  • The leader should simply declare the personal connection publicly before a decision is made.

  • The involved leader should voluntarily withdraw from any involvement in the procurement decision.

Question 18 of 20

An attacker is attempting to extract sensitive information from a company's employee by impersonating a trusted individual over the phone. What is this type of social engineering attack called?

  • Business email compromise

  • Phishing

  • Vishing

  • Impersonation

Question 19 of 20

When considering the security implications of hardware and software inventory management, which of the following is a direct consequence of NOT regularly updating the inventory of an organization's computing resources?

  • Heightened risk of security breaches due to unmanaged or unknown assets

  • Increased difficulty in managing software licenses and compliance

  • Difficulties in the physical retrieval of devices for maintenance tasks

  • Challenges in provisioning adequate resources for new employees

Question 20 of 20

A financial services company wants to ensure that its security controls are effectively protecting its network and critical data assets. The company is mandated by regulatory requirements to conduct periodic reviews of its security infrastructure. Which of the following would BEST satisfy the need for an unbiased evaluation of the operational security?

  • Scheduling regular penetration testing by the in-house cybersecurity team.

  • Conducting a thorough self-assessment using internal security and audit teams.

  • Contracting an independent third-party to perform a comprehensive audit of security controls.

  • Continuous monitoring by an internal audit committee.