CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A healthcare company relies on a virtualized server environment to store sensitive patient records. The IT security specialist is implementing a backup strategy that allows for quick restoration of data with minimal data loss in case of a server crash. Which of the following would be MOST effective for this purpose?
Setting up differential backups every 48 hours
Performing a full backup of the servers on a weekly basis
Configuring incremental backups to be taken daily
Using scheduled snapshots of the virtual machines
Answer Description
Snapshots provide a point-in-time copy of the virtual machine's disk file, which can be used to restore a system back to a particular state with minimal downtime. This makes them highly suitable for environments where data needs to be restored quickly and efficiently, such as in a healthcare company handling sensitive patient records. Traditional backups involve copying files to another location and often result in longer recovery times. Differential and incremental backups, while useful for saving storage space and reducing backup time, do not provide the immediate state recovery that snapshots offer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are scheduled snapshots, and how do they work?
How do snapshots differ from full, differential, and incremental backups?
Why is quick restoration critical for healthcare companies?
A healthcare software provider is designing a new patient management system. To ensure an integrated approach to security, which method should be applied to the project from the beginning?
Reviewing and updating agreements with third-party service providers to improve security incident response times
Restricting access to the development environments by implementing role-based access control
Encrypting the database to protect patient records without integrating additional security measures throughout the development process
Introducing security controls during the requirements phase, enforcing coding standards throughout the development process, and performing security testing before the system's release
Answer Description
Introducing security controls during the requirements phase, applying coding standards throughout the development, and performing security testing before launch represents an integrated approach to the security deployment for the patient management system. Addressing security at every stage ensures that security is built into the system from the outset, reducing the risk of later vulnerabilities. Merely encrypting the database addresses only data at rest and does not integrate security throughout the lifecycle. Restricting access to development environments protects the development process but leaves post-deployment security measures unaddressed. Updating service-level contracts is crucial for managing relationships with third parties but does not inherently secure the application development process.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are security controls and why are they important?
What are coding standards and how do they contribute to security?
What is security testing, and what types should be performed before release?
What is the primary role of a generator within the security architecture of a data center?
To regulate the distribution of power to different circuits
To cool down the server racks and prevent overheating
To serve as a primary power source during peak operation times
To provide backup power in the event of a main power supply failure
Answer Description
The primary role of a generator in the security architecture of a data center is to provide backup power in the event that the main power supply fails. This ensures that critical systems remain operational during power outages, thus maintaining high availability and preventing potential security breaches that could occur due to system downtime.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does a generator provide backup power during a power outage?
What are the different types of generators used in data centers?
Why is maintaining high availability critical in data centers?
After a security breach has been contained, an organization must eradicate the threat to prevent further damage. Which of the following actions is the MOST effective way to ensure a sophisticated rootkit is completely removed from a critical server?
Powering off the server until a suitable removal method is determined.
Patching the server with the latest security updates.
Booting to a known clean recovery environment to conduct rootkit removal.
Updating antivirus signatures and rerunning a full scan.
Answer Description
A rootkit is a type of malware known for its ability to hide its existence from standard detection methods, making it notoriously challenging to remove. While updating antivirus signatures is important for prevention and containment, it might not effectively remove an advanced rootkit. The use of a trusted clean recovery environment or operating system to run the eradication process is generally accepted as the best method to ensure that the rootkit is not able to evade removal efforts, as it may do if the infected operating system is used for removal. Patching the server is a key step in preventing future infections, but it does not address removing the existing rootkit. Lastly, turning off the server would indeed stop all current rootkit activity, but it is not practically viable in this context since the organization requires the server to remain operational for critical tasks, and the rootkit would likely still be present when the server is restarted.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a rootkit and how does it work?
What is a recovery environment, and why is it important for rootkit removal?
What are the best practices for maintaining server security against rootkits?
Which solution aggregates logs and other security data from various hardware and software systems in an organization to assist in identifying and managing potential security incidents?
Network Management with Simple Network Management Protocol traps
Data Loss Prevention system
Security Information and Event Management system
Intrusion Detection System
Answer Description
A Security Information and Event Management system collects and correlates events from different sources across the organization's infrastructure to identify aberrant activities that may signify security threats. The incorrect options do not primarily focus on aggregating and analyzing data from multiple resources to identify security incidents; Data Loss Prevention focuses on protecting sensitive data from leaks, Network Management uses SNMP traps mainly for network device management, and Intrusion Detection Systems monitor network traffic to identify potential malicious activity.
Ask Bash
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What are the main functions of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
How does a SIEM system differ from an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What types of data can a SIEM system aggregate for analysis?
Administrators at a financial institution have noticed that its transaction processing application terminates unexpectedly whenever excessively long strings of characters are entered into the input fields. Which vulnerability might be the most likely cause of this application behavior?
SQL Injection
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Directory Traversal
Buffer Overflow
Answer Description
The described scenario suggests that the application is experiencing a Buffer Overflow vulnerability. Buffer overflow happens when a program attempts to write more data to a fixed-length block of memory, or buffer, than it is allocated to hold. Since the application is crashing when processing long strings, it is likely that the allocated memory for the input data is being exceeded, causing the application to terminate unexpectedly. SQL Injection vulnerabilities are exploited by entering malicious SQL statements into input fields, aiming to manipulate the back-end database, which is not related to the length of input causing crashes. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities exploit the way browsers parse HTML and JavaScript but would not cause the application to terminate in the described manner. Directory Traversal attacks aim at accessing files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder, and although they are serious, they do not fit the symptoms described.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a Buffer Overflow?
How can organizations prevent Buffer Overflow vulnerabilities?
What are some common consequences of a Buffer Overflow attack?
Which of the following practices most clearly violates the principle of least privilege on user workstations in an enterprise environment?
Granting standard employees local administrator rights on their workstations
Restricting database administrators to only the tables they maintain
Assigning read-only permissions to employees who only need to view quarterly reports
Providing a time-limited privileged account to a support technician during system maintenance and removing it afterward
Answer Description
Granting standard employees local administrator rights exceeds what they need for their daily tasks and dramatically enlarges the potential attack surface, so it violates the principle of least privilege. The other options either restrict access to only what is required or provide temporary elevated rights that are revoked afterward, which aligns with the principle.
Ask Bash
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What is the principle of least privilege?
What are the risks of granting administrative access to general users?
How can organizations implement the principle of least privilege?
A multinational company with offices in multiple countries is implementing a new security policy. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to ensure the policy complies with all applicable local and regional regulations?
Have local employees provide input on what they believe are the main legal requirements for their respective regions.
Consult with legal experts specializing in cybersecurity and privacy laws for each country where the offices are located.
Implement the strictest regional security practices found among the company's offices to ensure maximum protection.
Align the security policy with internationally recognized standards to cover all regional variations.
Answer Description
Reviewing local and regional legislation where the company operates is essential to ensure the security policy complies with various legal requirements. Each jurisdiction may have unique cybersecurity laws, data protection regulations, and privacy mandates that must be followed. Consulting a legal expert ensures that the policy is drafted with a thorough understanding of these norms. Merely aligning with international standards or involving local employees without considering legal advice may not fully capture the nuances of the region’s laws. Neglecting the legal aspect could potentially lead to non-compliance issues.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of local and regional regulations that might apply to a multinational company's security policy?
What role do legal experts play in developing a security policy for businesses operating internationally?
Why might relying solely on local employees’ input be insufficient for understanding legal requirements?
A security administrator is responsible for maintaining the integrity of software deployed in the company's server environment. They need to detect any unauthorized software modifications and ensure that only approved packages are running on the systems. Which solution should the administrator implement to meet these requirements?
Implementing a file integrity monitoring solution that automatically checks for changes to software packages
Maintaining a configuration management database that records installed software versions
Configuring systems to receive automatic software updates
Performing regular antivirus scanning on all servers
Answer Description
Implementing a file integrity monitoring solution that automatically checks the integrity of system and application software files is the correct answer because such a solution can detect changes to critical system files and software packages, alerting administrators if unauthorized modifications occur. Using automatic updates does not necessarily check for unauthorized modifications; it just updates software to the latest versions. Scanning with an antivirus checks for malware but does not validate software package integrity or unauthorized changes. Using a configuration management database is helpful for tracking changes but does not automatically monitor file integrity.
Ask Bash
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What is file integrity monitoring (FIM)?
How does file integrity monitoring help prevent unauthorized modifications?
What are the differences between file integrity monitoring and antivirus scanning?
ABC Tech Corporation is considering outsourcing their customer support services to XYZ Support Inc. As part of the vetting process, which of the following is the most appropriate action to ensure due diligence and care is exercised in selecting a third-party vendor?
Delegate the decision to an intern, assuming that third-party vendors have similar capabilities
Choose XYZ Support Inc. because they offered the lowest bid, thereby saving on costs
Conduct an in-depth background check on XYZ Support Inc., which includes financial, reputational, and performance aspects
Review the marketing materials of XYZ Support Inc. for their success stories and client testimonials
Answer Description
Due diligence involves a comprehensive appraisal of a business or person's performance, legal obligations, technical competencies, and financial viability before entering into an agreement. Conducting an in-depth background check, which includes reviewing past performance, financial stability, and reputation in the industry, is the correct course of action to ensure due diligence and care is undertaken. This action helps ascertain XYZ Support Inc.’s ability to deliver on their commitments, and align with ABC Tech Corporation's requirements and standards.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What specific areas should be covered during the background check of XYZ Support Inc.?
What are the risks of choosing a vendor solely based on cost?
Why is it important to review a vendor's past performance as part of the background check?
An organization is designing a high-availability web application that must handle fluctuating workloads and ensure minimal downtime during peak usage. Which of the following strategies BEST addresses the compute considerations for achieving high availability in this scenario?
Utilizing real-time data replication to a standby server
Deploying redundant power supplies for each server
Implementing load balancing to distribute traffic across multiple servers
Scheduling regular maintenance during off-peak hours
Answer Description
Implementing load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, effectively managing compute resources to handle fluctuating workloads. This improves both availability and scalability, ensuring the application remains responsive during peak usage times. While data replication to a standby server aids in recovery, it doesn't directly manage compute resources. Scheduling maintenance during off-peak hours minimizes disruption but doesn't address real-time workload management. Deploying redundant power supplies enhances power availability but doesn't handle compute load distribution.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is load balancing and how does it work?
What is high availability and why is it important?
What are redundant power supplies and how do they contribute to system reliability?
Organizations sometimes engage an independent third-party to perform a security audit. Aside from satisfying governmental regulatory mandates, which of the following is a primary business reason for commissioning such an audit?
To assure customers and partners that the organization's security controls follow industry best practices and to build trust.
To remove the need for any internal security assessment activities in the future.
To avoid having to meet security clauses written into existing service-level agreements.
To hide known security weaknesses from prospective investors during due diligence.
Answer Description
The correct answer is "To assure customers and partners that the organization's security controls follow industry best practices and to build trust." Independent audits provide objective evidence of the organization's security posture, helping to demonstrate due diligence and enhance credibility with stakeholders. They do not eliminate the need for internal reviews, hide vulnerabilities, or allow firms to bypass contractual requirements; in fact, they often highlight the need for continued internal assessment and adherence to contracts.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of governmental regulatory requirements that might lead an organization to undergo an audit?
What are the benefits of conducting an independent third-party audit aside from regulatory compliance?
What are some industry standards and best practices that organizations might want to adhere to for audits?
An employee receives a phone call from an individual claiming to be a member of the IT department's security audit team. The caller explains that due to a recent security incident, they are verifying all user credentials. The caller uses a professional tone, refers to a non-existent ticket number, and asks the employee to provide their username and password for verification. Which social engineering technique does this scenario BEST describe?
Smishing
Pretexting
Phishing
Watering hole
Answer Description
This scenario is a classic example of pretexting. Pretexting involves an attacker creating a believable, fabricated scenario (the pretext) to manipulate a victim into providing sensitive information. In this case, the pretext is a security audit by a fake IT department member. Phishing is incorrect as it typically refers to attacks via email. Smishing is incorrect as it involves attacks via SMS text messages. A watering hole attack is incorrect as it involves compromising a website that targets are known to frequent.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some common examples of pretexting?
How can individuals protect themselves against pretexting?
What techniques do attackers use in pretexting?
You work for a large national realty company in the networking department. Recently your department received a help desk call from a smaller satellite office stating their WiFi is no longer working. The trouble ticket was escalated to you because company policy does not allow wireless networks. After further investigation you learn that an employee in the office setup a simple wireless router themselves. Which option best defines this situation?
Unauthorized twin
Disassociation
Rogue AP
Evil twin
Answer Description
The installation of an unauthorized wireless router or access point is known as a Rogue Access Point or Rogue AP. A Rogue AP could be an attack or simply an employee breaking policy and setting up a wireless AP without permission. This is dangerous as the wireless device (without proper configuration) would allow outside devices onto the network and would be the equivalent of gaining physical access to the network.
Ask Bash
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What are the risks associated with a Rogue AP?
How can companies prevent the installation of Rogue APs?
What is the difference between a Rogue AP and an Evil Twin?
Which type of security control is primarily used to identify unauthorized access or activities on a network?
Backup Systems
Security Policies
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Firewalls
Answer Description
Detective controls are designed to identify and record unauthorized activities or access within a system or network. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are a perfect example of detective controls since their main purpose is to detect potential security breaches, log security events, and alert systems or network administrators. While firewalls are used for prevention, and security policies guide user behavior, they are not primarily used to detect unauthorized activities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What is the difference between an IDS and a firewall?
What are detective controls, and why are they important?
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