CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?
Brute force attack
Phishing attempt
Port scanning
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Brute force attack'. This type of activity suggests an attempt to guess the password by systematically trying numerous possible combinations. A brute force attack often generates many failed login attempts in a short time frame, which would be recorded by an IDS. An IDS is designed to detect this kind of anomalous behavior and raise alerts accordingly. 'Port scanning' involves probing a server for open ports and does not necessarily result in multiple failed login attempts and would not typically generate an IDS alert for this behavior. 'DDoS attack' and 'Phishing attempt' are also incorrect because although they are security threats, they generally do not result in repeated failed logins on a server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a Brute Force Attack?
How does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect attacks like brute force?
What are some consequences of a successful brute force attack?
What term best describes an attribute of a security architecture focused on continuing service delivery in the event of component failures or other issues?
Scalability
Resilience
Maintainability
Responsiveness
Answer Description
Resilience refers to the ability of a system to continue to operate properly in the face of adversity. This can include redundancy, fault tolerance, and robust design choices that allow a system to endure and recover from disruptions. Scalability refers to the capacity of a system to handle growth, while maintainability concerns the ease with which a system can be kept operational. Responsiveness measures how quickly a system reacts to input.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of resilience in security architecture?
How do redundancy and fault tolerance contribute to resilience?
What is the difference between resilience and scalability?
Which of the following best defines the role of an owner within the context of systems and data governance?
Teams responsible for performing regular audits and compliance checks on data management practices.
An individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of assets.
Third-party service providers who process data on behalf of the data owner or controller.
Personnel who physically interact with the data on a daily basis, ensuring its accuracy and integrity.
Answer Description
An owner is an individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of the assets. This includes ensuring appropriate access controls are in place and the integrity and security of the asset are maintained.
Ask Bash
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What are the key responsibilities of a data owner?
How does data governance relate to privacy and security?
What is the difference between a data owner and a data steward?
You work for a large national realty company in the networking department. Recently your department received a help desk call from a smaller satellite office stating their WiFi is no longer working. The trouble ticket was escalated to you because company policy does not allow wireless networks. After further investigation you learn that an employee in the office setup a simple wireless router themselves. Which option best defines this situation?
Disassociation
Evil twin
Rogue AP
Unauthorized twin
Answer Description
The installation of an unauthorized wireless router or access point is known as a Rogue Access Point or Rogue AP. A Rogue AP could be an attack or simply an employee breaking policy and setting up a wireless AP without permission. This is dangerous as the wireless device (without proper configuration) would allow outside devices onto the network and would be the equivalent of gaining physical access to the network.
Ask Bash
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What are the risks associated with a Rogue AP?
How can companies prevent the installation of Rogue APs?
What is the difference between a Rogue AP and an Evil Twin?
After a recent firewall change, several users report they can reach the internal intranet site but cannot browse any external websites. You discover that HTTPS traffic is being blocked. Which firewall port must be opened so users can securely access public websites again?
3389
443
8080
80
Answer Description
Web browsers establish encrypted sessions with external web servers using the HTTPS protocol, which by default uses TCP port 443. Allowing outbound (and corresponding return) traffic on this port restores secure web access. Ports 80 and 8080 carry unencrypted HTTP, while 3389 is used for Remote Desktop, so opening those would not solve the problem.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is port 443 used for HTTPS traffic?
What are the differences between HTTP and HTTPS?
What could cause port 443 to be blocked in a firewall configuration?
Which set of rules is typically used by an organization to define the complexity and renewal frequency requirements for user credentials?
Audit guidelines
Network configuration protocols
Data classification standards
Password policy
Answer Description
A password policy is the set of rules used to define how users create and maintain their passwords within an organization. This policy establishes the minimum requirements for password complexity, such as the use of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, special characters, and the frequency at which passwords must be changed. This helps to prevent unauthorized access by ensuring that passwords are sufficiently complex and changed regularly. Other options do not directly apply to user credentials and their security requirements.
Ask Bash
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What are the main components of a password policy?
Why is password complexity important?
What are the consequences of not following a password policy?
During a review process against the organization's security objectives and regulatory compliance needs, disparities were discovered, indicating that certain control measures are inadequate. Which course of action best aligns with recommended practice for addressing these deficiencies?
Deploy an advanced intrusion detection system immediately across the network to mitigate any vulnerabilities.
Create an actionable remediation plan outlining steps to bridge the identified security gaps and align with the desired benchmarks.
Initiate a series of in-depth security training sessions to address every gap identified in the review.
Revise security policies immediately to the levels of the industry standards discovered during the review, without a structured plan.
Answer Description
After completing a gap analysis, best practice is to develop a structured remediation plan that prioritizes and assigns actions to close the identified gaps. Implementing individual technologies, rewriting policies, or launching broad training programs before establishing such a plan can waste resources and may not fully resolve the deficiencies discovered.
Ask Bash
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What should be included in an actionable remediation plan?
Why is a structured remediation plan important over immediate actions?
How often should organizations review and update their remediation plans?
A company's board of directors establishes a general willingness to accept a certain level of risk to achieve its strategic objectives. This is defined as the company's risk appetite. During project planning, a specific project is allowed to exceed this general level by a specified, measurable amount. What is this acceptable deviation from the risk appetite called?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Risk identification
Risk register
Answer Description
Risk appetite is the overall amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance is the specific, permissible deviation from the organization's risk appetite for a particular initiative or risk category. Risk identification is the process of finding and documenting risks, while a risk register is the document used to log and track these identified risks.
Ask Bash
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What is risk tolerance and how is it different from risk appetite?
What role does risk assessment play in determining risk tolerance?
Can risk tolerance change over time, and if so, what factors influence that change?
A company is preparing to roll out a major update to one of its critical applications. The update includes new features and security patches. Prior to deployment, the security team wants to ensure that they can quickly revert to the previous stable version in case of unexpected problems with the new release. Which method would BEST ensure that they can manage and control application versions effectively?
Update the disaster recovery plan to include steps for reverting application updates.
Implement a version control system to manage application updates and rollbacks.
Deploy an automated patch management tool to handle version updates.
Create regular manual backups of the application's installation directory.
Answer Description
Using a version control system is the best method for managing and controlling application versions as it allows teams to track changes, revert to previous versions, and maintain a history of modifications. This system enables quick reversion to a known good state in case the new update causes issues. Manual backups could also allow reversion but lack the history tracking and might not be as current. An automated patch management tool is more for ensuring systems are up-to-date and is not designed primarily for version tracking or quick reversion. The disaster recovery plan focuses on recovering from catastrophic events and is not typically used for routine version management.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a version control system?
What are the benefits of using version control for application updates?
How does version control differ from manual backups?
As a network architect, you have been asked to design a network infrastructure for a financial services provider that requires extremely high levels of security due to the sensitive nature of the data being processed. The client also demands that certain systems must remain operational and isolated even in the event of a catastrophic network failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet these requirements?
Implementing an air-gapped network for those critical systems
Deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) throughout the network
Implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for all internal communications
Creating logical segmentation of the network using VLANs
Answer Description
An air-gapped network is the best solution for ensuring high security and operational isolation as it is a physical isolation technique that completely separates the critical systems from unsecured networks, preventing any form of external access or data breach. Logical segmentation, while useful, doesn't offer physical isolation and can be bypassed if the network is compromised. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides secure remote access but does not address the requirement for physical isolation of the system. Using an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) will add a layer of security but does not create isolated operational systems.
Ask Bash
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What is an air-gapped network and how does it enhance security?
What are VLANs and how do they differ from an air-gapped network?
What roles do VPNs and IPS play in network security?
A company's web application is vulnerable to a type of attack where unauthorized commands are sent from a user that the web application trusts. Which of the following is the BEST mitigation technique to prevent this type of vulnerability?
Employ parameterized queries
Implement strict input validation
Adopt a strong content security policy
Use anti-CSRF tokens
Answer Description
Cross-site Request Forgery (CSRF) vulnerabilities allow unauthorized commands to be transmitted from a user that the application trusts. The use of anti-CSRF tokens is the best mitigation technique because it ensures that the web application validates the user's intended actions by matching the token with the one it issued, therefore preventing CSRF attacks. Using input validation may prevent other types of attacks such as SQL Injection or XSS, but not CSRF. Implementing a content security policy can help mitigate XSS and clickjacking attacks, but not CSRF specifically. While parameterized queries are used to prevent SQL Injection, they do not protect against CSRF.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are anti-CSRF tokens and how do they work?
What are the consequences of a CSRF attack?
How does implementing strict input validation differ from anti-CSRF tokens?
In an effort to streamline client interaction processes, a business is transitioning to a sophisticated platform designed for this purpose. The analytics division requires permissions to generate reports and review client data, while the account management division needs the ability to engage with and alter client records. What is the BEST strategy for assigning the appropriate level of system access in accordance with each division's responsibilities?
Allow division heads to grant access as they see fit for their respective teams
Utilize a predefined set of roles that are specific to user job functions to regulate access within the platform
Institute a policy where access is determined by the seniority of the personnel within the organization
Grant all divisions the same level of access to simplify management of the new platform
Answer Description
The best strategy is to assign access rights according to the functions necessary for each job role within the new platform. The analytics division should receive a viewing and reporting role to access and analyze data without the risk of altering it, enhancing data integrity. Conversely, the account management division should be given a more comprehensive role that encompasses the creation, viewing, updating, and deletion of client records, aligned with their day-to-day account maintenance and client interaction tasks. This access control mechanism follows the principle of 'least privilege,' granting users only the permissions necessary to perform their jobs, which is a fundamental aspect of secure role assignments. Using 'RBAC' without explaining its meaning or acronym form could lead to confusion for those unfamiliar with the term, highlighting the necessity for clarity in both teaching and testing environments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does RBAC stand for, and how does it work?
What is the principle of 'least privilege'?
Why is it risky to grant all divisions the same level of access?
A company is reviewing its disaster recovery plan to ensure that the amount of data loss in the event of a disaster does not exceed business operational tolerances. Which metric should be assessed to determine the optimal frequency of data backups?
Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Answer Description
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) represents the maximum period of data that an organization can tolerate losing during a disaster event. A tighter RPO calls for more frequent backups, whereas a lenient RPO allows for less frequent backups. Understanding the RPO helps to determine the backup schedule that aligns with the business's data loss tolerance. On the contrary, Recovery Time Objective (RTO) focuses on the maximum amount of time an organization can tolerate to recover operations; meanwhile, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) pertain to financial impacts of data loss and do not directly dictate backup frequencies.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
How is RPO different from RTO?
What are Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) and Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
During a routine update, an IT administrator accidentally overwrites crucial configuration files, causing incorrect data to be displayed to users. Which fundamental security principle is most impacted by this incident?
Confidentiality
Availability
Authentication
Integrity
Answer Description
Integrity refers to the accuracy and reliability of data. When the IT administrator overwrote the configuration files, it led to incorrect data being presented, thus compromising data integrity. Confidentiality involves protecting information from unauthorized access, which is not the issue here. Availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, but the systems are still operational. Authentication relates to verifying the identity of users or systems, which is not impacted in this scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does data integrity mean in cybersecurity?
How can organizations prevent integrity issues like accidental overwrites?
What are the differences between confidentiality, integrity, and availability?
Your coworker is out sick due to an illness. In his absence you have received the results of a vulnerability scan he ordered from an external provider. Unfortunately your coworker did not give you any information on what type of scan was conducted or what methods were used. The results show that 3 injection vulnerabilities were identified but are only possible when attempted from an authenticated user account. Based on the information you have, what type of vulnerability scan was most likely completed?
Gray box
Intrusive
Credentialed
Non-intrusive
Answer Description
A credentialed vulnerability scan was done. While the other answers could also be correct (e.g. it could have been an intrusive and credentialed scan) but with the information given in the question you could not know this. When a credentialed scan is used the scanner has valid user credentials while in a non-credentialed attack they do not.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a credentialed vulnerability scan?
What are injection vulnerabilities?
How does a non-credentialed scan differ from a credentialed scan?
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