CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A financial services company must comply with an industry regulation that requires an independent review of their security posture. Which of the following BEST ensures the company’s ongoing compliance with this requirement?
Incorporating a right-to-audit clause in third-party vendor agreements
Generating internal compliance reports quarterly
Performing an independent third-party audit
Conducting a self-assessment using internal resources
Answer Description
An independent third-party audit is the correct response because it involves an external entity reviewing the organization's compliance with required standards, regulations, and controls, thereby providing an unbiased assessment of the company's security posture. This type of audit is specifically useful for meeting regulatory compliance that mandates external validation of security practices. A right-to-audit clause is commonly included in contracts and would allow the company to audit third-parties, but is not the appropriate tool for an external review of the company itself. Internal compliance reporting, while necessary, does not fulfill the requirement for an independent review. Similarly, self-assessments are conducted internally and lack the independent aspect required by the regulation.
Ask Bash
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What is an independent third-party audit?
Why is it important to have an independent review of security posture?
What are common industry regulations that require independent audits?
A web developer implements a form where users select their country from a drop-down menu. The developer believes this is secure from SQL injection because the user cannot type into the field. Why is this security measure insufficient on its own?
An attacker can intercept and modify the HTTP request before it reaches the server.
Drop-down menus are only secure when used with numeric values.
SQL injection attacks can only be performed on text input fields, not selection menus.
JavaScript-based validation on the form would prevent this attack.
Answer Description
This security measure is insufficient because client-side restrictions, such as using a drop-down menu, can be bypassed. An attacker can use a tool like a web proxy to intercept the HTTP request after it is sent from the browser and modify the value for the 'country' parameter to a malicious SQL string before it reaches the server. Therefore, all input must be validated and sanitized on the server-side, and parameterized queries should be used to prevent SQL injection.
Ask Bash
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What is SQL injection and how does it work?
What are some methods to protect against SQL injection attacks?
What are HTTP requests, and how can they be intercepted in attacks?
A large organization has implemented several security measures to protect its network infrastructure. As part of their continuous monitoring strategy, they want to ensure that any unauthorized access or anomalies in their network traffic are quickly identified and investigated. Which of the following security measures would best serve this purpose?
Deploy additional firewalls to segment network traffic.
Implement an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to monitor network traffic.
Increase frequency of anti-virus software updates on all endpoints.
Conduct regular security training sessions for all network administrators.
Answer Description
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are designed to monitor network and system activities for malicious activity or policy violations. A well-configured IDS can detect numerous types of malicious network traffic and computer usage that often go unnoticed by a firewall, which makes it an excellent choice for identifying unauthorized accesses or anomalies. Anti-virus software, while useful for detecting and removing malware, does not generally monitor network traffic for anomalies. Firewalls are preventive controls that block unauthorized access based on predefined rules but do not perform post-passage anomaly detection. Security training is essential for personnel but does not continuously monitor network traffic.
Ask Bash
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What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
How does an IDS differ from a firewall?
What types of threats can an IDS detect?
What type of risk assessment is conducted as needed, often in response to specific events or changes in the environment?
Continuous
Ad Hoc
Qualitative
Recurring
Answer Description
An 'Ad Hoc' risk assessment is performed as required, without a regular schedule, often in response to significant changes or new threats to an organization's environment. It contrasts with recurring or continuous assessments that happen at regular intervals or constantly, respectively. A 'Qualitative' risk assessment refers to the process that prioritizes risks based on their severity and impact, rather than their frequency or timing.
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What are some examples of events or changes that might trigger an Ad Hoc risk assessment?
How does an Ad Hoc risk assessment differ from a recurring risk assessment?
What is a Qualitative risk assessment, and how does it relate to Ad Hoc assessments?
Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?
A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.
The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.
Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.
The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.
Answer Description
With asymmetric encryption, the sender uses the recipient's public key to encrypt the data. Only the holder of the mathematically related private key can decrypt that ciphertext, so confidentiality is preserved even if the encrypted traffic is intercepted. In contrast, symmetric encryption relies on a single shared secret key (Answer 1), digital signatures created with a sender's private key provide integrity and authentication-not confidentiality (Answer 3), and striping data across drives (Answer 4) is a storage redundancy technique unrelated to encryption.
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What are public and private keys in asymmetric encryption?
How does asymmetric encryption differ from symmetric encryption?
What are some common applications of asymmetric encryption?
A company is assessing various options to enhance the security of their facility and data center. Which of the following would serve as the best deterrent control to discourage trespassers from entering the secured premises of the data center?
Deploying mantraps at the primary entrance to the data center
Implementing badge readers at all points of entrance and exit
Erecting security awareness posters regarding tailgating in employee areas
Installing highly visible security cameras around the perimeter and entry points
Answer Description
Security cameras are a form of deterrent control designed to discourage unauthorized individuals from attempting to access a secure area. Their presence is often enough to dissuade potential attackers as it increases the likelihood of being caught and recorded, which can lead to identification and potential prosecution. In contrast, badge readers and mantraps, while part of physical security measures, are types of preventive controls that actively prevent unauthorized access. Security awareness posters do not directly discourage trespassers from entering secured premises, as they are more focused on educating authorized personnel on maintaining security practices.
Ask Bash
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What are deterrent controls in security?
How do security cameras help in deterring crime?
What is the difference between deterrent controls and preventive controls?
A security analyst is tasked with implementing a solution to receive timely data on emerging malware, malicious IP addresses, and known vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST fulfill this requirement?
A threat feed
A vulnerability scanner
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
A security baseline
Answer Description
The correct answer is a threat feed. A threat feed is a real-time or near-real-time stream of data providing information on current and potential cyber threats, including indicators of compromise like malicious IPs, URLs, and malware signatures. A security baseline defines a standard state for a system, a SIEM is used to aggregate and analyze log data from internal sources, and a vulnerability scanner actively probes systems for weaknesses rather than providing a continuous external data stream.
Ask Bash
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What are threat feeds and how do they work?
What are indicators of compromise (IoCs)?
How can organizations utilize threat feeds effectively?
Which of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of version control in the context of change management and security?
To automatically update documentation and diagrams when changes are made
To manage and control software code, configurations, and other artifacts
To quickly identify and resolve issues caused by recent changes
To facilitate collaboration between different teams and departments
Answer Description
Version control is primarily used to manage and control different versions of software, configurations, and other artifacts. It allows for tracking changes, reverting to previous versions if needed, and maintaining a clear audit trail of modifications. While version control can help with documentation, collaboration, and identifying issues, its main purpose is to effectively manage and control versions of various assets.
Ask Bash
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What are artifacts in version control?
How do version control systems help with collaboration?
What are some popular version control systems?
Which of the following is an example of a possession factor that could be used for multi-factor authentication?
A password
A hardware authentication token
A mobile app authorization request
Eye color
Answer Description
A possession factor is an authentication method based on something the user physically possesses. A hardware authentication token is a small physical device that can generate a secure login code or house digital certificates and is carried by the user to provide a possession factor for authentication. Eye color is a trait, not something possessed. A password is something the user knows, and a mobile app authorization request, while delivered to a device the user possesses, by itself is not considered a possession factor until accepted and is not inherently a physical item.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a hardware authentication token?
What are the other factors in multi-factor authentication?
How does a mobile app authorization request fit into multi-factor authentication?
When conducting a risk analysis, what is the term used to describe the probability that a given threat is capable of exploiting a particular vulnerability within an organization's security?
Threat Level
Likelihood
Vulnerability
Impact
Answer Description
The term 'Likelihood' refers to the probability that a given threat could potentially exploit a specific vulnerability within an organization's security framework. Understanding and determining the likelihood is crucial in risk management as it helps prioritize risks and informs decision making regarding the implementation of controls.
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What factors influence the likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability?
How is 'Likelihood' quantified in a risk analysis?
How does understanding 'Likelihood' impact decision making in risk management?
During an overhaul of its onboarding process, a mid-sized company wants to weave security controls into every step that a new employee takes on their first day. Which change to the documented onboarding procedure would be the most effective at protecting corporate assets while still enabling new hires to be productive?
Access to internal resources is immediately granted to new hires, with a formal security orientation scheduled after their first month of employment.
Full network access is granted on the first day with a briefing held by the security team, supplemented by email reminders about security policies.
Network credentials are provided after completion of comprehensive security training on the first day, followed by access that is scaled up based on role-specific requirements.
New hires are given minimal guidance to encourage self-learning about security practices, providing full access to internal systems to promote immediate immersion.
Answer Description
Requiring new hires to complete security awareness training before any network credentials are issued ensures they understand organizational policies and their responsibilities. Granting only the minimum role-based access they need after training limits potential damage if an account is compromised. Additional privileges can then be added as employees demonstrate continued compliance, reflecting the principle of least privilege. Approaches that grant full access before training or postpone training increase the window of exposure and contradict accepted best practices.
Ask Bash
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What is the principle of least privilege?
Why is comprehensive security training essential for new hires?
How can access be scaled up based on role-specific requirements?
Which of the following options is a functionality or tool that disallows access to a wireless network based on the Layer 2 address of the client device?
WPA2
MAC address filtering
Split tunnel VPN
ACL
Answer Description
Layer 2 addresses-also called physical or MAC addresses-identify the network interface of a device. MAC address filtering restricts wireless access to devices whose MAC addresses appear on an allow-list (or blocks those on a deny-list). Although this control can deter casual or accidental connections, it is easily bypassed through MAC-address spoofing, so it should never be the sole means of protecting a network.
Ask Bash
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What is MAC address filtering and how does it work?
What are the limitations of MAC address filtering?
What are some alternatives to MAC address filtering for securing a wireless network?
An organization is conducting a Business Impact Analysis. Which metric should be determined to establish the maximum time frame that a critical system can be disrupted before severe impact to business operations occurs?
Establishing the data backup frequency is necessary for scheduling maintenance windows.
Determining the maximum tolerable downtime for critical systems, otherwise known as the Recovery Time Objective, is essential for prioritizing their restoration.
Assessing the annual likelihood of a system failure occurring will forecast the potential interruptions in operations.
Calculating the cost of system outages per day can provide insight into potential financial losses.
Answer Description
Identifying the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) during a Business Impact Analysis is critical because it denotes the maximum duration that a service or system can be unavailable before causing unacceptable detriment to the business. Setting the RTO helps in crafting prioritized recovery strategies, ensuring that the most crucial systems are restored within a timeframe that prevents significant operational or financial loss. The other options, while related to business continuity and disaster recovery, do not directly address the focus on time frame for critical system recovery, like the RTO does.
Ask Bash
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What is Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
How is the RTO determined during a Business Impact Analysis?
What other recovery objectives are important in disaster recovery planning?
A company wants to enhance its security by implementing an additional authentication factor to their current system that uses passwords. Which of the following would be the MOST secure biometric authentication method to add?
Implementing fingerprint scanning
Setting up voice recognition systems
Installing key fob devices
Using facial recognition technology
Answer Description
Adding fingerprint scanning as an additional factor is the MOST secure option among the choices given. It provides a high level of accuracy and is less subject to duplication or impersonation compared to other methods such as voice recognition. While facial recognition is secure, it can sometimes be influenced by changes in appearance or spoofed with high-quality images. Voice recognition, while convenient, can be less secure due to background noise, voice imitation, and recording attacks. Installing key fob devices is not a form of biometric authentication, as it is something you have, not something you are.
Ask Bash
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What makes fingerprint scanning the most secure biometric method?
How does facial recognition technology compare to fingerprint scanning?
Why is voice recognition considered less secure than fingerprint scanning?
An organization wants to discourage potential intruders by signaling that security measures are in place. By installing visible security cameras and posting warning signs around their premises, which type of control are they implementing?
Corrective Control
Preventive Control
Deterrent Control
Detective Control
Answer Description
The organization is implementing deterrent controls, which are designed to discourage potential attackers by making them aware of the security measures in place. Visible security cameras and warning signs serve as psychological deterrents, reducing the likelihood of an attack. Preventive controls aim to stop incidents from occurring by blocking unauthorized actions, such as through access controls or firewalls. Detective controls identify and alert to incidents after they have occurred, like intrusion detection systems. Corrective controls focus on limiting damage after an incident, such as restoring systems from backups.
Ask Bash
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What exactly are deterrent controls?
How do deterrent controls differ from preventive controls?
Can you give me examples of detective and corrective controls?
Considering your current network security setup only provides notifications when potential security breaches occur, which enhancement would allow the system to not just detect but also proactively counteract malicious traffic?
Incorporate additional security information and event management (SIEM) features
Bolster the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) strategies
Implement a system with automatic threat mitigation capabilities
Enhance the cryptographic assurance using public key infrastructure (PKI)
Answer Description
To address the limitation of a system that only provides notifications when a potential breach occurs, implementing a solution that can take preventative action is necessary. An Intrusion Prevention System is designed to not only detect but to preventively respond to threats by blocking them, therefore enhancing the network's defensive capabilities. The options of bolstering data loss prevention (DLP) strategies, incorporating additional security information and event management (SIEM) features, and enhancing public key infrastructure (PKI) are all valuable in their respective contexts. However, none of these solutions are purposed to block malicious traffic in the way an Intrusion Prevention System would. DLP focuses on preventing data leaks, SIEM centralizes logging and provides threat detection, and PKI deals with encryption and authentication, not inline traffic analysis and intervention.
Ask Bash
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What is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
How does an IPS differ from a firewall?
What are some typical features of an IPS?
An organization seeks to enhance its physical security measures to control access to sensitive areas. They require a solution that can accurately authenticate individuals based on intrinsic characteristics unique to each person. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet this requirement?
Implementing biometric access controls
Installing surveillance cameras at entry points
Issuing access badges with magnetic stripes
Assigning security personnel to monitor entrances
Answer Description
Implementing biometric access controls is the best solution because biometrics use unique physiological traits such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial features to authenticate individuals, providing a high level of security and reducing the risk of unauthorized access. Access badges with magnetic stripes can be lost, stolen, or shared, which compromises security. Surveillance cameras can deter and detect unauthorized access but do not prevent entry. Assigning security personnel to monitor entrances adds a human element, but individuals can still bypass security through deception or human error.
Ask Bash
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What are biometric access controls?
What are some advantages of using biometric authentication over traditional access methods?
What are some common types of biometric technologies used in access control?
Your company, SecureTech Inc., specializes in developing financial software. As part of the Risk Management team, you have been tasked with analyzing the potential risks associated with a newly identified software vulnerability that could allow unauthorized access to financial data. Which of the following would best categorize the risk in terms of the impact to your organization should this vulnerability be exploited?
Insignificant impact
Low impact
High impact
Acceptable impact
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'High impact' because the exploitation of a vulnerability concerning financial data can lead to substantial monetary loss, reputational damage, and legal consequences. It is considered a high-impact risk due to the sensitive nature of the data involved and the potential for significant detriment to the organization. 'Low impact' is incorrect because financial data is critical and the consequences of its unauthorized access are severe. 'Acceptable impact' is not a standard term used in risk analysis, and 'Insignificant impact' is incorrect as it underestimates the seriousness of risks to financial data which would almost never be classified as insignificant.
Ask Bash
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What are the potential consequences of a high-impact risk related to financial data?
How can organizations evaluate the impact of a vulnerability?
What other risk categories are important to understand besides high impact?
A systems administrator needs to add an endpoint control that will stop known viruses, worms, Trojans, and ransomware from executing on corporate laptops while allowing any detected malicious files to be quarantined or deleted. Which of the following security tools BEST fulfills this requirement?
Endpoint antivirus/anti-malware agent
Continuous data-backup client
Full-disk encryption software
Performance-optimization utility
Answer Description
Endpoint antivirus (also called anti-malware) software continuously scans files and processes using signature, heuristic, and behavioral techniques to detect, block, quarantine, or remove malicious code. Full-disk encryption protects data at rest but does not actively identify malware. Continuous data-backup software focuses on availability, not threat detection. Performance-optimization utilities tune system resources and offer no direct protection against malicious software.
Ask Bash
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How does antivirus software detect malware?
What types of malware can antivirus software protect against?
Why is it important to have antivirus software installed?
What is the primary function of a hashing algorithm within the realm of cybersecurity?
To encrypt data so that it can be securely transmitted over public networks
To serve as the public key within a public-private key pair used for asymmetric encryption
To generate a unique 'fingerprint' of data that can be used to verify its integrity
To compress data to save storage space before transmitting over a network
Answer Description
The primary function of a hashing algorithm is to take an input (or 'message') and return a fixed-size string of bytes. The output, known as the hash, is typically a digest that represents the original data in a unique way. If the input changes by even a small amount, the hash will change significantly, known as the avalanche effect. The key aspect of a hash function is that it is a one-way function – data can be turned into a hash, but the hash cannot be turned back into the original data, ensuring data integrity. Hashes are broadly used to verify data integrity because they can reveal if data has been altered. This is crucial in many applications, such as verifying the integrity of downloaded files or the storage of passwords.
Ask Bash
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What is the avalanche effect in hashing algorithms?
How are hashing algorithms used to verify data integrity?
In what scenarios are hashing algorithms particularly important?
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