00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?

  • The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.

  • A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.

  • The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.

  • Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.

Question 2 of 20

A security manager has placed conspicuous warning signs around the perimeter of a data center. The signs state, "No Trespassing - Violators Will Be Prosecuted." What type of security control does this action represent?

  • Compensating

  • Deterrent

  • Corrective

  • Preventive

Question 3 of 20

A corporation is formalizing a partnership with an external vendor to detail the expected quality and delivery of IT services, which includes commitments on uptime and the promptness of customer support. Which agreement explicitly defines these expectations and associated performance metrics?

  • Memorandum of Understanding

  • Non-Disclosure Agreement

  • Business Partners Agreement

  • Memorandum of Agreement

  • Service-Level Agreement

  • Master Service Agreement

Question 4 of 20

During an audit, a security administrator discovers that several accounting users can create and delete network shares even though they only need to read and update invoices stored on a file server. Which corrective action BEST enforces the principle of least privilege when the accounts are remediated?

  • Enable single sign-on (SSO) so users authenticate through the corporate identity provider

  • Strip any permissions that are not required for invoice processing and leave only the necessary read/write rights

  • Upgrade each account to local administrator to eliminate future permission requests

  • Apply time-based login restrictions that block the users from accessing the file server after business hours

Question 5 of 20

After a recent firewall change, several users report they can reach the internal intranet site but cannot browse any external websites. You discover that HTTPS traffic is being blocked. Which firewall port must be opened so users can securely access public websites again?

  • 443

  • 3389

  • 80

  • 8080

Question 6 of 20

Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?

  • Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.

  • Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL Injections

  • Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.

  • Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.

Question 7 of 20

A security analyst is tasked with enhancing the organization's proactive defense capabilities by identifying new and evolving attack methodologies before they are widely used. Which of the following would be the MOST effective practice for this purpose?

  • Conduct regular internal vulnerability scans on all network assets.

  • Subscribe to and analyze threat intelligence feeds.

  • Enforce a more stringent password complexity and rotation policy.

  • Perform a comprehensive penetration test on an annual basis.

Question 8 of 20

What type of malware is designed to replicate itself from one computer to another with the intention of spreading as much as possible, often consuming system resources and potentially causing denial of service?

  • Ransomware

  • Rootkit

  • Spyware

  • Worm

Question 9 of 20

You are responsible for application security for a small startup. You are responsible for conducting regular penetration tests. Recently the startup has faced some budget issues and lacks the funds to create a stand alone system to be used for vulnerability scanning applications. Due to this constraint you must conduct vulnerability scans on the live system (the same one being used by customers). What type of scan should be used to ensure vulnerabilities are found but not executed?

  • credentialed

  • intrusive

  • non-intrusive

  • non-credentialed

Question 10 of 20

In an effort to streamline client interaction processes, a business is transitioning to a sophisticated platform designed for this purpose. The analytics division requires permissions to generate reports and review client data, while the account management division needs the ability to engage with and alter client records. What is the BEST strategy for assigning the appropriate level of system access in accordance with each division's responsibilities?

  • Utilize a predefined set of roles that are specific to user job functions to regulate access within the platform

  • Grant all divisions the same level of access to simplify management of the new platform

  • Institute a policy where access is determined by the seniority of the personnel within the organization

  • Allow division heads to grant access as they see fit for their respective teams

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following is a potential risk when relying heavily on automation for security operations?

  • Single point of failure

  • Automatic enforcement of configuration baselines

  • Standardized infrastructure configurations

  • Improved reaction time

Question 12 of 20

Why does end-of-life (EOL) hardware pose a security risk to an organization?

  • Built-in firmware security modules render additional software patches unnecessary.

  • It operates only on isolated legacy networks, preventing any external access and attacks.

  • Regulations exempt EOL hardware from compliance audits, reducing the organization's risk exposure.

  • It no longer receives vendor security patches, so attackers can exploit known vulnerabilities.

Question 13 of 20

A financial services company needs to ensure its critical operations can resume as quickly as possible following a catastrophic event at its primary data center. To meet a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than one hour, which type of disaster recovery site should the company implement for the highest level of availability?

  • Hot site

  • Lukewarm site

  • Cold site

  • Warm site

Question 14 of 20

A network administrator is hardening a new web server and must configure the firewall to allow secure web traffic. Which TCP port should the administrator open to allow HTTPS connections by default?

  • 3389

  • 143

  • 80

  • 443

Question 15 of 20

What is the primary goal of conducting a tabletop exercise as part of cybersecurity testing?

  • To perform a live-action simulation of a cyberattack on the organization's network.

  • To physically test the security measures in place by attempting to gain unauthorized access to a facility.

  • To facilitate a scenario-driven discussion that tests an organization's incident response plan.

  • To conduct an automated penetration test against the organization's IT infrastructure.

Question 16 of 20

A multinational corporation with operations in several countries is working to ensure compliance with global data protection regulations. What is the most appropriate action for the company to take in order to maintain compliance with the diverse set of regulations concerning user data privacy?

  • Create a data retention policy that focuses on adhering to the least restrictive data protection standards to ensure ease of data flow.

  • Delegate the responsibility for compliance with data protection laws to the IT department of each local office.

  • Establish a data governance framework that complies with the highest standard among the international data protection regulations.

  • Set up an external compliance team dedicated to each region to handle region-specific data privacy laws.

Question 17 of 20

What type of authentication factor requires a user to present a physical object such as a security token or a smart card to gain access to a system?

  • Something you know

  • Something you are

  • Somewhere you are

  • Something you have

Question 18 of 20

What type of NIDS commonly uses artificial intelligence and data mining to identify malicious network traffic?

  • Filter-based NIDS

  • Rule-based NIDS

  • Anomaly-based NIDS

  • Signature-based NIDS

Question 19 of 20

A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?

  • Auditor

  • Data Custodian/Steward

  • Data Owner

  • Data Controller

Question 20 of 20

Which type of social engineering attack specifically targets high-level executives through email in an attempt to steal sensitive information?

  • Watering hole attack

  • Pharming

  • Typosquatting

  • Vishing

  • Whaling

  • Spear phishing