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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which of the following best describes controls that are designed to establish security policies, procedures, and guidelines?

  • Technical Controls

  • Physical Controls

  • Managerial Controls

  • Operational Controls

Question 2 of 20

During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?

  • Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.

  • Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.

  • Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.

  • Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.

Question 3 of 20

A web developer implements a form where users select their country from a drop-down menu. The developer believes this is secure from SQL injection because the user cannot type into the field. Why is this security measure insufficient on its own?

  • SQL injection attacks can only be performed on text input fields, not selection menus.

  • An attacker can intercept and modify the HTTP request before it reaches the server.

  • JavaScript-based validation on the form would prevent this attack.

  • Drop-down menus are only secure when used with numeric values.

Question 4 of 20

A system administrator is setting up a web server for an internal development and testing environment. The administrator needs to enable HTTPS to simulate the production environment, but wants to avoid the cost and validation process of a public Certificate Authority (CA). Which of the following certificate types is the most suitable choice for this scenario?

  • Wildcard certificate

  • Domain Validation (DV) certificate

  • Self-signed certificate

  • Extended Validation (EV) certificate

Question 5 of 20

Which term describes the specific upper limit of risk exposure that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity, beyond which additional mitigation or other action must be taken?

  • Risk appetite

  • Risk threshold

  • Risk tolerance

  • Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 6 of 20

A security engineer must recommend a network edge device for a branch office. Management wants a single appliance that not only performs stateful packet filtering but can also automatically block attacks using an integrated intrusion prevention system. Which firewall type best satisfies these requirements?

  • Layer 4 firewall

  • Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

  • Layer 7 firewall

  • Web application firewall (WAF)

Question 7 of 20

Your company has given you the responsibility to implement an appropriate access control scheme. The company wants to control access and permissions for employees based on job function. Which of the following should you use?

  • RBAC

  • MAC

  • RuBAC

  • DAC

Question 8 of 20

Your organization is assessing a potential security incident that could impact the confidentiality of client data. The security team needs to evaluate the probability and impact of the incident occurring to prioritize their response. What information is MOST crucial for assessing the probability of this security incident happening?

  • Vendor-provided statistical data on the overall security posture of their systems

  • The likelihood of a threat exploiting a particular vulnerability within the system

  • Geographic location data related to cyber threat origins

  • Historical data regarding past security incidents of similar nature

Question 9 of 20

What does the term 'impossible travel' signify in the context of security monitoring?

  • A security measure taken after multiple unsuccessful login attempts from different locations

  • A type of race condition vulnerability exploited during security checks

  • A method by which session hijacking attacks are performed on multiple accounts at once

  • A warning sign that a user account is accessed from two distant places in a period too short for regular travel, hinting at credential misuse

Question 10 of 20

During a routine internal audit, the IT team uncovers a hidden snippet of code buried deep within the organization's payroll application. The code is programmed to automatically trigger on a specific calendar date and completely erase all employee payroll records if it activates. Which category of malicious software best describes this threat?

  • Trojan horse

  • Logic bomb

  • Spyware

  • Ransomware

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST explains why legacy hardware systems remain attractive targets for cybercriminals?

  • Their proprietary hardware makes exploits prohibitively expensive, so attackers avoid them.

  • They often lack security patches and modern controls, making them easier to exploit.

  • They are less likely to be targeted because outdated technology deters attackers.

  • They are automatically isolated from networks, preventing remote attacks.

Question 12 of 20

A company is transitioning to automated management of its cloud environments. The technology involves defining configuration files that are both human-readable and machine-executable to automatically manage the provisioning and updating of resources. What is this method called and what is a key security practice that must be incorporated to ensure infrastructure integrity?

  • Automated scripting with direct deployment access

  • Infrastructure as Code with rigorous source control management

  • Manual configuration via graphical user interfaces with version tracking

  • Procedural scripting with centralized change management

Question 13 of 20

Which of the following BEST represents the concept of likelihood when performing a risk assessment?

  • Determining the potential impact on the company's reputation if a security incident were to occur.

  • Calculating the monetary loss that could occur if a threat exploits a vulnerability.

  • Assessing the cost and benefits of implementing additional security controls to address vulnerabilities.

  • Evaluating the probability that a vulnerability will be exploited by a threat within a given time frame.

Question 14 of 20

The network administrator at a small organization prefers to allow resource owners to personally assign and revoke access permissions to files on a network share. Which access control model should they implement to accommodate individual control by resource owners?

  • Rule-Based Access Control

  • Mandatory Access Control

  • Discretionary Access Control

  • Role-Based Access Control

Question 15 of 20

Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?

  • To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.

  • To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.

  • To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.

  • To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.

Question 16 of 20

Crucial Technologies has an outside team coming in to conduct penetration testing. It has been decided that the engagement is going to be black box testing. This type of testing involves which of the following?

  • Fully known environment

  • Unknown environment

  • Known environment

  • Partially known environment

Question 17 of 20

In common transport or communication security protocols such as TLS, SSH, and IPsec, which type of cryptographic algorithm is primarily responsible for encrypting the bulk data after the initial key-exchange phase is complete?

  • Hashing algorithms (e.g., SHA-256, SHA-3)

  • Key-stretching algorithms (e.g., PBKDF2, bcrypt)

  • Asymmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., RSA, ECDSA)

  • Symmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., AES, ChaCha20)

Question 18 of 20

A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?

  • Circuit-level gateway

  • Stateful inspection firewall

  • Stateless packet-filtering firewall

  • Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

Question 19 of 20

Within the context of information security, which term is used to describe enforceable directives issued by a government entity that organizations are legally bound to follow?

  • Mandates

  • Guidelines

  • Frameworks

  • Regulations

Question 20 of 20

Within a corporate environment, information such as internal memos, organizational policies, and general employee communications is accessible to all staff members. However, this information is not intended for public distribution. Which of the following data classifications best describes this type of information?

  • Public

  • Confidential

  • Restricted

  • Internal