CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A corporation is evaluating the possible financial impact of an internal network compromise. With the internal network assets valued at $2 million, which of the following best illustrates the 'Exposure Factor' for this risk assessment?
The $2 million total value of the network assets that are at risk.
The likelihood, expressed as a percentage, that the network assets will be compromised each year.
The annual amount required to insure the $2 million worth of network assets against compromise.
The estimated percentage of the $2 million that would be lost if the network is compromised.
Answer Description
Exposure Factor is the percentage of the asset's value that is estimated to be lost due to a security incident. It represents the magnitude of the impact should a security breach occur in terms of the asset's value. In this scenario, identifying the percentage of the $2 million in assets that would potentially be lost during a network compromise is a direct application of the 'Exposure Factor' concept.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is 'Exposure Factor' in risk assessment?
How do you calculate the potential financial losses from a network compromise?
What differentiates Exposure Factor from other risk assessment terms like Asset Value and Likelihood?
An organization wants to detect unauthorized attempts to access their sensitive data. They decide to embed uniquely crafted bait elements within their data repositories that will trigger alerts when interacted with. Which of the following deception technologies would BEST achieve this objective?
Using honeytokens
Setting up a honeynet
Implementing honeyfiles
Deploying a honeypot
Answer Description
Honeytokens are uniquely crafted bait elements embedded within data systems to detect unauthorized access. They can be any type of data, such as fake records or credentials, that appear legitimate but are monitored for interactions. When a honeytoken is accessed or used, it triggers an alert, allowing the security team to identify and respond to potential security breaches. While a honeyfile is a specific type of honeytoken in the form of a file, using honeytokens provides a broader approach, not limited to just files. Honeypots and honeynets involve setting up decoy systems or networks, which are more suited for detecting external attackers rather than monitoring interactions within data repositories.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are honeytokens, and how do they work?
How are honeytokens different from honeypots?
Can honeytokens be used in conjunction with other security measures?
An organization has recently implemented a monitoring system that flags unusual behavior on its network and alerts the security team for potential security breaches. This system was established after a recent incident where unauthorized access went undetected for an extended period. Based on this scenario, what type of control has the organization most likely implemented?
Detective Control
Corrective Control
Preventive Control
Compensating Control
Answer Description
The organization has implemented a detective control. Detective controls are designed to identify and alert when a security incident occurs. The scenario describes a monitoring system that flags unusual behavior, which aligns with the detection and alerting function of a detective control. Preventive controls aim to stop incidents from occurring before they happen, which is not the focus in this scenario. Corrective controls are instituted to limit the damage after an incident has occurred, which is again not the main function described. While compensating controls provide an alternative measure if primary controls fail or are not feasible, the scenario directly mentions the implementation was a response to a previous undetected breach, indicating it is a primary monitoring solution, not a compensatory one.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different types of security controls?
Can you explain what an example of a detective control might be?
How do detective controls fit into an overall security strategy?
A financial services company based in the United States is preparing to launch a new platform for customers in the European Union and several countries in South America. The CISO has tasked the security team with reviewing all relevant data transfer and privacy laws, such as the GDPR. Which type of external governance consideration is being addressed?
National
Local/Regional
Global
Industry-specific
Answer Description
Global considerations are crucial when an organization operates across international borders. In this scenario, expanding to the European Union and South America requires adherence to multinational regulations like the GDPR and various other international data protection laws. This falls under the 'Global' category of external governance considerations. National or regional laws apply within a single country's borders, but the context of operating in multiple distinct international jurisdictions makes this a global issue.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of international laws that impact security governance?
What are global data transfer restrictions?
What are multinational compliance requirements?
When evaluating security architecture for an enterprise's network infrastructure, what is the primary reason for ensuring patch availability for all software components?
To increase the system's processing speed
To enhance the graphical user interface
To ensure compatibility with legacy systems
To fix security vulnerabilities and bugs
Answer Description
Patch availability is important because patches fix security vulnerabilities and bugs in software, improving the security posture of the system. Without timely patch deployment, systems can remain susceptible to exploits and attacks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are software patches and how do they work?
What are vulnerabilities and how can they affect a network?
What is the impact of not applying patches on network security?
The security team at a large corporation is inundated with alerts from their Security Information and Event Management system, with a substantial number being false positives. What is the most effective approach to reduce the number of false positive alerts without significantly compromising the ability to detect actual threats?
Turn off alerts for events considered low risk to reduce the number of incoming notifications.
Raise the alert threshold so only the highest severity incidents are reported.
Disable alerts that are commonly producing false positives.
Refine correlation rules to enforce more specific conditions for triggering alerts.
Answer Description
Refining the correlation rules to establish more stringent alert criteria can significantly decrease the amount of false positive alerts generated by a Security Information and Event Management system. By defining more precise conditions for when an alert should be triggered, a SIEM can more accurately differentiate between standard operations and suspicious activities. Adjustments must be crafted carefully to minimize the risk of missing true security incidents. Altering system thresholds indiscriminately might suppress important warnings, while focus solely on historical data analysis may not take into account novel or evolving threats. Disabling alerts for activities that are considered to be low risk can be risky, as they might cumulatively indicate a security threat if analyzed in context.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are correlation rules in a SIEM system?
What are false positives in security systems?
How can companies balance alert sensitivity and specificity?
A company's primary data center is located in a region prone to earthquakes. A security administrator is tasked with implementing a backup strategy to ensure data can be recovered even if the data center is completely destroyed. Which of the following backup strategies would be the MOST effective in mitigating this specific risk?
Back up data to tapes and store them in a fireproof safe located in the same building.
Implement RAID-6 arrays for all critical servers onsite.
Store encrypted backups at a geographically separate, offsite location.
Create daily snapshots stored on a separate storage area network (SAN) within the same data center.
Answer Description
Storing encrypted backups at a geographically separate, offsite location is the most effective strategy. This approach ensures that if a physical disaster like an earthquake destroys the primary data center, a complete copy of the data is safe and available for recovery at a different location. Onsite solutions like RAID or local snapshots would be destroyed along with the data center, and a fireproof safe in the same building would not protect against the building's collapse.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What types of physical disasters can affect a primary site?
What are some methods for offsite backup storage?
What is the importance of regular testing of offsite backups?
A security analyst is reviewing data handling policies for their organization. They need to ensure that data stored on hard drives, SSDs, and backup tapes is properly encrypted. Which of the following data states correctly describes this type of data?
Data at rest
Data in process
Data in use
Data in transit
Answer Description
Data at rest is the term for data that is not actively moving from device to device or network to network. This includes data stored on media such as hard drives, SSDs, and backup tapes. Data in transit is data actively moving across a network. Data in use refers to data that is currently being processed by a CPU or is in memory.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'data at rest' typically include?
What are the security measures for protecting data at rest?
What is data in transit, and how does it differ from data at rest?
Which state describes information that is being processed by an application?
Data at rest
Encrypted data
Data in use
Data in transit
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Data in use'. Data in use refers to information that is currently being processed by an application, being in the immediate memory or CPU, and it is not at rest or in the process of being transmitted. 'Data at rest' describes data that is stored on a physical medium and is not actively being accessed or processed. 'Data in transit' refers to data that is moving through the network or telecommunication channels. 'Encrypted data' is a state that can apply to any of the three data states (at rest, in use, or in transit) and merely specifies that the data is encrypted, not that it is being processed by an application.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean when we say 'data in use'?
How does 'data at rest' differ from 'data in use'?
What are some security concerns for 'data in use'?
Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?
To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.
To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.
To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.
To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.
Answer Description
Regular self-assessments allow an organization to measure and analyze the effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance of its security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements. This proactive approach serves to identify gaps or weaknesses before they can be exploited, providing an opportunity for improvements and risk mitigation strategies to be implemented. Assessments focused only on technology do not capture the full scope of security governance, and limiting assessments to after an incident occurs would not provide the proactive benefits of regular, preemptive analysis and adjustments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are security governance and its internal standards?
What are some common regulatory requirements organizations must comply with?
How do organizations identify gaps in their security governance?
Which type of threat actor is MOST likely to engage in activities aiming to obtain sensitive information from an organization to demand payment in return for not releasing the information?
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Unskilled attacker
Organized crime
Answer Description
A Blackmail motivation typically involves the threat of revealing sensitive information unless a demand (often for payment) is met, which aligns with the modus operandi of organized crime groups. Organized crime syndicates are known for seeking financial gain through coercion and intimidation, making them the most likely to engage in blackmail. Nation-state actors, while possessing the capability for such actions, are usually driven by espionage or political objectives. Unskilled attackers often lack the expertise to obtain and leverage sensitive information effectively, and hacktivists are generally motivated by political or social objectives, not financial gain through extortion.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some tactics organized crime groups use for blackmail?
What distinguishes organized crime from other threat actors like nation-states and hacktivists?
How do organizations protect themselves from blackmail by organized crime actors?
Which of the following best describes the role of automation in security program management?
Employing artificial intelligence to simulate human thinking in the analysis of security threats
Manipulating human interactions to gain unauthorized access to confidential information
Using technology to perform repetitive and consistent tasks to increase efficiency and reduce human error
Defining protocols for encrypting data across various applications and systems
Answer Description
Automation in security program management refers to the use of technology to perform repetitive and routine tasks without human intervention, which increases efficiency and consistency while reducing human error. Automation can encompass a wide range of processes, from compliance reporting to vulnerability management. For example, automating patch management ensures that systems are updated consistently without the need for manual oversight. In contrast, artificial intelligence would be focused on the simulation of human intelligence processes by machines, social engineering is a manipulation technique that exploits human error to gain private information, and encryption standardization is about defining protocols for encrypting data, not automating processes.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of tasks that can be automated in security program management?
How does automation help reduce human error in security management?
What is the difference between automation in security and artificial intelligence (AI) in security?
An organization needs to ensure the integrity and authenticity of its software by proving the software has not been tampered with after release. Which type of certificate should be used to sign the software digitally before distribution?
Code Signing certificate
Root certificate
Self-Signed certificate
Email certificate
Answer Description
A Code Signing certificate allows developers to sign software digitally, which verifies the integrity of the software and ensures that it has not been tampered with since being signed. Self-Signed certificates could be used but aren't typically trusted by users' operating systems or browsers by default, thereby potentially raising security warnings. An Email certificate is used for securing email communication and ensuring the authenticity of the sender, not for software integrity. A Root certificate is at the top of a certificate chain and signs other certificates rather than being directly used to sign software.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a Code Signing certificate and how does it work?
What are the potential risks of using a Self-Signed certificate instead of a Code Signing certificate?
What are the roles of Root certificates in the certificate chain?
A company is looking to protect its customers' credit card information within its database while still using the data for transactional processes. Which method ensures the original data cannot be derived from the information stored in the database without access to a separate mapping system?
Tokenization
One-way Hashing
Format-Preserving Encryption
Data Masking with Fixed Mask Characters
Answer Description
Tokenization transforms sensitive data into a token, which is a unique identifier that has no meaningful value outside of the tokenization system. Unlike encryption that can be reversed with the decryption key, tokenized data requires access to the original mapping in the tokenization system to convert it back, ensuring enhanced security by preventing reverse-engineering of the tokens if the database is compromised. In the case of protecting credit card information, tokenization is ideal because the tokens can be used for transactional processes without exposing actual credit card numbers.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is tokenization and how does it work?
What are the advantages of using tokenization for payment information?
How does tokenization differ from encryption, and why is it more secure in certain cases?
Which component is built into a computing device to provide secure generation, storage, and use of cryptographic keys?
Hardware Security Module
Secure Boot
Biometric Sensor
Trusted Platform Module
Answer Description
The component designed to be integrated into a computing device for securing cryptographic keys is the Trusted Platform Module. It provides hardware-based security by managing keys within a protected environment, isolated from the operating system. A Hardware Security Module is a dedicated external device used for managing keys, not typically integrated directly on a computer's motherboard. Biometric sensors and secure boot are unrelated to the secure storage and handling of cryptographic keys. Biometric sensors are used for authentication purposes, while secure boot is a process ensuring the integrity of the operating system's boot process.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
How does a Hardware Security Module (HSM) differ from a TPM?
What role do biometric sensors play in security?
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