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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Which access control method combines elements such as user role, the resource being accessed, and the current time to make an access decision?

  • Mandatory access control

  • Attribute-based access control

  • Discretionary access control

  • Role-based access control

Question 2 of 15

What is the primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure?

  • Remediating vulnerabilities to prevent the exploitation of a system

  • Conducting retrospective analysis to determine the root cause of a security incident

  • Enforcing policy by shutting down systems that do not adhere to predefined configurations

  • Identifying unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident

Question 3 of 15

An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?

  • Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.

  • Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.

  • Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.

  • Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.

Question 4 of 15

An IT security manager wants to ensure that users can employ complex and unique passwords for each of their accounts without the need to remember each one individually. Which of the following solutions would best meet this requirement?

  • Implementing a password manager application

  • Enforcing strict password complexity and expiration policies

  • Deploying single sign-on authentication for all services

  • Implementing biometric authentication methods

Question 5 of 15

Your company has recently deployed endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions across the organization. As a security analyst, you are reviewing the endpoint logs and notice several hundred login attempts that were successful after multiple failures from the same IP address. What is the MOST likely security issue these logs indicate?

  • Man-in-the-middle attack

  • Phishing attack

  • Brute force attack

  • Insider threat

  • Denial of Service (DoS) attack

Question 6 of 15

An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?

  • Requiring strong authentication methods

  • Encrypting documents with a symmetric key

  • Implementing digital signatures

  • Applying hashing algorithms to documents

Question 7 of 15

A financial company utilizes a public cloud provider to store transactional data. Which method should the company implement to ensure the protection of this highly sensitive data while adhering to compliance with industry regulations for data at rest?

  • Data Masking

  • Data Obfuscation

  • Hashing

  • Tokenization

Question 8 of 15

What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?

  • It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.

  • It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.

  • It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.

  • It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.

Question 9 of 15

During a regular security scan of the network you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs you find that they all accessed a industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted for this malware. What type of attack would best describe this theory?

  • SYN Flood

  • Watering hole

  • SQL injection

  • Spoofing

Question 10 of 15

Your organization is in the process of selecting a new vendor for cloud storage services. As part of this process, what should be conducted to evaluate and address the risks associated with the potential vendor prior to formalizing an agreement?

  • Right-to-Audit Clause

  • Business Impact Analysis

  • Vendor risk assessment

  • Due Diligence

Question 11 of 15

A security manager is establishing a formal security program. The manager needs to create a high-level document that defines the organization's security goals and mandates the creation of more detailed documents, such as a Disaster Recovery Plan and an Incident Response Plan. Which of the following governance documents should the manager create FIRST to serve this purpose?

  • Acceptable Use Policy

  • Incident Response Plan

  • Business Continuity Plan

  • Information Security Policy

Question 12 of 15

A pharmaceutical company stores its proprietary drug formulas, which are considered trade secrets, on an internal file server. A security analyst is tasked with protecting this sensitive data from disclosure, even if an attacker or an unauthorized employee gains access to the server itself. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective at achieving this specific goal?

  • Placing the server in a locked data center with biometric access

  • Encrypting the files containing the formulas

  • Implementing strict access control lists (ACLs) on the file share

  • Isolating the server on its own network segment

Question 13 of 15

In a Zero Trust security model, what is the primary role of a Policy Engine?

  • It evaluates access requests against security policies and returns allow or deny decisions.

  • It logs all policy approvals to the SIEM for auditing.

  • It acts as the primary user authentication mechanism.

  • It routes data packets between subnets in the network.

Question 14 of 15

What is the primary purpose of performing a packet capture in the context of network security?

  • To restrict access to network resources based on IP addresses

  • To collect and analyze network traffic for security monitoring and investigative purposes

  • To increase the bandwidth and performance of the network

  • To provide network users with a secure method of file transfer

Question 15 of 15

In the process of updating the contingency plans to address potential infrastructure failures, what should management prioritize to ensure essential system functions are restored within an optimal timeframe after an unforeseen outage occurs?

  • Harmonizing the procedural manual with the prevalent statutory requirements.

  • Setting specific deadlines for restoring vital operations.

  • Keeping a detailed record of equipment and software versions.

  • Creating a schedule for regular data archiving and retrieval tests.