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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

What is the primary role of a generator within the security architecture of a data center?

  • To provide backup power in the event of a main power supply failure

  • To cool down the server racks and prevent overheating

  • To serve as a primary power source during peak operation times

  • To regulate the distribution of power to different circuits

Question 2 of 20

A company develops a third-party application that needs to access user data from a popular social media platform without exposing user credentials. Which method provides the most secure way for the application to request and receive authorization to access the platform's data on the user's behalf?

  • Store user credentials locally on the user device and reuse them to authenticate every session with the social media platform.

  • Use the OAuth protocol to request an authorization code and exchange it for an access token from the social media platform.

  • Use basic access authentication by sending a base64-encoded string containing the user's username and password in each request.

  • Embed user credentials in the application code and authenticate directly with the social media platform.

Question 3 of 20

What improvements does a VLAN offer for network security?

  • Allows for session dropping in the event of an anomaly detection

  • Provides layer 4 filtering (TCP/UDP)

  • Logically separates network segments

  • Physically restricts unauthorized devices from network access

Question 4 of 20

Which deception technology involves deploying a decoy system or service that imitates a genuine production asset in order to attract, engage, and monitor attackers?

  • Honeynet

  • Honeypot

  • Honeytoken

  • Honeyfile

Question 5 of 20

During business continuity planning, an organization decides it needs an alternate facility that can assume full production processing within minutes of a disaster because it is already equipped with compatible hardware, software, network connectivity, and up-to-date data. Which type of disaster-recovery site best satisfies this requirement?

  • Cold site

  • Warm site

  • Mobile site

  • Hot site

Question 6 of 20

What does it mean when a password policy specifies an expiration period?

  • The account will be locked if the password is not changed within the given time

  • Users receive a notification to update their password but it is not mandatory

  • Passwords will automatically update themselves when they expire

  • Users must update their passwords after a certain period to maintain account security

Question 7 of 20

Which of the following scenarios best describes an attack that is likely to cause abnormal consumption of system resources, potentially leading to a system outage?

  • Social engineering attack that tricks an employee into wiring money

  • Phishing attack that deceives a user into sharing their password

  • Email spam campaign distributing unsolicited messages

  • DDoS attack

Question 8 of 20

A security engineer is preparing an embedded industrial controller that runs a real-time operating system (RTOS) for deployment on the plant network. Which of the following hardening actions will BEST reduce the attack surface of the controller before it is placed into production?

  • Run every process with administrative privileges to avoid permission-related latency.

  • Allow unrestricted inbound and outbound traffic on all ports and protocols.

  • Enable the vendor's remote debugging service so developers can troubleshoot in production.

  • Remove or disable all nonessential services and applications on the RTOS.

Question 9 of 20

A finance department employee receives an instant message from what appears to be a senior executive asking for verification of their login credentials to resolve an urgent issue. What type of attack is the employee experiencing?

  • Man-in-the-Middle

  • Vishing

  • Phishing

  • Denial-of-Service

Question 10 of 20

A network administrator for a small business wants to simplify the company's security posture by deploying a single appliance that integrates a firewall, intrusion prevention, content filtering, and anti-malware capabilities. Which of the following network appliances BEST describes this type of all-in-one solution?

  • Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance

  • Web Application Firewall (WAF)

  • Proxy server

  • Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following examples best represents an unintentional security risk?

  • An employee unknowingly installing malware on their workstation while attempting to update software.

  • A social engineer impersonating IT staff to gain access to sensitive areas.

  • A user deliberately sharing their credentials with a coworker who forgot their own.

  • An insider intentionally downloading confidential data to sell on the black market.

Question 12 of 20

Which of the following best describes the process hollowing technique used by attackers to execute malicious code while evading process-based defenses?

  • Launch a legitimate process in a suspended state, hollow out its memory, inject a malicious payload, and resume the process so the payload runs under the trusted process name.

  • Force an existing process to load a malicious DLL by calling LoadLibrary through a remote thread.

  • Replace the import address table (IAT) of a process so that API calls are redirected to attacker-controlled functions.

  • Encrypt malware in memory and decrypt only small chunks immediately before execution to avoid static detection.

Question 13 of 20

An organization wants to address the risk associated with a potential financial loss from a future cyber attack. Which of the following actions exemplifies the 'Transfer' risk management strategy?

  • Buying a cybersecurity insurance policy to cover costs associated with data breaches

  • Developing a comprehensive incident response strategy for potential cyber attacks

  • Adjusting security controls to enhance detection of unauthorized access attempts

  • Conducting regular security awareness training for employees

Question 14 of 20

Which system is implemented to safeguard sensitive information from being leaked outside of the corporate network?

  • Antivirus software

  • Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

  • Firewall

  • Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system

Question 15 of 20

Why does end-of-life (EOL) hardware pose a security risk to an organization?

  • It operates only on isolated legacy networks, preventing any external access and attacks.

  • Built-in firmware security modules render additional software patches unnecessary.

  • Regulations exempt EOL hardware from compliance audits, reducing the organization's risk exposure.

  • It no longer receives vendor security patches, so attackers can exploit known vulnerabilities.

Question 16 of 20

A company issues cell phones to its employees that are owned by the organization. The employees are permitted to use these phones for personal phone calls and applications in addition to their work-related duties. This scenario is an example of which mobile device deployment model?

  • POCE

  • COPE

  • BYOD

  • CYOD

Question 17 of 20

In the context of security control types, which of the following BEST describes the primary purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

  • Preventive control

  • Detective control

  • Corrective control

  • Deterrent control

Question 18 of 20

An administrator is configuring permissions for a new network share according to the principle of least privilege. Members of the accounting department must be able to add and edit files in the folder. Members from the auditing and sales departments should only be able to review the contents. Which set of permissions should the administrator assign to the accounting, auditing, and sales groups, respectively?

  • Read & execute for accounting, Write for auditing, Modify for sales

  • Full control for accounting, Read & execute for auditing, Write for sales

  • Modify for accounting, Read & execute for auditing, Read for sales

  • Write for accounting, Read for auditing and sales

Question 19 of 20

A company's security policy requires that access to its internal database servers should be denied from all external IP addresses except from its own VPN network, which has an IP range of 10.200.0.0/16. As a security administrator, which of the following rules should you apply to BEST meet the security policy requirement?

  • Deny from all, Allow from 10.200.0.0/16

  • Allow from all, Deny from 10.200.0.0/16

  • Deny from 10.200.1.0/24

  • Allow from 192.168.1.0/24

Question 20 of 20

A midsized enterprise is designing a layered network perimeter that currently includes an edge router, a stateful firewall, and internal routing and switching for user and server segments. Management wants to add a network-based intrusion prevention system (IPS) to detect and automatically block sophisticated attacks. To maximize detection accuracy while minimizing unnecessary processing overhead and latency, where in this topology should the IPS be physically installed?

  • At the primary datacenter ingress to monitor high-bandwidth server-to-server communications.

  • Immediately behind the perimeter firewall, before traffic reaches any internal routers or switches.

  • Inline with the edge router so that it inspects every packet entering or leaving the organization.

  • On a core switch close to user workstations to track possible lateral movement and insider threats.