CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?
The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.
A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.
The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.
Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.
Answer Description
With asymmetric encryption, the sender uses the recipient's public key to encrypt the data. Only the holder of the mathematically related private key can decrypt that ciphertext, so confidentiality is preserved even if the encrypted traffic is intercepted. In contrast, symmetric encryption relies on a single shared secret key (Answer 1), digital signatures created with a sender's private key provide integrity and authentication-not confidentiality (Answer 3), and striping data across drives (Answer 4) is a storage redundancy technique unrelated to encryption.
Ask Bash
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How does the public key and private key work together in asymmetric encryption?
Why is asymmetric encryption considered more secure than symmetric encryption for certain tasks?
What are some common applications of asymmetric encryption?
A security manager has placed conspicuous warning signs around the perimeter of a data center. The signs state, "No Trespassing - Violators Will Be Prosecuted." What type of security control does this action represent?
Compensating
Deterrent
Corrective
Preventive
Answer Description
Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential attackers. Warning signs are a classic example as they inform individuals of the consequences of trespassing, aiming to deter the action. This is not a preventive control, as it does not physically stop an intruder (e.g., a fence or a lock). It is not a corrective control, which is used after an incident to limit damage (e.g., restoring from backups). It is also not a compensating control, which serves as an alternative when a primary control is not feasible.
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What is the purpose of a deterrent control?
How does a deterrent control differ from a preventive control?
What are examples of other deterrent controls besides warning signs?
A corporation is formalizing a partnership with an external vendor to detail the expected quality and delivery of IT services, which includes commitments on uptime and the promptness of customer support. Which agreement explicitly defines these expectations and associated performance metrics?
Memorandum of Understanding
Non-Disclosure Agreement
Business Partners Agreement
Memorandum of Agreement
Service-Level Agreement
Master Service Agreement
Answer Description
The correct answer is the Service-Level Agreement. A Service-Level Agreement is a formal document that outlines the expected level of service provided by a vendor, including measurable performance metrics like uptime and response times. Memoranda of Agreement and Memoranda of Understanding typically document more general cooperation or mutual intent between parties without delving into specific service metrics. A Master Service Agreement establishes a contractual framework that might not detail service metrics, which are often found in subsequent work orders or statements of work. A Non-Disclosure Agreement is focused on confidentiality of information and does not relate to service performance criteria. A Business Partners Agreement is similar in some respects but is not primarily concerned with specific service delivery metrics like response times or system availability.
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What are the key components of an SLA?
How does an SLA differ from a Master Service Agreement (MSA)?
How can organizations ensure SLAs are being met?
During an audit, a security administrator discovers that several accounting users can create and delete network shares even though they only need to read and update invoices stored on a file server. Which corrective action BEST enforces the principle of least privilege when the accounts are remediated?
Enable single sign-on (SSO) so users authenticate through the corporate identity provider
Strip any permissions that are not required for invoice processing and leave only the necessary read/write rights
Upgrade each account to local administrator to eliminate future permission requests
Apply time-based login restrictions that block the users from accessing the file server after business hours
Answer Description
Least privilege requires each user to have no more permissions than are strictly necessary. Removing the ability to create or delete shares-or any other rights not tied to invoice processing-satisfies the principle. Granting full administrative rights, adding MFA, or limiting login hours may improve security in other ways but do not reduce the scope of existing permissions to the absolute minimum.
Ask Bash
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What is the Principle of Least Privilege (PoLP)?
How is the Principle of Least Privilege implemented in real-world scenarios?
What are the risks of not following the Principle of Least Privilege?
After a recent firewall change, several users report they can reach the internal intranet site but cannot browse any external websites. You discover that HTTPS traffic is being blocked. Which firewall port must be opened so users can securely access public websites again?
443
3389
80
8080
Answer Description
Web browsers establish encrypted sessions with external web servers using the HTTPS protocol, which by default uses TCP port 443. Allowing outbound (and corresponding return) traffic on this port restores secure web access. Ports 80 and 8080 carry unencrypted HTTP, while 3389 is used for Remote Desktop, so opening those would not solve the problem.
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Why is TCP port 443 essential for HTTPS traffic?
What are SSL and TLS in HTTPS communication?
How do firewall rules affect ports like 443?
Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?
Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.
Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL Injections
Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.
Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.
Answer Description
A Web application firewall (WAF) provides specialized protection to web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic and can specifically target and mitigate threats like SQL injection and cross-site scripting. While network-based, host-based, and cloud-based firewalls can offer protection at different levels, a WAF is specifically designed to secure web applications against these types of web-based threats. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device provides broad network security solutions but is not specialized in web application security like a WAF is.
Ask Bash
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What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
How is a WAF different from a network-based firewall?
Why can't blocking HTTP/80 traffic alone prevent SQL injection attacks?
A security analyst is tasked with enhancing the organization's proactive defense capabilities by identifying new and evolving attack methodologies before they are widely used. Which of the following would be the MOST effective practice for this purpose?
Conduct regular internal vulnerability scans on all network assets.
Subscribe to and analyze threat intelligence feeds.
Enforce a more stringent password complexity and rotation policy.
Perform a comprehensive penetration test on an annual basis.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to subscribe to and analyze threat intelligence feeds. Threat intelligence feeds provide up-to-date information on emerging threats, new attack vectors, malware, and adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs). This allows security professionals to proactively adjust defenses against new threats. While the other options are valid security practices, they are not the most effective for identifying emerging threats. Regular vulnerability scanning is crucial for finding known vulnerabilities in the current environment but is reactive to what is already known. Enforcing stronger password policies is a fundamental security control but does not provide insight into new attack methods. Annual penetration testing validates existing defenses against known attack types but is a point-in-time assessment and less effective for continuous monitoring of new, evolving threats.
Ask Bash
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What are threat intelligence feeds?
How do threat intelligence feeds differ from vulnerability scans?
Why is real-time monitoring of new threats important?
What type of malware is designed to replicate itself from one computer to another with the intention of spreading as much as possible, often consuming system resources and potentially causing denial of service?
Ransomware
Rootkit
Spyware
Worm
Answer Description
A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers, often over a network. It can consume system resources which can lead to denial of service. Unlike a virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program and often exploits vulnerabilities in network services to spread. Ransomware, while it may spread across networks, is primarily known for encrypting files and demanding a ransom; it is not characterized by its ability to replicate on its own. Spyware is designed to gather information without consent and does not typically replicate itself. A rootkit is designed to provide unauthorized access to a computer system and conceal its presence, not to propagate across networks.
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How does a worm differ from a virus?
What vulnerabilities do worms typically exploit to spread?
How can organizations protect against worms?
You are responsible for application security for a small startup. You are responsible for conducting regular penetration tests. Recently the startup has faced some budget issues and lacks the funds to create a stand alone system to be used for vulnerability scanning applications. Due to this constraint you must conduct vulnerability scans on the live system (the same one being used by customers). What type of scan should be used to ensure vulnerabilities are found but not executed?
credentialed
intrusive
non-intrusive
non-credentialed
Answer Description
As you are scanning the live/production system a non-intrusive scan is best. Non-intrusive means security issues will be identified but not exploited as to not negatively impact the system. The issue with this is some vulnerabilities cannot be found without trying an exploit (e.g. a SQL injection to delete data can't be tested without actually deleting data). Due to this the scenario described in the question is not ideal and it's possible vulnerabilities that exist will not be found.
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What is a non-intrusive scan?
Why might some vulnerabilities remain undetected during non-intrusive scans?
How does a non-intrusive scan differ from an intrusive scan?
In an effort to streamline client interaction processes, a business is transitioning to a sophisticated platform designed for this purpose. The analytics division requires permissions to generate reports and review client data, while the account management division needs the ability to engage with and alter client records. What is the BEST strategy for assigning the appropriate level of system access in accordance with each division's responsibilities?
Utilize a predefined set of roles that are specific to user job functions to regulate access within the platform
Grant all divisions the same level of access to simplify management of the new platform
Institute a policy where access is determined by the seniority of the personnel within the organization
Allow division heads to grant access as they see fit for their respective teams
Answer Description
The best strategy is to assign access rights according to the functions necessary for each job role within the new platform. The analytics division should receive a viewing and reporting role to access and analyze data without the risk of altering it, enhancing data integrity. Conversely, the account management division should be given a more comprehensive role that encompasses the creation, viewing, updating, and deletion of client records, aligned with their day-to-day account maintenance and client interaction tasks. This access control mechanism follows the principle of 'least privilege,' granting users only the permissions necessary to perform their jobs, which is a fundamental aspect of secure role assignments. Using 'RBAC' without explaining its meaning or acronym form could lead to confusion for those unfamiliar with the term, highlighting the necessity for clarity in both teaching and testing environments.
Ask Bash
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What is RBAC in access control?
What is the principle of least privilege?
Why shouldn’t access be based on seniority?
Which of the following is a potential risk when relying heavily on automation for security operations?
Single point of failure
Automatic enforcement of configuration baselines
Standardized infrastructure configurations
Improved reaction time
Answer Description
While automation brings efficiency, consistency, and speed, it can also concentrate reliance on a single script, platform, or orchestration engine. If that component fails, the organization could lose critical security visibility and controls-a classic single point of failure. By contrast, improved reaction time, automatic enforcement of baselines, and standardized infrastructure configurations are typical benefits, not risks, of automation.
Ask Bash
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What is a single point of failure in cybersecurity?
How can organizations mitigate single points of failure in automated security operations?
What are the benefits of automation in security operations despite the risks?
Why does end-of-life (EOL) hardware pose a security risk to an organization?
Built-in firmware security modules render additional software patches unnecessary.
It operates only on isolated legacy networks, preventing any external access and attacks.
Regulations exempt EOL hardware from compliance audits, reducing the organization's risk exposure.
It no longer receives vendor security patches, so attackers can exploit known vulnerabilities.
Answer Description
When hardware reaches end-of-life, the vendor stops releasing firmware or driver updates, including security patches. Any publicly known or newly discovered vulnerability therefore remains unpatched and can be exploited by threat actors, turning the outdated hardware into an easy entry point for attacks. Organizations must plan to replace or isolate such assets to maintain a secure posture.
Ask Bash
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What is end-of-life (EOL) hardware?
How can organizations mitigate the risks associated with EOL hardware?
Why are vendor security patches critical for hardware security?
A financial services company needs to ensure its critical operations can resume as quickly as possible following a catastrophic event at its primary data center. To meet a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than one hour, which type of disaster recovery site should the company implement for the highest level of availability?
Hot site
Lukewarm site
Cold site
Warm site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped and operational duplicate of the primary site, often with real-time data synchronization, designed for immediate or near-immediate failover. This meets the requirement for the fastest possible recovery time, typically within minutes to hours. A warm site has hardware and connectivity but requires data to be restored from backups, leading to a recovery time of hours to days. A cold site is a basic facility with space, power, and cooling, but no pre-installed hardware, resulting in a recovery time of weeks or longer. 'Lukewarm site' is not a standard industry term for disaster recovery sites.
Ask Bash
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What is a hot site in disaster recovery?
What are the main differences between a hot site, a warm site, and a cold site?
What factors determine which type of disaster recovery site to choose?
A network administrator is hardening a new web server and must configure the firewall to allow secure web traffic. Which TCP port should the administrator open to allow HTTPS connections by default?
3389
143
80
443
Answer Description
The correct answer is port 443. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is the standard protocol for secure web communication and uses TCP port 443 by default. Port 80 is used for unencrypted HTTP traffic. Port 143 is the default for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), which is used for email retrieval. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
Ask Bash
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Why does HTTPS use port 443 by default?
What is the difference between HTTP (port 80) and HTTPS (port 443)?
How does a firewall handle port configurations for HTTPS?
What is the primary goal of conducting a tabletop exercise as part of cybersecurity testing?
To perform a live-action simulation of a cyberattack on the organization's network.
To physically test the security measures in place by attempting to gain unauthorized access to a facility.
To facilitate a scenario-driven discussion that tests an organization's incident response plan.
To conduct an automated penetration test against the organization's IT infrastructure.
Answer Description
The primary goal of a tabletop exercise is to verify the effectiveness of an organization's incident response plan through a facilitated discussion on how to address and manage hypothetical security incidents. This non-technical assessment focuses on communication, coordination, and decision-making processes, distinguishing it from other forms of response drills that involve active technical engagement.
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What does a typical tabletop exercise involve?
How does a tabletop exercise differ from a penetration test?
Why are tabletop exercises important for cybersecurity preparedness?
A multinational corporation with operations in several countries is working to ensure compliance with global data protection regulations. What is the most appropriate action for the company to take in order to maintain compliance with the diverse set of regulations concerning user data privacy?
Create a data retention policy that focuses on adhering to the least restrictive data protection standards to ensure ease of data flow.
Delegate the responsibility for compliance with data protection laws to the IT department of each local office.
Establish a data governance framework that complies with the highest standard among the international data protection regulations.
Set up an external compliance team dedicated to each region to handle region-specific data privacy laws.
Answer Description
Establishing a comprehensive data governance framework that is built to comply with the highest standard among international data protection regulations ensures that the organization operates above the baseline requirements of all jurisdictions it operates in. This approach is usually more efficient than attempting to comply with each set of local regulations separately and minimizes the risk of non-compliance. Marking the setup of an external compliance team as the correct answer would be inappropriate because it does not necessarily ensure compliance with global data protection standards. Creating a data retention policy focusing on the least restrictive standards does not ensure compliance with more stringent regulations in other jurisdictions. Lastly, leaving the compliance decision to local IT departments may result in a fragmented and inconsistent approach to data protection that could lead to non-compliance.
Ask Bash
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What is a data governance framework?
Why is it better to comply with the highest standards of data protection regulations?
How does data privacy regulation differ across jurisdictions?
What type of authentication factor requires a user to present a physical object such as a security token or a smart card to gain access to a system?
Something you know
Something you are
Somewhere you are
Something you have
Answer Description
The correct answer requires a physical object that the user must possess in order to authenticate, known as 'something you have'. Unlike knowledge-based factors ('something you know') like passwords, or inherence factors ('something you are') like biometrics, possession factors provide a tangible means of user authentication. This kind of factor can be easily demonstrated by presenting the object and, therefore, serves as a strong layer of security when used as part of multifactor authentication.
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What are examples of 'something you have' authentication factors?
How does 'something you have' differ from 'something you know' as an authentication factor?
Why is 'something you have' considered secure as part of multifactor authentication?
What type of NIDS commonly uses artificial intelligence and data mining to identify malicious network traffic?
Filter-based NIDS
Rule-based NIDS
Anomaly-based NIDS
Signature-based NIDS
Answer Description
An anomaly-based Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) detects unusual network traffic after first being 'trained' on normal network traffic. Theses systems use data mining and artificial intelligence to classify traffic as normal or anomaly/potentially malicious.
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How does anomaly-based NIDS use artificial intelligence?
What is the difference between anomaly-based and signature-based NIDS?
What is data mining in the context of NIDS?
A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?
Auditor
Data Custodian/Steward
Data Owner
Data Controller
Answer Description
Custodians, also known as stewards, are responsible for the day-to-day maintenance and implementation of the security controls over assets based on the policies and guidelines set forth by the organization. While an owner may define the policy for data protection, it is the custodian's role to enforce and implement these policies through technical means, such as configuring and applying encryption to sensitive data. The data owner is typically a senior-level executive who defines what level of protection is required for the data but does not directly manage the security mechanisms. The controller is responsible for making decisions about the processing of the data, and auditors are responsible for reviewing the adherence to policies and regulations, not implementing security measures.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of a Data Custodian/Steward?
How does the role of a Data Custodian differ from a Data Owner?
What is the key difference between a Data Custodian and an Auditor?
Which type of social engineering attack specifically targets high-level executives through email in an attempt to steal sensitive information?
Watering hole attack
Pharming
Typosquatting
Vishing
Whaling
Spear phishing
Answer Description
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-level executives with the purpose of stealing sensitive information from a company. The term 'whaling' is used because it refers to going after the 'big fish' or high-value targets within an organization. Unlike typical phishing attacks, whaling emails are highly customized and often include specific details relevant to the target to make them appear more legitimate.
Ask Bash
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What distinguishes whaling from general phishing attacks?
How do attackers gather information to craft whaling emails?
What are some methods to prevent falling victim to a whaling attack?
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