CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Considering your current network security setup only provides notifications when potential security breaches occur, which enhancement would allow the system to not just detect but also proactively counteract malicious traffic?
Enhance the cryptographic assurance using public key infrastructure (PKI)
Incorporate additional security information and event management (SIEM) features
Implement a system with automatic threat mitigation capabilities
Bolster the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) strategies
Answer Description
To address the limitation of a system that only provides notifications when a potential breach occurs, implementing a solution that can take preventative action is necessary. An Intrusion Prevention System is designed to not only detect but to preventively respond to threats by blocking them, therefore enhancing the network's defensive capabilities. The options of bolstering data loss prevention (DLP) strategies, incorporating additional security information and event management (SIEM) features, and enhancing public key infrastructure (PKI) are all valuable in their respective contexts. However, none of these solutions are purposed to block malicious traffic in the way an Intrusion Prevention System would. DLP focuses on preventing data leaks, SIEM centralizes logging and provides threat detection, and PKI deals with encryption and authentication, not inline traffic analysis and intervention.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
How does an IPS differ from a firewall?
What are some typical features of an IPS?
An IT security manager wants to ensure that users can employ complex and unique passwords for each of their accounts without the need to remember each one individually. Which of the following solutions would best meet this requirement?
Enforcing strict password complexity and expiration policies
Implementing biometric authentication methods
Implementing a password manager application
Deploying single sign-on authentication for all services
Answer Description
Implementing a password manager application allows users to securely store and manage complex and unique passwords for all their accounts. This encourages the use of strong, unique passwords without the burden of memorization. Enforcing strict password policies may lead to password reuse or users writing down passwords. Single sign-on (SSO) reduces the number of passwords but does not promote unique passwords for each service. Implementing biometric authentication enhances security but doesn't address the management of multiple complex passwords.
Ask Bash
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What is a password manager application?
How do password complexity requirements work?
What is Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication?
What term is used to describe a component within a system that, if it were to fail, would cause the entire system to cease functioning?
Documentation
Scalability
Limiting factor
Single point of failure
Answer Description
A Single point of failure refers to any critical part of a system which, if it fails, would result in the failure of the entire system. The identification and mitigation of such points are crucial in designing secure and highly available systems. Redundancy is often introduced to systems to prevent a single failure from causing a system-wide outage. Documentation is essential for maintaining records; however, it does not directly relate to a component's failure impact on a system. Scalability pertains to the ability of a system to grow and handle increased demand, while limiting factors are components or variables that can restrict system performance but not necessarily lead to a complete system shutdown.
Ask Bash
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What is redundancy in the context of systems?
How can you identify a single point of failure in a system?
Why is it important to address single points of failure?
Which component is essential for defining and enforcing granular access controls in a Zero Trust network?
Device compliance and health check
Annual security awareness training
Standard static firewall rules
Adaptive identity and policy-driven access control
Answer Description
In a Zero Trust model, adaptive identity and policy-driven access control are crucial. Every request is evaluated against dynamic policies that consider the requesting identity, device posture, and other contextual signals. This process enforces least-privilege, need-to-know access and eliminates implicit trust. Standard static firewall rules mainly protect a network perimeter, while device-compliance checks act only as one input to an access decision; annual security-awareness training does not control access at all. Therefore, adaptive identity combined with policy-driven access control is the component that defines and enforces granular resource permissions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Zero Trust model?
What is meant by adaptive identity and policy-driven access control?
How does least privilege access work in a Zero Trust network?
A system administrator has been tasked with securing data at rest for a company's document storage server, ensuring maximum confidentiality. Which of the following solutions would be the MOST appropriate to accomplish this task?
Ensure Secure Socket Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) is enabled on the server.
Utilize a VPN with robust encryption for accessing documents remotely.
Encrypt each document individually with a unique key.
Implement full disk encryption on the document storage server drive.
Answer Description
Full disk encryption (FDE) is the correct choice as it provides comprehensive encryption of all data on the storage medium, ensuring that without the appropriate decryption key, no data can be read, regardless of the system state or whether the storage device is transferred to another machine. Encrypting individual files, while useful, does not offer the same level of protection if an attacker gains access to the underlying file system. Encrypting data using a VPN only secures data in transit, not at rest. SSL/TLS also protects data in transit and does not apply to data at rest.
Ask Bash
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What is Full Disk Encryption (FDE)?
What are the benefits of FDE compared to individual file encryption?
How does encryption protect data at rest?
Which tool should an organization implement to enhance its capability to analyze and respond to security incidents across its IT infrastructure in a timely manner?
Establish a comprehensive strategy for secure handling and transfer of sensitive information
Install additional firewall rules for improved network perimeter defense
Implement a system that collates and analyzes security alerts and automates response actions
Deploy enhanced endpoint protection on all company devices
Answer Description
A system that offers real-time analysis and automated response to security alerts from applications and network hardware is crucial for organizations looking to monitor their IT infrastructure effectively and streamline their incident response processes. While antivirus software is essential for scanning and removing known malware, it does not offer the capability of central event log aggregation or incident response. A system for preventing data mishandling focuses on the secure handling and transfer of sensitive information but does not encompass broad monitoring or automated incident response. Although enhanced firewall rules strengthen the network perimeter defense, they do not provide holistic security event management or the capability to automate responses to anomalies detected across the network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a security incident response system?
How does automated response improve incident management?
What are examples of security alerts that might be analyzed?
What is 'blocked content' often an indicator of in the context of cybersecurity?
Network congestion due to large volumes of legitimate traffic
The process of encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access
Successful exfiltration of sensitive information from a network
Attempts to access or distribute restricted or malicious data
Answer Description
'Blocked content' generally refers to network security tools' actions to block data that violates security policies or that has been deemed malicious. This action can indicate attempts to access or deliver content that is not allowed by organizational or security policies. It's an essential part of maintaining cybersecurity as it helps prevent unauthorized access and distribution of potentially harmful data.
Ask Bash
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What types of content can be blocked in cybersecurity?
How do organizations determine what content to block?
What tools are commonly used to block content in cybersecurity?
During a risk assessment it was concluded that the value of an asset was less than the cost of the security control needed to protect it from an identified risk. Because of this, it has been decided not to use the control but still utilize the asset. What type of risk management strategy is being used?
Transference
Avoidance
Acceptance
Mitigation
Answer Description
Risk acceptance is the risk management strategy where a risk to an asset is accepted and no action is taken. This usually happens when the cost to mitigate the risk is more than the loss that would occur in the event the risk materializes.
Ask Bash
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What is risk acceptance in cybersecurity?
How do organizations determine when to implement risk acceptance?
What are some examples of risks that might be accepted?
A security analyst, reviewing alerts from an Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) system, notices suspicious command-line activity on a user's workstation indicative of a malware infection. The analyst needs to contain the threat while preserving evidence for a forensic investigation. What is the BEST immediate action for the analyst to take?
Isolate the workstation from the network but leave it powered on.
Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation while it remains connected to the network.
Immediately power off the workstation to stop the malware's execution.
Disconnect the workstation from the network and immediately re-image it from a known-good backup.
Answer Description
The best immediate action is to isolate the workstation from the network but keep it powered on. Isolating the system prevents the potential malware from spreading to other devices on the network (lateral movement) or communicating with external command-and-control servers. Keeping the system powered on is crucial because shutting it down would erase volatile memory (RAM), which contains valuable forensic evidence like running processes, active network connections, and other in-memory artifacts that are essential for analyzing the attack. Powering off the system immediately would destroy this evidence. Running a scan before isolation could allow the malware to spread further. Re-imaging the system is a remediation step that should only occur after a thorough investigation is complete.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to keep a quarantined system powered on?
What does network isolation entail during the quarantine process?
What steps are involved in forensic analysis after a system has been quarantined?
Your employer has a large team of software developers with constantly changing codebases for dozens of internal applications. As a part of change control any code changes go through an automated vulnerability scanning process which checks for known vulnerabilities in frameworks, programming languages, dependencies and the code itself. Due to business pressure these scans have been largely ignored and there are currently over a thousand issues found by the automated scanning. You are tasked with working with the developers and remedying 100% of the issues. What should you do next?
Organize the vulnerabilities by criticality and begin planning for solutions for the most critical vulnerabilities first
Implement an approval step for all code changes that requires no security issues prior to updates
Identify any false positives to reduce the number of items to remediate
Stop all deployments, code changes and updates until the vulnerabilities are fixed
Answer Description
In this scenario the best option for next steps is to organize the vulnerabilities by criticality. Some may be very important and represent significant risk, while others may be false positive or very minor issues. Most scanning solutions will have this information readily available. There is no way to identify false positives without going through each and every one, and halting all code changes would likely cause major disruptions to the business. The logical next step is to begin planning and focus on the worst issues first.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are false positives in vulnerability scanning?
What does it mean to organize vulnerabilities by criticality?
Why is it important to plan remediation for vulnerabilities?
During a routine assessment, a security analyst is tasked with using OSINT to identify potential vulnerabilities that could affect their organization’s network infrastructure. Which of the following methods would BEST support this activity?
Reviewing the organization’s website source code on the production server for misconfigurations
Using search engines to discover discussions and reports on new vulnerabilities affecting similar network infrastructure
Attending industry conferences to gather insights on common network infrastructure issues
Analyzing social media profiles of the organization’s IT staff for potential leads on system flaws
Answer Description
Utilizing search engines to find information on disclosed vulnerabilities pertaining to the organization's network infrastructure directly aligns with the practice of OSINT. It involves using publicly available resources to uncover potential risks that need to be addressed. Social media profiles tend not to reveal technical vulnerabilities of network infrastructure components. Reviewing the organization’s own website source code can be part of a security review, but it does not encompass the collection of OSINT. Attending industry conferences is a good practice for professional development and networking, but it may not specifically yield the actionable vulnerability data that can be found through targeted online searches.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is OSINT, and why is it important in cybersecurity?
What are some effective OSINT tools or techniques for identifying vulnerabilities?
What are some common sources of OSINT data specifically related to network infrastructure?
A security analyst is reviewing an infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) cloud that hosts many customer virtual machines on the same physical hardware. The analyst is concerned that a flaw in the virtualization layer could let one virtual machine break isolation, compromise the hypervisor, and gain control over every other guest. Which cloud threat identified by the Cloud Security Alliance does this scenario BEST illustrate?
Insecure interfaces and APIs
Shared technology vulnerabilities
Data breaches
Account hijacking
Answer Description
This scenario represents the CSA threat category of shared technology vulnerabilities. Components such as hypervisors, CPU caches, and virtualized hardware are shared among multiple tenants in an IaaS cloud. If a vulnerability or misconfiguration allows a VM escape, an attacker can compromise the hypervisor and affect all other customers hosted on the same infrastructure. Insecure interfaces, data breaches, and account hijacking are important threats but they do not focus on vulnerabilities within the shared virtualization layer itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a hypervisor in cloud computing?
What are VM escape attacks?
How can a hypervisor be compromised?
A company has multiple online services with different compute requirements, ranging from high-intensity processing for video rendering to low-intensity processes for a document storage system. The CTO wants to ensure that these services remain operational with minimal disruption in the event of a hardware failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST address the compute resilience needs for the company's diverse set of services?
Clustered servers with resource balancing
Decentralized servers without load balancing
Single powerful server with a hot spare
Multiple air-gapped systems for each service
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Clustered servers with resource balancing' because it allows for the distribution of compute tasks across multiple servers, providing high availability for the various services with differing compute requirements. In the event of a server failure, tasks can be redistributed to other servers in the cluster, minimizing downtime. The incorrect answers are: 'Single powerful server with a hot spare' does not address the diverse compute needs and may lead to underutilization or bottlenecks. 'Multiple air-gapped systems' could provide isolation for security but would not be efficient for resource management across services with different compute needs. 'Decentralized servers without load balancing' would not efficiently distribute compute tasks and could result in suboptimal performance and higher risk of service disruptions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are clustered servers and how do they work?
What is resource balancing and why is it important?
What are the drawbacks of a single powerful server with a hot spare?
Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?
Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.
Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.
Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL Injections
Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.
Answer Description
A Web application firewall (WAF) provides specialized protection to web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic and can specifically target and mitigate threats like SQL injection and cross-site scripting. While network-based, host-based, and cloud-based firewalls can offer protection at different levels, a WAF is specifically designed to secure web applications against these types of web-based threats. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device provides broad network security solutions but is not specialized in web application security like a WAF is.
Ask Bash
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What are SQL injection attacks?
What is the role of a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
How does cross-site scripting (XSS) work?
Your organization is handling sensitive government contracts and must ensure that information related to these projects is guarded against unauthorized physical access. In accordance with data classification policies, which of the following is the BEST way to handle such data?
Institute policies for secure disposal of printouts and storage media containing the data
Encrypt all data and frequently change encryption keys
Store the data in a physically secure location and enforce strict access controls
Enable detailed logging of all access to the data for audit purposes
Answer Description
Storing information with a 'Restricted' classification in a secure, access-controlled environment ensures that only authorized personnel with the necessary clearance or permissions have access to that data. Keep in mind the question is regarding physical access to the data. While encryption, logging, and secure disposal are important for the overall security posture, they do not inherently restrict access to the data to the appropriate individuals.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are access controls and why are they important?
What does it mean to store data in a physically secure location?
What are data classification policies and how do they impact data handling?
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