CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What type of security exercise involves a discussion-based activity where team members analyze and resolve hypothetical scenarios to enhance cybersecurity preparedness?
Fire drill
Tabletop exercise
Simulation
Automated report training
Answer Description
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based activity where members of an organization, including IT and management teams, analyze and resolve hypothetical situations. This type of training is valuable as it allows team members to think through the policies, procedures, and roles they would play during a real event without the pressure of an actual emergency. Such exercises are critical for improving an organization's incident response and establishing a culture of security awareness. They differ from simulations, which are hands-on practices that often involve the actual use of technology to respond to a mock incident, and from fire drills, which are physical evacuation practices.
Ask Bash
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Why are tabletop exercises important for cybersecurity preparedness?
How does a tabletop exercise differ from a simulation in cybersecurity training?
What key roles should participate in a cybersecurity tabletop exercise?
A company is finalizing a deal with a security vendor for a range of services that may require occasional adjustments to responsibilities and may involve various projects. To establish the fundamental framework for the relationship, define the overall terms that would generally apply to any subsequent specific projects or Statements of Work, and cover broad aspects such as dispute resolution and data protection, which document should take precedence?
Service Level Agreement
Business Partners Agreement
Acceptable Use Policy
Master Service Agreement
Answer Description
A Master Service Agreement, spelled out, should take precedence as it will outline the overall structure of the agreement between the company and the vendor. This agreement is key as it sets the stage for any additional specific contracts or project-based terms. This document is pivotal in managing the broad terms and conditions that will govern all other projects and their respective contracts. An Acceptable Use Policy is more focused on guiding how company resources are to be used by individuals and does not cover vendor-client contracts. An agreement specifying the Service Level, fully spelled out, defines specific performance and quality metrics for services provided and does not typically establish general relationship terms. A Business Partners Agreement outlines the partnership between two business entities, but it is not as comprehensive in scope for service agreements and operations as a Master Service Agreement.
Ask Bash
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What is included in a Master Service Agreement (MSA)?
How does a Master Service Agreement differ from a Statement of Work (SOW)?
Can an MSA include Service Level Agreements (SLAs)?
An organization needs to ensure the integrity and authenticity of its software by proving the software has not been tampered with after release. Which type of certificate should be used to sign the software digitally before distribution?
Root certificate
Email certificate
Self-Signed certificate
Code Signing certificate
Answer Description
A Code Signing certificate allows developers to sign software digitally, which verifies the integrity of the software and ensures that it has not been tampered with since being signed. Self-Signed certificates could be used but aren't typically trusted by users' operating systems or browsers by default, thereby potentially raising security warnings. An Email certificate is used for securing email communication and ensuring the authenticity of the sender, not for software integrity. A Root certificate is at the top of a certificate chain and signs other certificates rather than being directly used to sign software.
Ask Bash
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What is a Code Signing certificate?
Why aren't Self-Signed certificates typically trusted?
How does a Root certificate differ from a Code Signing certificate?
Considering your current network security setup only provides notifications when potential security breaches occur, which enhancement would allow the system to not just detect but also proactively counteract malicious traffic?
Implement a system with automatic threat mitigation capabilities
Bolster the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) strategies
Enhance the cryptographic assurance using public key infrastructure (PKI)
Incorporate additional security information and event management (SIEM) features
Answer Description
To address the limitation of a system that only provides notifications when a potential breach occurs, implementing a solution that can take preventative action is necessary. An Intrusion Prevention System is designed to not only detect but to preventively respond to threats by blocking them, therefore enhancing the network's defensive capabilities. The options of bolstering data loss prevention (DLP) strategies, incorporating additional security information and event management (SIEM) features, and enhancing public key infrastructure (PKI) are all valuable in their respective contexts. However, none of these solutions are purposed to block malicious traffic in the way an Intrusion Prevention System would. DLP focuses on preventing data leaks, SIEM centralizes logging and provides threat detection, and PKI deals with encryption and authentication, not inline traffic analysis and intervention.
Ask Bash
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What is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
How does an IPS differ from a DLP system?
Why isn’t a SIEM system suitable for proactive threat mitigation?
An organization wants to gather intelligence on attack techniques by implementing a system that mimics vulnerable services and records interactions with potential intruders. Which of the following would BEST achieve this goal?
Intrusion detection system
Vulnerability scanner
Honeypot
Firewall configured with logging
Answer Description
A honeypot is designed to appear as a vulnerable system to attract attackers. By mimicking services and recording interactions, it allows organizations to study attack methods without compromising actual assets. While an intrusion detection system monitors network traffic for suspicious activity, it does not simulate vulnerable services. A firewall configured with logging controls access but doesn't engage attackers to gather intelligence. A vulnerability scanner identifies weaknesses but doesn't record attacker interactions.
Ask Bash
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What is a honeypot and how does it work?
How does a honeypot differ from an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What are the risks of deploying a honeypot?
A network operations team applied an emergency configuration update to several core routers during production hours, causing an unexpected outage. Management later discovered that the change was neither logged in the ticketing system nor reviewed by the appropriate stakeholders.
Which governance procedure, if properly followed, would most likely have prevented this outage?
Change Management
Acceptable Use Policy
Incident Response
Business Continuity Planning
Answer Description
Change Management establishes a formal process that requires proposed modifications to be recorded, risk-assessed, reviewed, and approved before implementation. By following this procedure, the team would have submitted the update for evaluation, obtained authorization, scheduled the work in a maintenance window, and documented the change-steps that collectively reduce the chance of service disruption. Incident Response focuses on reacting after an event, Acceptable Use Policy governs end-user behavior, and Business Continuity Planning addresses maintaining critical functions during major disruptions; none of these directly enforce the gating and documentation of routine configuration changes.
Ask Bash
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What specific steps are typically included in a Change Management process?
How does Change Management differ from Incident Response?
How does Change Management interact with other governance procedures like Business Continuity Planning?
During an incident response exercise, a security analyst needs to follow a set of predetermined, task-level instructions for handling a specific type of malware outbreak. The instructions detail the exact steps for detection, containment, and eradication. What is this type of document called?
Risk Analysis Documentation
Change Management Policy
Information Security Policy
Playbook
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Playbooks.' In cybersecurity, a playbook is a detailed, step-by-step guide that outlines the procedures for responding to a specific type of security incident, such as a malware outbreak. This document provides task-level instructions for detection, containment, eradication, and recovery. A 'Change Management Policy' governs how alterations are made to IT systems and is not an incident response guide. An 'Information Security Policy' is a high-level document that sets broad security rules for an organization, lacking the specific procedural detail of a playbook. 'Risk Analysis Documentation' is used to identify and assess potential risks, not to provide instructions for responding to an active incident.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of a playbook in incident response?
How is a playbook different from an Information Security Policy?
Why is it important to have predefined playbooks for incidents like malware outbreaks?
A security administrator is implementing an encryption system that uses two distinct, but related keys. One key is used for encrypting data, and the other is used for decrypting it. What type of cryptography is being implemented?
Hashing
Asymmetric key cryptography
Block cipher
Symmetric key cryptography
Answer Description
Asymmetric key cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, is the correct answer because it uses a pair of keys for encryption and decryption-a public key and a private key. Symmetric key cryptography uses a single, shared key for both encryption and decryption. Hashing creates a fixed-size, non-reversible output and is used for integrity, not for encrypting and decrypting data. A block cipher is an algorithm that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks; it describes the method of encryption rather than the key management scheme and is commonly used in symmetric encryption.
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What is the main difference between asymmetric and symmetric key cryptography?
How does a public key and private key pair work in asymmetric cryptography?
How is asymmetric encryption different from hashing in terms of functionality?
A security analyst reviewing logs notices that four user accounts were locked out within a five-minute window. Which of the following BEST explains why the analyst should investigate further before declaring a security incident?
Account lockouts can occur for benign reasons-for example, users repeatedly mistyping passwords-so additional evidence is required to confirm malicious activity.
Lockout policies are enforced solely on domain controllers, making every lockout an indicator of privileged-account compromise.
Modern operating systems no longer lock accounts unless a brute-force attack is detected by the kernel, so a lockout always signals an attack.
Account lockouts only happen after a successful logon, so any lockout automatically proves that credentials were stolen.
Answer Description
Account lockouts are an important indicator because they often appear during password-spray or brute-force attacks. However, they can also be triggered by legitimate users mistyping or caching old credentials on multiple devices. Therefore, analysts should correlate lockout events with additional evidence-such as source IP addresses, Event ID details, or other anomalies-before concluding that malicious activity is occurring. This avoids false positives and unnecessary escalation.
Ask Bash
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What is a password-spray attack and how does it differ from a brute-force attack?
What additional evidence can a security analyst use to confirm if account lockouts indicate malicious activity?
Why is it important to avoid false positives when investigating account lockouts?
Which of the following options is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging?
SIEM
Event manager
SNMP
syslog
Answer Description
Syslog is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging. It includes a standard format for log messages and a network protocol for sending that data to a central logging server. It is widely used by network devices like routers, switches, and firewalls, and on Unix and Linux operating systems. The other options are incorrect. A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system collects and analyzes logs but is not the logging standard itself. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for network management, not a logging standard. 'Event manager' refers to proprietary systems like the Windows Event Viewer, not a vendor-neutral standard.
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What is the primary purpose of syslog?
How does syslog differ from SIEM?
What is the role of SNMP compared to syslog?
What is the primary purpose of performing a packet capture in the context of network security?
To provide network users with a secure method of file transfer
To increase the bandwidth and performance of the network
To collect and analyze network traffic for security monitoring and investigative purposes
To restrict access to network resources based on IP addresses
Answer Description
A packet capture involves collecting all the packets that pass through a certain point on a network. It allows security professionals to see the data being transmitted over the network, which can be valuable for analyzing traffic, troubleshooting network problems, or investigating security incidents. Examining packet contents helps to identify malicious activities, policy violations, or unauthorized data exfiltration. It's a detailed form of network monitoring used to closely inspect network traffic.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between packet capture and network monitoring tools like IDS/IPS?
How do tools like Wireshark help with packet capture?
What are some common use cases for packet capture in cybersecurity?
An organization's Intrusion Detection System (IDS) recently flagged numerous failed login attempts on a server from a single IP address within a short period. What type of activity is MOST likely being detected?
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
Brute force attack
Port scanning
Phishing attempt
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Brute force attack'. This type of activity suggests an attempt to guess the password by systematically trying numerous possible combinations. A brute force attack often generates many failed login attempts in a short time frame, which would be recorded by an IDS. An IDS is designed to detect this kind of anomalous behavior and raise alerts accordingly. 'Port scanning' involves probing a server for open ports and does not necessarily result in multiple failed login attempts and would not typically generate an IDS alert for this behavior. 'DDoS attack' and 'Phishing attempt' are also incorrect because although they are security threats, they generally do not result in repeated failed logins on a server.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
How does a brute force attack work?
How does an IDS differentiate brute force attacks from other threats like port scanning?
Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?
General Data Protection Regulation
United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods
Shipping Port Security Act
Federal Information Security Management Act
Answer Description
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data privacy framework that imposes strict rules on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. As it is one of the strictest privacy and security laws in the world, adopting GDPR-compliant policies will likely ensure compliance with a wide range of international data protection standards. The regulation requires businesses to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens. Additionally, because the GDPR has extraterritorial applicability, meaning it applies to organizations outside the EU that process data of EU residents, adhering to its standards can help a multinational corporation align with global data protection regulations. The other options are either national and not globally focused (like the Federal Information Security Management Act), industry-specific (such as acts related to shipping port security), or limited in scope with regards to data protection (for example, the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods).
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What is the extraterritorial applicability of GDPR?
What are the penalties for non-compliance with GDPR?
How does GDPR compare with other data protection laws, like CCPA?
What is 'blocked content' often an indicator of in the context of cybersecurity?
Network congestion due to large volumes of legitimate traffic
Successful exfiltration of sensitive information from a network
The process of encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access
Attempts to access or distribute restricted or malicious data
Answer Description
'Blocked content' generally refers to network security tools' actions to block data that violates security policies or that has been deemed malicious. This action can indicate attempts to access or deliver content that is not allowed by organizational or security policies. It's an essential part of maintaining cybersecurity as it helps prevent unauthorized access and distribution of potentially harmful data.
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Why is blocked content important in cybersecurity?
What tools are used to block malicious content in a network?
How do organizations define the security policies that block content?
Which approach aligns with the security principle that dictates user permissions should be limited to the bare minimum necessary to accomplish their work tasks?
Granting full rights to all users to avoid performance bottlenecks
Assigning permissions based strictly on job requirements
Providing users with read-write access to all network devices
Applying time-of-day restrictions to user logins
Answer Description
The principle of least privilege is about limiting user permissions to the most restrictive set necessary to perform job duties, thus mitigating the potential risk and impact of a security incident. Granting full rights regardless of role would violate this principle. Time-of-day restrictions are a form of access control but do not inherently limit the scope of access rights to essential tasks. Read-write access to all network devices would provide excessive privileges that are not aligned with the principle.
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What is the Principle of Least Privilege (PoLP)?
How is the Principle of Least Privilege implemented in real-world scenarios?
What are the risks of not following the Principle of Least Privilege?
A security analyst is discussing cybersecurity with a family member who mentions a recent incident. The family member received an unsolicited phone call from someone claiming to be a support technician from a major software vendor. The caller convinced the family member that their computer was infected with a virus and guided them to install a "removal tool", which was actually malware. Which of the following social engineering attacks BEST describes this incident?
Watering hole
Tailgating
Spear phishing
Vishing
Answer Description
The correct answer is vishing. Vishing, or voice phishing, is a social engineering attack that occurs over the phone, where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity to deceive victims into providing sensitive information or installing malware. The scenario describes a classic tech support scam executed via a phone call.
- Spear phishing is incorrect because it involves highly targeted attacks sent via email, not phone calls.
- Tailgating is a physical security attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a secure area and is not relevant to this scenario.
- A watering hole attack is a strategy where an attacker compromises a website that is frequently visited by a specific group of users, rather than initiating contact via a phone call.
Ask Bash
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What does vishing stand for and how does it work?
How is vishing different from spear phishing?
How can someone prevent falling victim to vishing attacks?
Which of the following best describes the concept of availability in the context of high availability systems?
The ability of a system to quickly restore operations and functionality following an outage
A security measure that involves ensuring a computer or network is physically isolated from other networks
The capability of a system to facilitate the immediate processing of data inputs and outputs
The assurance that systems and services are reliable and can operate without excessive downtime
Answer Description
Availability refers to the concept that systems, functions, or data should be accessible when required by the user. High availability systems are designed to be operational and available for use a very high percentage of the time, often through redundant or fault-tolerant components. An 'Air-gapped network' refers to a security measure to physically isolate a computer or network from other networks, including the internet, which doesn't directly pertain to its ability to be available. 'Ease of recovery' is associated with the ability to restore system capabilities or access to data after a disruption, not the continuous availability. 'Real-time processing' refers to the capability of systems to process data as it comes in without delay, which is not exclusively about the system’s ability to be continuously operational and available.
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How do high availability systems achieve continuous uptime?
What is the difference between high availability and disaster recovery?
What is an air-gapped network, and how does it differ from high availability?
Which of the following is an example of a factor that would be categorized under 'something you are' when implementing multifactor authentication?
Smart card in possession of the user
Retinal scan
Password known only to the user
Digital certificate installed on a smartphone
Answer Description
A retinal scan is an example of a 'something you are' factor in multifactor authentication, as it relies on the unique biological traits of an individual's retina. This factor is based on physical characteristics that are inherent to an individual and cannot be transferred or guessed, unlike a digital certificate which is 'something you have' or a password which is 'something you know'.
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What makes a retinal scan a 'something you are' factor in multifactor authentication?
How does 'something you are' differ from 'something you have' in multifactor authentication?
Why is 'something you are' considered more secure than 'something you know' in authentication?
After a recent data breach where an adversary successfully exfiltrated sensitive data, the incident response team has completed the containment and eradication stages. Which action would BEST equip the team to perform root cause analysis and determine the original vulnerability exploited?
Conducting a thorough analysis of security logs for signs of initial compromise
Running a comprehensive vulnerability scan on all networked systems
Initiating a campaign to re-educate all users about phishing and social engineering
Scheduling a complete review of all organizational security policies and procedures
Answer Description
Conducting a thorough analysis of the security logs, especially around the time of the breach, will likely reveal the sequence of events that led to the breach, including the initial point of entry and methods used by the attacker. This detailed trail is indispensable for pinpointing the original vulnerability or misconfiguration that the attacker exploited. Simply running a vulnerability scan might identify potential vulnerabilities but would not confirm which were actually exploited. Organizational policy review and user education, while important, are less likely to directly lead to the discovery of the specific exploited vulnerability.
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Why are security logs critical for root cause analysis after a breach?
How do security logs differ from vulnerability scans?
What tools can be used to analyze security logs effectively?
A company needs its critical applications to remain operational with minimal downtime, even in the event of hardware failures. Which strategy is most appropriate to meet this requirement?
Deploying encryption to secure data at rest
Implementing a server cluster with load balancing
Scheduling regular system updates during low usage periods
Using a single powerful server with redundant components
Answer Description
Implementing a server cluster with load balancing is the most effective strategy for maintaining operations during hardware failures. Load balancing distributes traffic across multiple servers, so if one server fails, others can handle the load seamlessly, ensuring high availability. Using a single powerful server, even with redundant components, still presents a single point of failure. Regular updates and encryption are important for security and maintenance but do not directly address the need for continuous operation during failures.
Ask Bash
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What is a server cluster?
How does load balancing work within a server cluster?
What are the differences between server clustering and using a single server with redundancy?
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