CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Scroll down to see your responses and detailed results
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which access control method combines elements such as user role, the resource being accessed, and the current time to make an access decision?
Mandatory access control
Attribute-based access control
Discretionary access control
Role-based access control
Answer Description
Attribute-based access control is the correct answer because it is a method that defines an access control paradigm whereby access rights are granted to users through the use of policies that combine different attributes. These attributes can be associated with the user, the resource being accessed, the current time, and even the current environmental conditions. This is different from role-based access control that focuses solely on the roles that users have, discretionary access control which allows owners to define access, and mandatory access control which enforces access based on a centralized policy.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key attributes used in Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
How does Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) differ from Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
Can you provide examples of when ABAC is particularly beneficial?
What is the primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure?
Remediating vulnerabilities to prevent the exploitation of a system
Conducting retrospective analysis to determine the root cause of a security incident
Enforcing policy by shutting down systems that do not adhere to predefined configurations
Identifying unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident
Answer Description
The primary role of monitoring in relation to indicators within a security infrastructure is to identify unusual patterns or behavior that may signify a security incident. While it might also help in enforcing policy by triggering alerts when anomalies are detected, and can be instrumental in retrospective analysis after an incident, its essential function centers on the prompt detection of potentially malicious activity. Understanding the nuances of monitoring's main role is important in distinguishing it from ancillary benefits such as policy enforcement or post-incident analysis.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are indicators in a security context?
How do security teams monitor for unusual patterns?
What is the difference between monitoring and retrospective analysis?
An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?
Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.
Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.
Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.
Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.
Answer Description
By reporting the suspicious email to the organization’s security team, the employee is following the proper protocol for dealing with potential file-based threats. This allows the security team to investigate and respond to the threat effectively, possibly preventing a security breach. Opening or ignoring the attachment could lead to system compromise, and contacting the manager directly may not stop the potential threat in time if the file is indeed malicious.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a file-based threat?
What does reporting an email to a security team involve?
What are the signs of a phishing email?
An IT security manager wants to ensure that users can employ complex and unique passwords for each of their accounts without the need to remember each one individually. Which of the following solutions would best meet this requirement?
Implementing a password manager application
Enforcing strict password complexity and expiration policies
Deploying single sign-on authentication for all services
Implementing biometric authentication methods
Answer Description
Implementing a password manager application allows users to securely store and manage complex and unique passwords for all their accounts. This encourages the use of strong, unique passwords without the burden of memorization. Enforcing strict password policies may lead to password reuse or users writing down passwords. Single sign-on (SSO) reduces the number of passwords but does not promote unique passwords for each service. Implementing biometric authentication enhances security but doesn't address the management of multiple complex passwords.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a password manager application?
How do password complexity requirements work?
What is Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication?
Your company has recently deployed endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions across the organization. As a security analyst, you are reviewing the endpoint logs and notice several hundred login attempts that were successful after multiple failures from the same IP address. What is the MOST likely security issue these logs indicate?
Man-in-the-middle attack
Phishing attack
Brute force attack
Insider threat
Denial of Service (DoS) attack
Answer Description
A large amount of failed login attempts followed by a successful login from the same IP address is a strong indicator of a brute force attack, where an attacker systematically tries different passwords or passphrases with the hope of eventually guessing correctly. The other options, although plausible under different circumstances, do not align as closely with the specific pattern of login attempts described in the question.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a brute force attack?
What can be done to protect against brute force attacks?
What role does endpoint detection and response (EDR) play in identifying attacks?
An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?
Requiring strong authentication methods
Encrypting documents with a symmetric key
Implementing digital signatures
Applying hashing algorithms to documents
Answer Description
Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption to associate a sender's identity with a document uniquely. This provides non-repudiation by ensuring that the sender cannot deny authoring the document, and the recipient can verify its authenticity. Strong authentication verifies user identities but does not prevent users from denying their actions. Hashing ensures data integrity but does not link actions to specific users. Encryption protects data confidentiality but does not provide proof of the sender's identity.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are digital signatures and how do they work?
What is non-repudiation and why is it important in electronic communications?
How do digital signatures differ from traditional handwritten signatures?
A financial company utilizes a public cloud provider to store transactional data. Which method should the company implement to ensure the protection of this highly sensitive data while adhering to compliance with industry regulations for data at rest?
Data Masking
Data Obfuscation
Hashing
Tokenization
Answer Description
Tokenization is the appropriate method to secure sensitive data at rest, especially for financial transaction data which can contain credit card numbers or personal identification information. By replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive placeholders, tokenization allows the company to handle payment information without exposing actual sensitive data, thus maintaining compliance with industry regulations like PCI DSS. On the other hand, masking and obfuscation may hide data but still could leave it vulnerable to unauthorized access, and hashing, while useful for integrity checks, is not reversible and thus not suitable for data that needs to be retrieved in its original form.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is tokenization and how does it work?
What are industry regulations like PCI DSS?
How do masking and obfuscation differ from tokenization?
What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?
It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.
It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.
It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.
It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.
Answer Description
Uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions directly benefits security by reducing the number of potential attack vectors available to a threat actor. Every piece of software can introduce vulnerabilities, and non-essential applications may not be maintained with the same rigor as critical ones, leading to increased security risks. By minimizing the number of installed programs, the scope for vulnerabilities is narrowed, bolstering the system's resilience to cyber threats.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are attack vectors in cybersecurity?
Why do vulnerabilities arise in non-essential software?
What are some best practices for managing software on a system?
During a regular security scan of the network you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs you find that they all accessed a industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted for this malware. What type of attack would best describe this theory?
SYN Flood
Watering hole
SQL injection
Spoofing
Answer Description
In a watering hole attack the attacker infects a website that is known to be commonly used by an organisation or industry. For example a specific industry news site to attack a business in that industry or the entire industry in general. With the knowledge that users frequent the website the attackers are able to target them with malware and if the attack is successful to install malicious software.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a watering hole attack?
How is a watering hole attack different from phishing?
What steps can be taken to mitigate the risk of watering hole attacks?
Your organization is in the process of selecting a new vendor for cloud storage services. As part of this process, what should be conducted to evaluate and address the risks associated with the potential vendor prior to formalizing an agreement?
Right-to-Audit Clause
Business Impact Analysis
Vendor risk assessment
Due Diligence
Answer Description
Performing a vendor risk assessment is crucial as it helps an organization to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the risks associated with a potential vendor. The assessment can reveal security practices and compliance with industry standards, helping the organization understand the level of risk it may assume if entering into an agreement with the vendor. Orders such as 'Right-to-Audit Clause' and 'Due Diligence' are more focused on ongoing monitoring or the preparation for the audit process itself, though they are related to the broader scope of risk management. A 'Business Impact Analysis' is generally used for internal purposes to assess the impact of disruptions on the business and is less about evaluating third-party vendors.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does a vendor risk assessment involve?
Why is it important to evaluate a vendor's compliance with industry standards?
What are other important factors to consider during a vendor risk assessment?
A security manager is establishing a formal security program. The manager needs to create a high-level document that defines the organization's security goals and mandates the creation of more detailed documents, such as a Disaster Recovery Plan and an Incident Response Plan. Which of the following governance documents should the manager create FIRST to serve this purpose?
Acceptable Use Policy
Incident Response Plan
Business Continuity Plan
Information Security Policy
Answer Description
An Information Security Policy (ISP) is the foundational, high-level document in a security governance structure. It outlines an organization's overall security posture, objectives, and responsibilities. The ISP serves as the authority that mandates the creation and implementation of other, more specific policies, standards, and plans, including the Incident Response Plan and Disaster Recovery Plan. The other options are all specific plans or policies that are typically created under the guidance and authority of the main Information Security Policy.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are Disaster Recovery Plans (DRPs)?
What is an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
How do Information Security Policies support organizational resilience?
A pharmaceutical company stores its proprietary drug formulas, which are considered trade secrets, on an internal file server. A security analyst is tasked with protecting this sensitive data from disclosure, even if an attacker or an unauthorized employee gains access to the server itself. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective at achieving this specific goal?
Placing the server in a locked data center with biometric access
Encrypting the files containing the formulas
Implementing strict access control lists (ACLs) on the file share
Isolating the server on its own network segment
Answer Description
The most effective control to protect the confidentiality of data at rest, such as proprietary formulas on a server, is encryption. Even if an attacker or unauthorized user gains access to the file system, the encrypted data will remain unreadable without the proper decryption key. While physical security, access control lists (ACLs), and network segmentation are important layers of defense, they do not protect the data itself if those layers are breached. Encryption directly protects the data from unauthorized disclosure.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is encryption and how does it work?
What are trade secrets, and why are they important?
What are the risks of not encrypting sensitive company data?
In a Zero Trust security model, what is the primary role of a Policy Engine?
It evaluates access requests against security policies and returns allow or deny decisions.
It logs all policy approvals to the SIEM for auditing.
It acts as the primary user authentication mechanism.
It routes data packets between subnets in the network.
Answer Description
The Policy Engine is the decision-making component of a Zero Trust architecture. It receives contextual information about the subject, device, and requested resource, compares that information to enterprise security policies, and returns an allow, deny, or revoke decision. Enforcement of the decision is performed by the Policy Administrator and the Policy Enforcement Point, not by the Policy Engine itself. The distractors describe logging, authentication services, and routing functions that are unrelated to the Policy Engine's role.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Zero Trust architecture?
What factors does a Policy Engine consider when evaluating access rights?
How does a Policy Engine differ from a SIEM?
What is the primary purpose of performing a packet capture in the context of network security?
To restrict access to network resources based on IP addresses
To collect and analyze network traffic for security monitoring and investigative purposes
To increase the bandwidth and performance of the network
To provide network users with a secure method of file transfer
Answer Description
A packet capture involves collecting all the packets that pass through a certain point on a network. It allows security professionals to see the data being transmitted over the network, which can be valuable for analyzing traffic, troubleshooting network problems, or investigating security incidents. Examining packet contents helps to identify malicious activities, policy violations, or unauthorized data exfiltration. It's a detailed form of network monitoring used to closely inspect network traffic.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What tools are commonly used for packet capture in network security?
How does packet capture help in identifying security threats?
What is the difference between a passive and active packet capture?
In the process of updating the contingency plans to address potential infrastructure failures, what should management prioritize to ensure essential system functions are restored within an optimal timeframe after an unforeseen outage occurs?
Harmonizing the procedural manual with the prevalent statutory requirements.
Setting specific deadlines for restoring vital operations.
Keeping a detailed record of equipment and software versions.
Creating a schedule for regular data archiving and retrieval tests.
Answer Description
Establishing specific deadlines for the restoration of vital services is the cornerstone of an effective contingency plan, ensuring that the most critical operations are available again to meet business needs and customer expectations. While a meticulous resource inventory is useful for resource management and recovery, and defining storage and retrieval processes preserves data integrity, neither sets the timeline for restoring business services. Regulation adherence is also a consideration in planning but does not determine the urgency with which services must be reactivated.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is setting specific deadlines important for restoring operations?
What elements should be included in a contingency plan?
How often should contingency plans be tested and updated?
Gnarly!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.