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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which type of social engineering attack specifically targets high-level executives through email in an attempt to steal sensitive information?

  • Whaling

  • Typosquatting

  • Spear phishing

  • Watering hole attack

  • Vishing

  • Pharming

Question 2 of 20

Which of the following best describes an organization's obligation to adhere to laws and regulations that govern data protection in the region where it operates?

  • Access control standards

  • Change management procedures

  • Compliance to regulatory requirements

  • Password guidelines

  • Disaster recovery policies

Question 3 of 20

A domain's DNS includes the record 'v=spf1 -all', suggesting that emails can originate from any mail server, and thus, messages should be assumed legitimate regardless of the originating mail server.

  • True

  • False

Question 4 of 20

A network scan of a public-facing server reveals that several ports are open. A system administrator confirms that one of these ports is not required for any of the server's intended applications or services. What is the primary security risk associated with this unnecessary open port?

  • It consumes a significant amount of CPU and memory resources, degrading server performance.

  • It increases the attack surface, providing an additional entry point for potential exploits or unauthorized access attempts.

  • It prevents legitimate users from accessing the server's intended services.

  • It will cause immediate data exfiltration from the server's primary application.

Question 5 of 20

Security professionals often advise against jailbreaking (iOS) or rooting (Android) a corporate-owned mobile device. Which of the following best explains why this practice is considered a significant security risk?

  • It forces the device to install apps exclusively from the official app store, reducing exposure to malware.

  • It disables built-in code-signing and sandbox protections, allowing unvetted apps to run with elevated privileges.

  • It ensures the device continues to receive manufacturer security patches sooner than stock devices.

  • It automatically enables full-disk encryption by default, making user data inaccessible to attackers.

Question 6 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why legacy hardware systems remain attractive targets for cybercriminals?

  • They are less likely to be targeted because outdated technology deters attackers.

  • Their proprietary hardware makes exploits prohibitively expensive, so attackers avoid them.

  • They often lack security patches and modern controls, making them easier to exploit.

  • They are automatically isolated from networks, preventing remote attacks.

Question 7 of 20

An organization wants to address the risk associated with a potential financial loss from a future cyber attack. Which of the following actions exemplifies the 'Transfer' risk management strategy?

  • Buying a cybersecurity insurance policy to cover costs associated with data breaches

  • Conducting regular security awareness training for employees

  • Adjusting security controls to enhance detection of unauthorized access attempts

  • Developing a comprehensive incident response strategy for potential cyber attacks

Question 8 of 20

What term is used to describe the process by which the urgency and importance of a security incident are increased to ensure adequate attention and resources are allocated to resolve it?

  • Amplification

  • Elevation

  • Intensification

  • Escalation

Question 9 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing a threat intelligence report detailing an attack on a national power grid. The attack did not involve ransomware or data exfiltration for financial purposes but instead caused widespread service outages. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely responsible for this type of attack?

  • Organized crime

  • Insider threat

  • Hacktivist

  • Nation-state

Question 10 of 20

What is a system designed to attract and detect unauthorized access attempts by simulating a vulnerable target?

  • Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

  • Honeypot

  • Firewall

  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Question 11 of 20

An organization wants to gather intelligence on attack techniques by implementing a system that mimics vulnerable services and records interactions with potential intruders. Which of the following would BEST achieve this goal?

  • Vulnerability scanner

  • Firewall configured with logging

  • Honeypot

  • Intrusion detection system

Question 12 of 20

An organization has detected suspicious activity targeting their customer database. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely pursuing financial gain through the exfiltration and subsequent sale of confidential customer information?

  • Organized crime

  • Hacktivist

  • An unskilled attacker seeking recognition

  • Nation-state

Question 13 of 20

A former employee launches a cyber attack against their previous company, causing significant disruptions to operations. Which of the following motivations is most likely behind this attack?

  • Financial gain

  • Philosophical beliefs

  • Revenge

  • Espionage

Question 14 of 20

During the authentication process, which of the following would be classified as a 'something you know' factor?

  • USB security key

  • Retina scan

  • GPS location data

  • Passphrase

Question 15 of 20

An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?

  • Reciprocal site

  • Hot site

  • Warm site

  • Cold site

Question 16 of 20

Which type of security control is designed to provide guidance and direction to individuals or systems?

  • Detective controls

  • Corrective controls

  • Directive controls

  • Preventive controls

Question 17 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes a multinational organization's obligation regarding information-security regulations?

  • It must comply only with the information-security regulations of the country where its corporate headquarters is located.

  • It must comply only with internationally recognized voluntary standards such as ISO/IEC 27001.

  • It must comply only with the regulations of the country where its primary data centers are physically located.

  • It must comply with the relevant regulations of every country in which it operates or whose residents' data it handles.

Question 18 of 20

A security administrator is updating the company's password policy to enhance user account security. The primary goal is to implement a control that is most effective at preventing brute-force and dictionary attacks. Which of the following policy requirements should the administrator enforce?

  • Prohibit users from reusing the same password across multiple internal systems.

  • Enforce complexity requirements, including mixed case, numbers, and special characters.

  • Require a minimum password length of eight characters.

  • Mandate that all user passwords expire every 90 days.

Question 19 of 20

A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?

  • Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups

  • Full backups at the end of every week

  • Full backups every 24 hours only

  • Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups

Question 20 of 20

As the IT security specialist for your company, you have noticed an unusual increase in employees reporting suspicious emails that attempt to lure them into providing their login credentials. The email claims that the company's email system is undergoing maintenance and employees need to log in to a special portal to continue having access to their emails. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

  • Phishing

  • Vishing

  • Smishing

  • Typosquatting